NREMT medical emergencies and OB Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Pain from the chest and abdomen may also be referred to the shoulder. Causes may include:

A

Pancreatitis

Gallstones

Myocardial infarction

Pneumonia

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2
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition that occurs during pregnancy involving severe nausea and vomiting. This usually results in weight loss, dehydration and electrolyte disturbances.

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3
Q

What rhythms will a defibrillator shock?

A

Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia.

Remember the AED does not check for a pulse. It will defibrillate ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

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4
Q

What are the four abdominal quadrants? How are they identified?

A

They are created by drawing horizontal and vertical lines through the umbilicus.

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5
Q

What are the three stages of labor?

A

Stage 1 - from the beginning of contractions to full dilation of the cervix

Stage 2 - From full dilation of the cervix until birth of the baby

Stage 3 - begins after the birth of the baby through expulsion of the placenta.

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6
Q

What is the rate of compressions for adult CPR?

A

100 - 120 per minute. Push hard, push fast. Minimize interruptions in compressions.

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7
Q

Define: Braxton-Hicks Contractions

A

Sometimes called “false labor,” Braxton-Hicks contractions are light, irregular contractions that do not lead to delivery and may occur days to weeks before actual labor begins.

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8
Q

You will provide ventilations to a newborn if his/her pulse is less than ________ and provide compressions to the newborn if the pulse is less than _______.

A

If the newborn’s pulse is less than 100 you will provide ventilations at a rate of 40 - 60 minute. You will provide chest compressions at a rate of 120/minute if the heart rate is less than 60 per minute.

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9
Q

Define: Breech Presentation

A

When a baby appears buttocks or feet-first for delivery.

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10
Q

Define: Dialysis

A

Dialysis is a process by which an external system removes toxins and waste products from the blood when the kidneys are no longer able to do it naturally.

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11
Q

List several risk factors for suicide.

A

Depression
- Alcohol or substance abuse
- Those who are single, widowed or divorced
- Family member suicide
- Feelings of hopelessness
- Prior threats of suicide
- Detailed suicide plan
- Age (15-24 and elderly populations have higher rates of suicide)

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12
Q

Define: Para

A

How many live births a woman has had.

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13
Q

List the five rights of medication administration.

A

Right patient.
- Right medication.
- Right dose.
- Right route.
- Right time.

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14
Q

What are the five links in the American Heart Association’s Chain of Survival?

A

Immediate recognition of cardiac arrest and activation of the EMS system
2. Early CPR with a focus on chest compressions
3. Rapid defibrillation
4. Effective Advanced Life Support
5. Integrated post-cardiac arrest care

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15
Q

What is the difference between an ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

An ischemic stroke is caused by a blood clot that travels to the brain. This is the most common type of stroke.

A hemorrhagic stroke is caused by a blood vessel that ruptures and bleeds into the brain tissue. This stroke may present with a severe headache.

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16
Q

Your full-term pregnant patient reports that their doctor told them that they were “almost fully effaced.”

What does this mean?

A

Effacement is the thinning of the cervix which occurs in the weeks before birth.

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17
Q

Your patient gets dialysis and tells you they have a fistula. What is it and how will it impact your care?

A

A fistula connects arterial and venous blood flow in an extremity. It is used to connect the patient to a dialysis machine.

You should not take a blood pressure on an arm with a fistula.

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18
Q

Differentiate between type 1 and type 2 diabetes.

A

Type 1 diabetes is insulin-dependent. It generally comes on earlier in life and stems from the fact the pancreas is not creating insulin.

Type 2 patients usually have some insulin in the body but it is not used properly. Patients with type 2 diabetes often take oral medications.

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19
Q

Define: Placenta Previa

A

Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta grows in the lowest part of the uterus and partially or completely blocks the cervix.

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20
Q

What are the 4 ways a toxin can enter the body?

A

Ingestion, absorption, inhalation and injection.

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21
Q

What is an absence seizure?

A

An absence seizure is a type of generalized seizure that results in a loss of awareness (usually brief). In some cases mild muscle or facial twitching or loss of coordination may be observed.

There is no tonic/clonic seizure activity.

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22
Q

What is the typical dosing strategy for nitroglycerin?

