NREMT operations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the criteria for START triage classification?

A

Respirations (greater than 30/min = RED)

Pulse (poor pulse, skin color or cap refill = RED)

Mental status (unable to follow simple directions = RED)

The “RPM” mnemonic is used to remember this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the risks for an unsecured EMT in the patient compartment of a moving ambulance in the event of a collision?

A

In the event of a collision the unsecured EMT will be thrown about and seriously injured or killed. The risk of being struck by unsecured equipment is also high in a collision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the transport officer responsible for at the MCI?

A

Tracking which patient goes to which hospital.

Assuring patients are sent to appropriate hospitals.

Seeing that no hospital gets overloaded with patients.

Notifying hospitals of incoming patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What size should a helicopter landing zone be?

A

100 x 100 feet and a slope of less than 8 degrees.

The area should be clear of poles and electric or telephone lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the functions under the EMS branch in a major incident.

A

Triage
- Treatment
- Transportation
- Staging
- Rehabilitation
- Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What effect does use of the siren during a call have on the patient and EMT operating the ambulance?

A

Use of the siren may increase patient anxiety.

It may also create a sense of urgency or excitement that causes the driver to drive at excessive and potentially dangerous speeds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two types of decontamination from a hazardous material exposure?

A

Gross decontamination is removal or neutralization of a majority of the substance.

Secondary decontamination is the process of removing remaining material after gross decontamination. In many cases small amounts of the substance can remain even after secondary decon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You responded to a call on an interstate highway. Where do you park the ambulance when you are first to arrive?

Where do you park if other emergency vehicles are there first?

A

If you are first on the scene you should park between oncoming traffic and the accident to warn oncoming motorists and protect the scene.

If other units are there first you should park past the accident scene. This will allow safer access to remove and load the stretcher without risk from oncoming vehicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List three concepts to reduce exposure from a terrorist attack.

A

Time - minimize your time at a scene or event

Distance - Maintain a safe distance

Shielding - keep objects between you and the hazard. This may be a physical structure or building, or approved personal protective equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the components in the mnemonic CBRNE.

A

Chemical
- Biological
- Radiological
- Nuclear
- Explosive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between a dispatcher and an emergency medical dispatcher?

A

An emergency medical dispatcher is one who is specially trained to handle EMS calls. This usually involves training in obtaining the proper information from the caller and providing some type of pre-arrival instructions to the caller.

Someone who is a dispatcher may routinely handle calls from the public and/or radio dispatching but does not have the specific medical dispatch training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The four incident command branches under Command are:

A
  • Planning
  • Operations
  • Logistics
  • Finance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four colors of the NFPA 704 system?

What does each color signify?

A

Blue - health hazard

Red - fire hazard

Yellow - reactivity

White - specific hazard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You must respond to a call in an adjoining district. It is a long response–and one you don’t do often. List several factors that will affect your choice of driving route.

A

Time of day and day of the week (anticipated traffic)

Road construction

Weather

Other delays (railroad crossings, bridges, school bus routes and times)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does NIMS stand for?

A

National Incident Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How far should you park your ambulance from downed power lines?

A

You must park far enough so the down lines couldn’t reach the vehicle.

A general rule is to park two full telephone pole lengths from the downed wires.

17
Q

What do UHF and VHF stand for?

A

These are radio frequency bands:

Ultra High Frequency

Very High Frequency

18
Q

Define: Hazardous Material

A

Hazardous materials are solids, liquids, or gases that can harm people, other living organisms, property, or the environment

19
Q

What is the role of the person who assumes “Command” at an incident.

A

The incident commander, or “Command,” assumes overall responsibility for the incident.

20
Q

Provide an example of a “blocking” vehicle? What does it do at a crash scene?

A

A fire engine is an example of a blocking vehicle. A highway truck (e.g. dump truck) may also be used.

The purpose of a blocking vehicle is to provide a large physical barrier between traffic and the accident scene.

21
Q

Where are bloody bandages and disposable towels used to clean up blood or body fluids disposed of?

A

In a “red bag” indicating infectious waste.

22
Q

What is the staging officer responsible for at the MCI?

A

Staging is responsible for providing a place for incoming EMS units and personnel to wait prior to assignment. This prevents confusion and unnecessary personnel on the scene and assures people are ready and available when necessary.

The staging officer keeps track of the resources at hand and send equipment and personnel to other sectors as they are requested and assures adequate help is available for future requests.

23
Q

What is the difference between a type I and a Type III ambulance?

A

Both the Type I and Type III are a “box” design but in the type III the EMT can move from the cab back into the box.

24
Q

Ambulances may disregard some traffic devices and exceed the speed limit when on an emergency. What is the standard for caution that must be observed?

A

“Due regard for others” means that the ambulance can’t be driven recklessly, negligently or in a way that may harm others.

25
Q

List three types of radiation and the penetrating ability of each.

A

Alpha radiation doesn’t travel far and can be stopped by something as thin as paper.

Beta radiation can penetrate through some levels of human tissue.

Gamma radiation can penetrate all levels of the human body. In some cases they can actually penetrate a few layers of lead.

26
Q

What is the difference between simple access and complex access to a vehicle?

A

Means of access that don’t involve tools are called simple access. This usually involves trying doors, having the patient unlock doors or roll down windows.

Complex access involves the use of tools or hydraulics to access occupants of a vehicle.

27
Q

List the four levels of hazardous material training.

A

Awareness
- Operations
- Technician
- Specialist

28
Q

How and when should you approach a medical helicopter?

A

You should only approach a medical helicopter after being instructed or approved by the flight crew to do so.

The rear of the helicopter is the most dangerous because of the tail rotor. Approach crouching from the front or the side as instructed by the helicopter crew.

29
Q

Define: Terrorism

A

The use of violence, threats of violence or intimidation to create fear or further a political agenda.

30
Q

What treatments are allowed during the triage process?

A

Usually only simple, lifesaving and quickly applied treatments are allowed including opening the airway, inserting an OPA and controlling severe bleeding.

31
Q

List four types of blast injuries.

A

Primary - injuries from the blast wave (e.g. ear, lung and hollow organ damage)

Secondary - injury from projectiles (e.g. penetrating trauma)

Tertiary - injury caused when the blast displaces (throws or knocks down) the victim.

Quaternary - all other injuries (burns, asphyxia, toxic exposure)

32
Q

What are the five phases of an ambulance call?

A
  • Preparing for the call
  • Responding to the call
  • Transferring the patient to the ambulance
  • Transport to the hospital
  • Terminating the call
33
Q

The mnemonic OTTO is used to help determine the impact of a terrorist threat. What does OTTO stand for?

A
  • Occupancy or location
  • Type of event
  • Timing of the event
  • On-scene warning signs
34
Q

What does the mnemonic TRACEM-P stand for?

A

TRACEM-P is used to remember the mechanisms that cause harm in terrorism.

  • Thermal
  • Radiological
  • Asphyxiation
  • Chemical
  • Etiological
  • Mechanical
  • Psychological
35
Q

What is a “secondary device” and how does it affect emergency responders?

A

A secondary device is one which is designed to detonate sometime after the main blast. The intent may be to injure emergency responders and further damage the emergency infrastructure.