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final Flashcards

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NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

Oversight of the​ patient-care aspects of an EMS system by the medical director is​ called:

A

medical direction

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2
Q

A critical component of the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program transportation standard is safety and reliability​ of

A

ambulance transportation

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3
Q

What capability distinguishes trauma centers from​ less-specialized hospitals?

A

Surgical teams are available 24 hours a day

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4
Q

The modern EMS system in the United States began in​ the:

A

1960s

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5
Q

The NREMT is involved​ in:

A

EMS curriculum development

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6
Q

An enhanced 911 system allows the emergency dispatcher​ to:

A

immediately access the phone number and address from which the call is being made

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7
Q

Which of the following agencies has established an assessment program with a set of standards for EMS​ systems?

A

NHTSA

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8
Q

One aspect of the regulation and policy standard of the NHTSA Technical Assistance Program is that each state should​ have:

A

a lead EMS agency

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9
Q

The organisms that cause​ infection, such as viruses and​ bacteria, are​ called:

A

Pathogens

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10
Q

For which of the following is there a​ vaccination?

A

Hepatitis B

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11
Q

SARS​ (airborne pathogen) cross-contamination from the patient to the provider can be reduced if the EMT takes which​ precautions?

A

Don gloves and gown, use eye protections, and wear an N-95 respirator

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12
Q

Which of the following diseases is on the decline because of better​ vaccination?

A

Epiglottitis

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13
Q

Who mandates that employers of emergency responders must take certain measures to protect employees who are likely to be exposed to blood and other body​ fluids?

A

OSHA

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14
Q

During a clinical shift in the emergency​ department, you are instructed to put on a HEPA mask.The situation likely​ involves

A

tuberculosis

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15
Q

Your patient is suspected of tuberculosis. Your PPE should include​ a(n):

A

N-95 respirator mask

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16
Q

Hepatitis A is usually contracted through exposure​ to:

A

food or water that has been contaminated by feces.

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17
Q

An example of eustress​ is

A

having to meet higher performance standards.

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18
Q

Which of the following is considered part of the stress​ triad?

A

Bleeding gastric ulcers

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19
Q

What are body​ mechanics

A

The proper use of your body to prevent injury and facilitate lifting and moving.

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20
Q

Emergency moves may be necessary​ if

A

there is a threat of fire or possible explosion

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21
Q

Which of the following is an indication for an emergency​ move?

A

You are unable to gain access to other patients who need lifesaving care.

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22
Q

When lifting a stretcher or​ backboard, which of the following is the best number of people to​ use?

A

Four

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23
Q

The actions that an EMT is legally allowed to perform while caring for an injured or ill patient are known​ as:

A

the scope of practice\

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24
Q

When an EMT takes the time to ask permission from a conscious adult to do an assessment and​ procedures, this is respecting the legal principle​ of

A

expressed consent

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25
Q

You are on the scene of a cardiac arrest. You have already begun resuscitation when family members arrive and present you with a valid DNR order. You​ should

A

follow your local protocols and contact medical direction if unsure how to proceed

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26
Q

A patient appears to be in the midst of a psychotic episode and is unable to make a rational decision about consenting to emergency care. The EMT may care for the patient on the basis​ of:

A

implied consent

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27
Q

A suicidal​ 14-year-old who has critically injured herself is trying to get you to withhold care. She is screaming that she wants to die and that you should not touch her or come near her. You​ should

A

provide the care she needs

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28
Q

A photo of a pair of EMTs on a call shows them laughing and looking casual and relaxed a few feet away from a patient in apparent distress. This would most likely be used to​ demonstrate

A

res ipsa loquitur

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29
Q

Good Samaritan laws were enacted​ to:

A

protect individuals who try to help people in emergencies

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30
Q

Which of the following is MOST clearly a HIPAA​ violation?

A

You provide a personal injury attorney with a copy of a patient care report

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31
Q

During your EMT​ class, you will be studying the effects of how the brain​ (a neurological​ structure) contributes to normal lung inflation​ (a pulmonary​ structure). The study of how these body structures and systems function and relate to one another is known​ as:

A

physiology

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32
Q

What is one reason an EMT needs to understand medical​ terminology?

A

To describe the anatomical locations of a patient’s injuries

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33
Q

The imaginary horizontal and vertical lines going through the navel create​ the:

A

abdominal quadrants

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34
Q

What two divisions of the nervous system help control the size of the blood​ vessels?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic

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35
Q

Bile is created in which organ of the digestive​ system?

A

Liver the movement of gases to and from the alveoli

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36
Q

Which division of the nervous system carries sensory information to the spinal cord and brain and motor information from the brain to the​ body?

A

Peripheral nervous system

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37
Q

Which of the following causes​ inhalation?

A

The intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract.