A

An initial nitroglycerin tablet or spray, then up to two more spaced 5 minutes apart if chest pain or discomfort continues and vital signs remain adequate.

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23
Q

What does C-A-B stand for?

A

Circulation - Airway - Breathing, the American Heart Association’s approach to a patient who appears lifeless and is likely in cardiac arrest.

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24
Q

Define: Angina Pectoris

A

Angina pectoris (commonly called “angina”) is a condition in which chest pain is caused by ischemia of the heart muscle because of a vessel occlusion or spasm.

It is often caused by stress or exertion which creates a need for oxygen that the body can’t keep up with. In many cases the pain subsides with rest and nitroglycerin.

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25
Q

What does ROSC stand for?

A

ROSC stands for Return of Spontaneous Circulation - the return of a pulse, usually after CPR and/or defibrillation.

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26
Q

What happens when a patient misses a dialysis appointment?

A

Waste products and fluid builds up in the patient. They develop edema throughout the body. Patients also develop dangerous levels of potassium and other electrolytes which can lead to cardiac rhythm problems and death.

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27
Q

List three considerations for scene management when caring for multiple births.

A

Multiple births may be premature and require more aggressive care or resuscitation.

Multiple births create a “mini MCI” with the mother plus two or more neonates. Make sure additional resources are called for early.

Not all patients (e.g. those who haven’t had prenatal care) are aware they are carrying multiple babies. Be alert for signs of additional pending births (e.g. large abdomen after delivering one baby).

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28
Q

What are the indications for oral glucose?

A

A diabetic patient with an altered mental status but still able to follow instructions and maintain their own airway. If blood glucose monitoring is available the blood glucose reading should indicate hypoglycemia (BG less than 70 - 80 mg/dL)

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29
Q

List the indications for administering or assisting with an inhaler.

A

Patient has respiratory distress and a history of a disease or condition that would be helped by an inhaler.

The patient has an inhaler prescribed for him or her. (if assisting)

Medical direction has give authorization to use the inhaler (standing orders or on-line)

The patient is breathing adequately and is physically able to get the medication deep into the lungs.

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30
Q

What are the four main components of blood?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets and plasma.

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31
Q

You and your partner arrive on the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest with an AED. Do you apply the AED first or begin compressions first?

A

One rescuer should begin compressions while the other applies the AED.

The AHA states that high quality chest compressions are a main focus of resuscitation. Interruption of compressions must be minimal and avoided whenever possible.

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32
Q

List signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction.

A

Common symptoms include itching, hives, runny nose, watery itchy eyes, wheezing, and swelling and edema of the tissues.

More severe reactions include signs of shock, tightening or a sensation of closing in the throat, hoarseness and stridor.

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33
Q

List the contraindications for use of an inhaler.

A

Patient has already taken the maximum dose of the medication.

The patient is breathing inadequately and not able to bring the medication deep into the lungs.

The inhaler is not the patient’s prescribed device (for assisting with the patient’s inhaler)

Medical direction has not approved or directed use of the inhaler.

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34
Q

List signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS).

A

Chest pain, pressure or discomfort which may also appear or radiate to the neck, jaw, abdomen or back. Elderly and female patients may not display pain.

Patients may also exhibit anxiety, difficulty breathing, palpitations, cool and clammy skin, weakness, abnormal vital signs and/or a feeling of impending doom.

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35
Q

How do you care for a newborn immediately after delivery?

A

Dry the baby and keep him or her warm. Assess the baby. The baby should be moving and crying (hopefully both of these will be vigorous).

Evaluate the baby’s breathing, heart rate, color, movement and cry.

You will note that many of these are part of the APGAR scale but do not worry about doing a formal APGAR scoring if it keeps you from caring for the baby.

Provide resuscitation if needed.

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36
Q

Define: Myocardial Infarction

A

Myocardial infarction is a clinical term for heart attack.

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37
Q

What is an agonist?

A

An agonist is a substance or drug that binds to a receptor site and causes the expected response. These may be naturally occurring in the body (e.g. hormones) or from outside the body (e.g. medications).

The opposite of an agonist is an antagonist. The antagonist blocks the receptor from completing the expected response.

38
Q

Define: Postictal

A

A period of recovery from a seizure. It begins when a seizure ends and involves a gradual return to responsiveness.

