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DHBS 365 > Normal Oral Microflora > Flashcards

Normal Oral Microflora Flashcards

1
Q

What is the oral microflora?

A

The microorganisms that reside in the oral cavity

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2
Q

What type of relationship does the normal oral microflora have with the body?

A

Commensalism

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3
Q

Why is it difficult for pathogens to colonize in the oral cavity?

A

The normal microflora compete for limited space and nutrients

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4
Q

What type of bacteria is primarily supragingival?

A

Streptococci

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5
Q

Is Actinomyces gram positive or negative?

A

Positive

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6
Q

Is Streptococci gram positive or negative?

A

Positive

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7
Q

Is Prevotella gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

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8
Q

Is Porphyromonas gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

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9
Q

Is Fusobacterium gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

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10
Q

Is Fusobacterium gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

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11
Q

Is Veillonella gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

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12
Q

What type of aerobe is Streptococci?

A

Facultative anaerobe

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13
Q

What are the five types of subgingival bacteria?

A
  • Actinomyces
  • Prevotella
  • Porphyromonas
  • Fusobacterium
  • Vellionella
    APPFV
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14
Q

What are the four Streptococci groups?

A
  • Mutans
  • Salivarius
  • Mitis
  • Angiosus
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15
Q

What shape is Streptococci?

A

Cocci

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16
Q

What color are Streptococci viridian colonies on blood agar?

A

Green

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17
Q

What pathology does the S. mutans group cause?

A

Dental caries

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18
Q

What do S. mutans produce?

A

Acid, causes low pH

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19
Q

What is S. mutans virulence property?

A

Ability to form biofilm

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20
Q

What is the primary pathogen in causing dental caries?

A

S. mutans

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21
Q

Where is Salivarius group found in the oral cavity?

A

Mucosal surfaces, including the tongue

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22
Q

Where does S. mutans colonize at in the oral cavity?

A

Tooth or denture surfaces

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23
Q

Is S. salivarius an opportunistic, primary pathogen, or part of the normal flora?

A

Opportunistic

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24
Q

Is S. vestibularis an opportunistic, primary pathogen, or part of the normal flora?

A

Normal flora

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25
What are the two bacteria in the Salivarius group?
- S. salivarius - S. vestibularis
26
What four bacteria are in the Mitis group?
- S. sanguinis - S. gordonii - S. mitis - S. oralis SGMO
27
What group are the early colonizers in biofilm formation?
Mitis group
28
What group (primarily speaking) can become an opportunistic pathogen and cause infective endocarditis?
Mitis group
29
What group is primarily ground in plaque formation and mucosal surfaces?
Anginosus group
30
Is the Anginosus group a primary or opportunistic pathogen?
Opportunistic
31
What group is involved in maxillofacial infections?
Anginosus group
32
What are the three bacterium in the Anginosus group?
- S. anginosus - S. intermedius - S. constellates AIC
33
What are four features of gram positive bacilli?
- Purple stain - Thick peptodiglycan layer - No LPS layer - No outer layer
34
What bacilli bacterium is involved in caries formation?
Lactobacilli
35
What pH range does Lactobacilli grow in?
Acidogenic and acid tolerant
36
What shape is pleomorphic bacteria?
No distinct shape, can also be changing shape
37
What shape is eubacteria?
Pleomorphic
38
Where are Eubacteria found primarily?
Dental plaque, specifically in periodontal pockets
39
What type of aerobes are Eubacteria?
Obligate anaerobes
40
What type of aerobes are Propionibacterium?
Strict anaerobes
41
Where is Propionibacterium found?
Dental plaque
42
Where are Actinomyces species found?
Major component of dental plaque, found in subgingival microbiota of healthy individuals
43
Can Actinomyces be a primary or opportunistic a pathogen?
Opportunistic
44
What is acinomycosis?
Abcesses, chronic inflammation in the orofacial region
45
What are four features of gram-negative bacteria?
- Pink stain - Outer layer - LPS - Small layer of peptiglycogan
46
What type of aerobe are the Veillonella species?
Anaerobic
47
Is the Veillonella species gram positive or negative?
Negative
48
Where is the Veillonella species found?
Dental plaque
49
What bacterium is associated with aggressive periodontitis?
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
50
What is a key bridging organism between the early colonizers and periodontal pathogens?
Fusobacterium species
51
Where are Fusobacterium species found?
Low numbers in healthy subgingival biofilm, enriched in pockets
52
What are the two types of Porphyromonas bacterium?
- P. gingivalis - P. endodontalis
53
What type of Porphyromonas is found in infected root canals?
P. endodontalis
54
What type of Porphyromonas is found in advanced periodontal lesions?
P. gingivalis
55
What type of bacterium is associated with periodontitis and endodontic infections?
Prevotella intermedia
56
What is Campylobacter rectus a causative agent of?
Chronic periodontal disease
57
What type of aerobe is Campylobacter rectus?
Strict anaerobe
58
What type of aerobe is Treponema?
Struct anaerobe
59
What is Treponema associated with?
Progression of periodontal disease
60
If gram negative bacteria, then what opportunistic pathogen can increase?
Fungi
61
What virus is most commonly found in the saliva and orofacial region and is the causative agent of cold sores?
Herpes simplex virus type 1
62
What four factors can contribute to disease?
- Salivary flow rate - Diet - tobacco use - Integrity of the immune system
63
What does Tanerella forsythia cause?
Connective tissue destruction and alveolar bone resorption in periodontal disease
64
What type of bacteria is Tanerella forsythia?
Gram negative anaerobe
65
What is the most abundant type of fungi in the mouth?
Candida species
66
What causes an increase likelihood of getting oral thrush/Candida overgrowth?
Dentures and orthodontic appliances
67
What part of the mouth is environmentally suitable for gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria that are involved in periodontal disease and halitosis?
Dorsum of the tongue
68
What pH range is saliva typically between?
6.75 and 7.25
69
What can gingival crevicular fluid do?
Remove non-adherent bacteria, introduce IgG and neutrophils, and provide peptides and carbohydrates that bacteria can use for metabolism

DHBS 365 (10 decks)

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