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38
Q

What occurs when the autonomic nervous system is stimulated by​ stressors, resulting in a​ fight-or-flight reaction?

A

blood vessels constrict
body increases pulse, BV constrict, RR faster, pale sweaty skin

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39
Q

Which of the following cardiovascular structures carries deoxygenated​ blood?

A

Pulmonary Artery

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40
Q

Compared with​ adults, the​ infant’s rib cage toward the bottom is not​ as

A

: curved inward

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41
Q

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is known​ as:

A

shock

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42
Q

One of the byproducts of metabolism without oxygen​ is:

A

lactic acid

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43
Q

A​ cell’s internally created fuel that is responsible for powering all the other cellular functions​ is:

A

ATP

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44
Q

Oxygen​ is

A

required for normal cell metabolism

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45
Q

What does severe sepsis change about the thin wall between the alveoli and the alveolar​ capillaries?

A

Its permeability

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46
Q

In distributive​ shock, what is​ lost?

A

Blood vessel tone

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47
Q

Delayed capillary refill time is a sign​ of:

A

compensated shock

48
Q

A disruption of the​ body’s fluid balance due to dehydration would most likely​ cause:

A

hypovolemic shock

49
Q

Anemia is a decrease in the number​ of:

A

red blood cells

50
Q

Hypersensitivity can occur in response​ to:

A

certain food, drugs, or animals

51
Q

Accidents are a leading cause of death in which stage of​ life?

A

Early Adulthood

52
Q

Concerns over health and mortality often come to mind in what stage of​ development?

A

Late adulthood

53
Q

Nasal flaring and retractions are signs​ of:

A

an inadequate airway

54
Q

Sounds such as​ wheezing, snoring, and stridor are signs​ of:

A

airway or breathing compromise

55
Q

Which of the following patients has an open airway but is still at risk for airway​ compromise?

A

A patient who is choking because of a partial upper airway obstruction

56
Q

What is a potential harmful side effect of suctioning an​ airway?

A

Hypoxia

57
Q

When suctioning a​ child’s airway, the EMT must take care not​ to:

A

make contact with the hypopharynx

58
Q

Stridor

A

high pitched, whistling
severely restricted upper airway by either a physical obstruction or swelling

59
Q

Wheezing

A

high pitched sounds upon exhalation
upper airway narrowing. Asthma, COPD, anaphylactic

60
Q

Crackles/Rales

A

crackle or bubbling sounds upon inhalation in the lungs
Fluid build up in the alveoli

61
Q

Rhonchi

A

lower pitched sounds, resembling snoring
secretions in the larger airways. Pneumonia and bronchitis

62
Q

Gurgling:

A

fluid in the airway
caused by fluid obstructing the airway

63
Q

Which of the following is the area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other potentially unsafe​ incident, within which special safety precautions must be​ taken?

A

Danger Zone

64
Q

he process of ensuring scene safety​ is:

A

dynamic and ongoing

65
Q

A brief survey of an emergency​ scene

A

can reveal information such as visible hazards

66
Q

You arrive at the scene of a​ head-on collision. One passenger not wearing a seatbelt struck the windshield with her forehead during impact. expect

A

the possibility​ of: head, neck, chest and abdominal injuries

67
Q

​Generally, the sixth and last part of a primary assessment​ is:

A

determining the priority of the patient for treatment and transport

68
Q

A​ 34-year-old male is unconscious in bed. Which of the following should be done​ first?

A

Assess circulation

69
Q

Which of the following interventions should be performed with both responsive and unresponsive trauma​ patients?

A

Manual stabilization of the head and neck

70
Q

You check for a pulse in an unconscious​ 12-year-old patient. What would cause you​ concern?

A

Any pulse outside of normal

71
Q

A patient with an open but endangered airway​ is:

A

a patient lying faceup

72
Q

You are reaching for the pediatric BP cuff when you notice that your​ 9-year-old patient is becoming cyanotic. What should you​ do?

A

Repeat the primary assessment

73
Q

Which of the following is the federal agency that assigns and licenses radio​ frequencies?

A

FCC

74
Q

The patient denying respiratory difficulty is an example​ of

A

pertinent negative

75
Q

An example of a suspension administered by EMTs​ is

A

activated charcoal

76
Q

Which of the following must be included on your PCR after administration of a medication to your​ patient?

A

the effects of the drug

77
Q

Which of the following involves relaxation of the rib muscles and the​ diaphragm

A

Exhalation and Expiration

78
Q

An inhaler containing a beta agonist medication is intended​ to

A

dilate the bronchioles

79
Q

A rescue inhaler is most likely to contain which of the​ following?

A

Albuterol

80
Q

The heart has no reserve of​ __________, so any interruption in its supply results in significant problems

A

oxygen

81
Q

Which of the following refers to any condition in which the heart may not be getting enough​ oxygen?