The time and course of the postictal period varies widely from patient to patient.

39
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Atelectasis is the collapse of part or all of a lung. It results in reduced gas exchange.

It also refers to the concept of alveolar collapse.

40
Q

Define: Diabetic Ketoacidosis

A

A complication of elevated blood glucose where the body can’t use glucose as a fuel (because the body has no insulin). Instead, the body uses fats for fuel. This alternate process of metabolism causes a buildup of ketones (an acid) in the blood. It also causes the acetone or fruity breath odor sometimes seen in hyperglycemia.

41
Q

What happens in the lungs of the patient with chronic bronchitis?

A

The linings of the bronchiole are inflamed and excess mucus is produced. Patients present with a productive cough and chronic shortness of breath.

42
Q

List several factors that might predict the need for resuscitation of the newborn.

A

No prenatal care, premature delivery, drug use during pregnancy, history of problems during the pregnancy, meconium staining and multiple births.

43
Q

What is the difference between an inhaler and a nebulizer?

A

The inhaler is an aerosol device that sprays a fine powder which is inhaled into the lungs.

The nebulizer is a device in which air or oxygen is run through a medication. The medication becomes a vapor which is continuously inhaled by the patient through a mask or mouthpiece.

44
Q

List three chronic lung (COPD) diseases

A

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, black lung

45
Q

What is the difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis?

A

Hemodialysis is removing toxins and waste by filtering them through a dialysis machine. This is usually done 2 - 3 times per week at a dialysis center.

Peritoneal dialysis is done in the home by infusing dialysis solution through a catheter into the peritoneum where it absorbs waste material, toxins and excess fluid. It is then drained from the abdomen. This may be repeated several times per day.

46
Q

Define: Pulseless Electrical Activity

A

When the ECG shows electrical activity from the heart without a palpable pulse. Electrical activity without the corresponding mechanical pumping of the heart.

47
Q

List four indications of opiate overdose.

A

Indications of injecting medications (needles present) or prescription medications present

Track marks on the skin

Pinpoint pupils (in many but not all opiates)

Decreased respirations or respiratory arrest

Information or history from family or bystanders regarding opiate use

48
Q

Define: Transient Ischemic Attack

A

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is sometimes called a “mini-stroke.” It is when a patient experiences stroke-like symptoms which resolve quickly, usually in 1 - 2 hours.

49
Q

What happens in the lungs of the patient with emphysema?

A

Emphysema is a breakdown of the alveoli which causes decreased area for gas exchange. The lungs also lose elasticity. This causes air trapping and a “barrel chest” appearance.

50
Q

Define: Ventricular Fibrillation

A

Chaotic, disorganized electrical activity of the heart which does not create a mechanical contraction of the ventricles and does not produce a pulse.

This rhythm, when present, should be defibrillated.

51
Q

What is the peritoneum?

A

The membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.

52
Q

Define: Psychosis

A

Psychosis is described as a break with or loss of contact with reality.

53
Q

Differentiate the patient presentation between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.

A

Hypoglycemia is usually a more rapid onset and involves a more dramatic altered mental status than hyperglycemia. The hypoglycemic patient often has cool, moist skin.

The hyperglycemic patient may have a fruity or acetone-like breath odor. In severe cases, respirations may be rapid and deep as the body tries to “blow off” some of the acids. The patient may have non-specific complaints such as weakness and may complain of abdominal pain.

54
Q

List the possible side effects of inhaled bronchodilator medications.

A

Tremor, palpitations, nervousness, increased pulse.

55
Q

What is dysmenorrhea?

A

Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation.

56
Q

Define: Dyspnea on Exertion

A

Dyspnea on exertion (DOE) is difficulty breathing that comes on during periods of exertion (physical activity). This often indicates heart failure but can also indicate lung diseases (e.g. COPD) and infection.

It is important to note if a patient has an onset of new dyspnea on exertion or if the patient’s dyspnea on exertion has worsened.

57
Q

How do you treat excessive post-delivery bleeding?

A

Place a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening but do not pack or insert anything into the vagina.

Locate the uterus by palpating the mother’s abdomen. Massage the uterus to promote contraction and slow the bleeding.

58
Q

If a medication is chronotropic, how will it affect the heart?

A

Chrono- means time.

Chronotropic medications affect the heart rate.

59
Q

Define: Cholecystitis

A

An inflammation of the gallbladder most frequently caused by gallstones.

60
Q

Define: Placental abruption (abruptio placentae)

A

The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall - a cause of severe bleeding in the third trimester and a grave risk for mother and fetus.

61
Q

What are delirium tremens?

A

Delirium tremens (or “the DTs”) are found in patients who chronically abuse alcohol. It begins about 48 - 72 hours after patients stop consuming alcohol. Delirium tremens can be life-threatening and involve visual, tactile and auditory sensations and disturbances.

62
Q

How and when do you cut the umbilical cord after delivery?

A

The umbilical cord can be cut after the baby is properly assessed and cared for.

Place one clamp from the OB kit about 6 inches from the newborn. Place the second clamp 2 - 3 inches past the first clamp (away from the newborn).

Cut the cord using the scissors from the OB kit.

Be sure the cord is securely clamped to prevent bleeding from the newborn. Handle the newborn carefully and avoid damage or tension to the cord.

63
Q

What are the indications for nitroglycerin?

A

A complaint of chest pain.

Cardiac history and nitroglycerin tablets or spray prescribed to the patient.

Medical direction approved the administration (standing order or on-line).

The patient’s blood pressure meets your protocols for administration (usually 90 - 100 mmHg systolic)

64
Q

What are the indications for aspirin?

A

Cardiac chest pain

The patient is able to chew and swallow.

Medical director approves use (protocol or on-line)

The patient does not have aspirin allergies or sensitivity.

The patient doesn’t have a history of gastrointestinal bleeding.

65
Q

Ratio of compressions to breaths in adult CPR

A

30:2 (30 compressions to two breaths)

66
Q

The appendix is located in which abdominal quadrant?

A

The appendix is located in the lower right quadrant.

67
Q

What effect will a beta blocker medication have on heart rate?

A

Beta blockers (e.g. atenolol, metoprolol) slow the heart rate. They are prescribed for hypertension and for conditions in which the heart rate must be slowed down.

68
Q

Define Eclampsia and Preeclampsia

A

Preeclampsia is the abnormal development of hypertension, edema and subsequent weight gain during pregnancy.

Eclampsia is when the hypertension and edema from preeclampsia builds and leads to seizures and unresponsiveness.

69
Q

What is ascites?

A

Ascites is a build-up of fluid in the abdominal cavity. This may appear as distention or bulging.

In patients who are bedridden, fluid accumulation in the abdomen may be due to heart failure. Fluid accumulates in dependent (low-lying) places. In an inactive patient this may be the abdomen.

Ascites may also be due to diseases, especially cancer or cirrhosis of the liver.

70
Q

What is the difference between a “rescue” inhaler and a “controller” inhaler?

A

A rescue inhaler is used in emergencies to relieve bronchoconstriction (e.g. asthma attack). Albuterol is an example of a rescue inhaler.

Controller inhalers are for long-term use and will not provide relief in an emergency. The controller inhalers usually contain a steroid which reduces chronic inflammation and mucus production. Examples include Flovent and Advair.

71
Q

Which sided heart failure (left or right) causes pulmonary edema?

A

Left sided heart failure causes pulmonary edema. Recall that blood from the venous circulation returns to the right side of the heart. It is pumped to the lungs and then back to the left side of the heart. If the left side of the heart experiences failure, blood backs up to where it came from–the lungs.

Right sided heart failure results in fluid accumulation in the body’s dependent areas (e.g. ankles and abdomen).

72
Q

Differentiate allergic reaction from anaphylaxis.

A

The main difference between allergic reaction and anaphylaxis is that the anaphylactic reaction is life threatening (through airway compromise and/or hypotension).

An allergic reaction is the body’s exaggerated immune response to an allergen. It may be localized (e.g. redness, swelling, hives) or more severe. When the reaction becomes severe it is termed anaphylaxis.

73
Q

Describe the action of Activated Charcoal.

A

Activated charcoal adsorbs poisons. It is made with a significantly increased surface area for poisons to bind to.

74
Q

What happens in the lungs of the patient with asthma during an attack?