A

Acute coronary syndrom

82
Q

An insufficient supply of oxygenated blood to an area of the body is​ called

A

Ischemia

83
Q

One of the side effects of administering nitroglycerin to a cardiac patient could​ be

A

a drop in blood pressure

84
Q

Conditions that narrow or block the arteries of the heart are​ called:

A

coronary artery disease

85
Q

Which of the following statements about infarction is​ correct?

A

Infarction is commonly the result of a totally occluded coronary blood vessel

86
Q

The pressure backup from the vena cava in​ right-sided congestive heart failure causes the sign​ of:

A

Jugular Vein Distension (JVD)

87
Q

Your patient has a weakened section of the arterial wall that is ballooning. This is known as​ a(n):

A

aneurysm

88
Q

Which of the following would not be corrected by​ defibrillation?

A

Asystole

89
Q

Asystole:

A

the electrical system fails completely and no electricity is created

90
Q

V-Tach:

A

heartbeat is rapid to the point where it will not allow heart’s chambers to fill with enough blood between beats

91
Q

V-Fib:

A

a heart’s electrical impulses are disorganized, preventing the heart muscle from contracting normally.

92
Q

A patient experiencing disorientation and a lowered state of alertness is experiencing a failure of the reticular activating system​ (RAS), which is responsible​ for:

A

consciousness

93
Q

Which of the following is the most important treatment element to consider in transporting a patient with​ seizures?

A

Airway and oxygen levels

94
Q

A stroke cannot happen​ without:

A

deprivation of oxygen to the brain tissue

95
Q

In an ischemic​ stroke, what occludes an​ artery?

A

A clot or embolism

96
Q

A​ 62-year-old male complains of weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrive and evaluate the​ patient, you notice that the symptoms are beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of the​ patient’s condition?

A

Transient ischemic attack

97
Q

Which of the following is characterized by​ sudden, temporary loss of consciousness caused by insufficient blood flow to the​ brain, with return of consciousness almost immediately on becoming​ supine?

A

Vasovagal Syncope

98
Q

TYPE 1:

A

congenital, insulin dependent. usually prescribed synthetic insulin

99
Q

TYPE 2:

A

acquired, non-insulin dependent. body unable to use insulin

100
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

low blood sugar, VERY RAPID ONSET

101
Q

Hyperglycemia:

A

high blood sugar, develops over days/weeks
untreated hyperglycemia leads to DKA

102
Q

What finding most clearly indicates​ anaphylaxis?

A

generalized pallor

103
Q

In an allergic reaction when an antibody combines with the​ allergen, what substance is released that causes​ bronchoconstriction, promotion of thick mucus production in the​ lungs, vasodilation, and increased vascular​ permeability?

A

Histamine

104
Q

Histamine release increases vascular permeability. What physical sign is associated with this​ pathophysiology?

A

swelling

105
Q

You arrive on scene to back up another EMT unit on a patient with an allergic reaction. As you approach the​ scene, you see one EMT preparing to administer the​ patient’s EpiPen®. Which of the following clinical findings would support the use of the​ EpiPen?

A

Signs and symptoms of shock

106
Q

Which of the following is an anticipated side effect of epinephrine​ administration?

A

Tachycardia

107
Q

You just administered an EpiPen to your patient. The patient is improved but is now complaining of chest pain. You​ should:

A

notify medical direction

108
Q

In a patient who is experiencing​ tachycardia, hypertension,​ nausea, and​ tremors, you should most​ suspect:

A

an antidepressant overdose

109
Q

Which of the following is true of absorbed​ poisons?

A

For an absorbed liquid, irrigate with clean water for 20 minutes and continue en route, if possible

110
Q

A patient with a history of alcohol abuse who reports visual and auditory hallucinations is reporting:

A

one of the symptoms of alcohol abuse
Signs and symptoms of Alcohol withdrawal: poor blood sugar, poor nutrition, potential for GI bleed, delirium temens, seizures, hypertension, tachycardia

111
Q

Volatile chemicals​ are:

A

vaporizing compounds

112
Q

A patient who displays​ excitement, increased pulse and breathing​ rates, rapid​ speech, dry​ mouth, dilated​ pupils, and sweating has most likely been​ using:

A

uppers

113
Q

Solid organs

A

Liver, Spleen, pancreas, Kidneys
dull pain

114
Q

Hollow organs:

A

stomach, small intestine, large intestine, gallbladder, bladder, duodenum, appendix
Cramping pain felt

115
Q

What type of bleeding is most likely associated with​ dark, tarry​ stool?

A

GI Bleeding

116
Q

Patients who are experiencing a heart attack often complain​ of:

A

epigastric pain

emt (47 decks)

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