A

A trigger (e.g. allergies, exertion, viral infection) causes the constriction of bronchioles in the lungs. This results in the classic wheezing and difficulty breathing seen in asthma attacks. Asthma, if not treated, will also cause mucus production which can make subsequent attacks worse.

The difference between asthma and COPDs is that asthma is episodic. Unlike patients who have COPD and consistent symptoms, asthma patients experience symptom-free periods between attacks.

75
Q

Define: Asystole

A

“Flat line” on the ECG. No electrical activity from the heart.

76
Q

What is a STEMI?

A

STEMI is a type of heart attack identified in a 12-lead ECG. It stands for ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction.

77
Q

What is Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA) is a blood disorder in which the red blood cells have a “sickle” shape instead of the normal round disc-like shape. This results in anemia, sludging (clogging) of red blood cells in capillaries, severe pain in the extremities and/or torso, stroke, priapism and more.

Sickle cell trait and the subsequent disease is found in persons of African, Middle Eastern and Indian descent.

78
Q

Define: Acute Coronary Syndrome

A

A series of cardiac conditions including myocardial infarction (heart attack) and unstable angina pectoris in which the heart muscle is deprived of oxygen.

79
Q

Where is McBurney’s point?

A

McBurney’s Point is 1/3 of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. It is the rough location of the appendix in the body.

Tenderness here is a sign of appendicitis.

80
Q

Define: Prolapsed Umbilical Cord

A

A prolapsed umbilical cord is one that presents first (before the baby) during labor. This is a serious emergency because the baby’s head in the birth canal will occlude the cord against the vaginal wall and stop delivery of oxygen to the baby.

81
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism? What are the signs and symptoms?

A

Pulmonary embolism occurs when an embolus (often from a deep vein thrombosis or DVT that has broken free from the lower legs) lodges in a blood vessel in the lung. The size of the clot depends on the severity. Large clots can cause sudden death. Smaller clots are very challenging to diagnose and may present with difficulty breathing (possibly pleuritic), rapid breathing and pulse, bloody sputum, or chest pain.

82
Q

How would you determine if delivery of a baby is imminent?

A

There are several factors but the most common are a severe urge to “push,” crowning and a feeling like the mother needs to move her bowels.

Labor pains less than 2 minutes apart and prior pregnancies also weigh into the decision. Women who have had children before usually deliver subsequent babies more quickly. Specifically ask about the length of labor for other children.

83
Q

What is the indication for the medication naloxone (Narcan)?

A

Naloxone is indicated in opiate overdose. This includes heroin, fentanyl, methadone and prescription narcotic medications (e.g. Oxycontin, oxycodone).

84
Q

Define: Positional Asphyxia

A

Respiratory depression or arrest caused by positioning a patient in a manner that restricts breathing. This may be seen when restraining agitated patients face-down or in other positions that limit breathing (e.g. hog-tie).

85
Q

What are the side effects of nitroglycerin?

A

Hypotension (including dizziness, rapid pulse, postural hypotension and syncope)

Headache

86
Q

What are the contraindications to the administration of aspirin?

A

Allergy or sensitivity to aspirin

History of a blood clotting disorder.

History of gastrointestinal bleeding.

Currently takes blood thinning/anticoagulant medication.

History of asthmatic reaction to aspirin

NOTE: Not all of these contraindications are present in every system.

87
Q

What is End Stage Renal Disease?

A

End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) is failure of the kidneys so that they can no longer remove waste and regulate fluid balance in the body. Patients with ESRD require dialysis.

88
Q

Where on the body are the AED pads placed?

A

The upper right chest, to the right of the sternum and below the right clavicle.

The other pad is placed and the lower left chest near the anterior axillary line over the lower ribs.

89
Q

List 4 signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy.

A

Missed menstrual cycle

Abdominal pain

Vaginal bleeding

Rapid pulse and blood pressure (signs of shock/late signs)

90
Q

Define: Orthopnea

A

Orthopnea is difficulty breathing that is worse when reclining or lying flat. It is usually made better by sitting up or being propped up on pillows. It often indicates heart failure but is also seen in asthma and COPD.

91
Q

Define: Stroke

A

An interruption of blood supply to a part of the brain. The symptoms of stroke depend on what part of the brain is affected.