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i love my life > Neurophysiology 3: Autonomic Nervous System, Control of Movements, Cerebral Metabolism > Flashcards

Neurophysiology 3: Autonomic Nervous System, Control of Movements, Cerebral Metabolism Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 types of neurons?

A

preganglionic and postganglionic

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2
Q

Where do preganglionic neurons originate from?

A

CNS

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3
Q

Where do postganglionic neurons originate from?

A

ganglia

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4
Q

What kind of nervous system is self-governing? It does not require a will a controls processes like digestion and body temperature homeostasis.

A

autonomic nervous system

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5
Q

What chain of neurons are very close to the spinal cord?

A

sympathetic chain of ganglia

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6
Q

What level in does the spine does the sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate from?

A

T1-L2

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7
Q

The sympathetic ganglia innervates one target organ only. True or False?

A

False. One sympathetic ganglia can innervate several target organs.

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8
Q

What ganglion innervates majority of the abdominal and visceral organs?

A

Celiac Ganglion

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9
Q

What ganglion innervates the heart?

A

Stellate Ganglion

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10
Q

Where does the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons originate from?

A
  1. Nuclei of Cranial Nerves: 3, 7, 9, 10
  2. S2-S4

*at brain stem

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11
Q

Where are parasympathetic ganglia found?

A

at close apposition w/ target organ

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12
Q

How many target organs can a parasympathetic ganglia innervate?

A

One

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13
Q

What are the 3 configurations (directions) of a preganglionic sympathetic neuron?

A
  1. direct synapse
  2. pass upwards/downwards the chain
  3. can totally skip ganglions to innervate another
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14
Q

Where are the preganglionic neurons located in the spinal cord?

A

intermediolateral cell column (grey matter of spinal cord)

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15
Q

Does the parasympathetic nervous system have a long or short preganglionic fiber?

A

long. Because it needs to get to the target organ.

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16
Q

What are the two main neurotransmitters used by the Peripheral ANS?

A

acetylcholine & norepinephrine

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16
Q

Does the sympathetic nervous system have a long or short preganglionic fiber?

A

short. ganglion is nearer to CNS, and so fibers are shorter

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17
Q

What neurotransmitter does the preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic and parasympathetic use?

A

acetylcholine

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18
Q

All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. True or False?

A

True. This includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

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19
Q

What does cholinergic mean?

A

uses acetylcholine

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20
Q

All postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system use acetylcholine. True or False?

A

False. Most sympathetic postganglionic neurons are adrenergic.

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21
Q

All postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system use acetylcholine for transmission. True or False?

A

True. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are cholinergic.

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22
Q

What are the exceptions in the sympathetic nervous system that does not use adrenaline as a transmitter?

A

sweat glands, smooth muscles, and some blood vessels

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23
Q

When a vesicle engulfs acetylcholine, is it already a complete compound?

A

Yes.

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24
Q

What are the ingredients for acetylcholine?

A

Acetyl-CoA (acetate component) + Choline

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25
Q

Describe the synthesis of norepinephrine.

A
  1. Start = Tyrosine –> Dopa (via hydroxylation)
  2. Dopa –> Dopamine (via decarboxylation)
    *dopamine is engulfed by vesicle from here.
  3. Dopamine –> Norepinephrine (via hydroxylation)
  4. Norepinephrine –> Epinephrine (methylation)
    *some are converted to epinephrine
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26
Q

Norepinephrine has at least how many receptor subtypes? name them.

A

Five (5) Subtypes:
1. Alpha 1
2. Alpha 2
3. Beta 1
4. Beta 2
5. Beta 3

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27
Q

Acetylcholine has at least how many receptor subtypes?

A

Two (2) Main Subtypes:
1. Nicotinic
2. Muscarinic (M1, M2, M3)

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28
Q

Cell receptors exert their action via ion channels. True or False?

A

False. Some can do this via G protein. Receptors attached to a G protein enact target organ effect.

i.e. When specific Gi (inhibitory) protein is activated, target organ will also become inhibited.

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29
Q

What part of the body is rich in Alpha 1 receptors?

A

arteries

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30
Q

What does a Gq protein do?

A

stimulatory/activation

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31
Q

Alpha 1 + Gq protein at the arteries. What will happen?

A

it will constrict the arteries

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32
Q

What organ is rich in Beta 1?

A

heart

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33
Q

What receptor is rich in the heart?

A

Beta 1

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34
Q

B1 + Gs = ?

A

increased heart rate

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35
Q

B2 is rich in which organ?

A

lungs

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36
Q

What G proteins are the lungs attached to?

A

GS and GI

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37
Q

What characteristics are present in the medication of patients with asthma?

A

Beta 2 agonist (activates B2)

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38
Q

B3 receptors are mostly found where?

A

fats

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39
Q

Odd numbered Muscarinic receptors are attached to what kind of G proteins?

A

GQ (stimulatory)

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40
Q

Even numbered Muscarinic receptors (M2) are attached to what kind of G protein?

A

Gi (inhibitory)

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41
Q

Muscarinic receptors receive what neurotransmitters?

A

acetylcholine

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42
Q

Norepinephrine attaches to what kind of receptors?

A

A1, A2, B1, B2, B3

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43
Q

What receptors are rich in the heart?

A

B1 & M2

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44
Q

When you want to keep your pee in, what neurotransmitter is used?

A

adrenergic (sympathetic)

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45
Q

When you pee, what state are you in?

A

parasympathetic (cholinergic)

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46
Q

The sinoatrial node of the heart is rich in what type of autonomic receptor?

A

B1

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47
Q

Reflexes occur in 2 arcs? What are they?

A

sensory arc & effector (efferent) arc

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48
Q

What autonomic reflex regulates blood pressure?

A

Baroreceptor Reflex

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49
Q

What is the sensory part of the baroreceptor reflex?

A

carotid sinus and nodose ganglion.

Nodose ganglion receives information from carotid sinus.

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50
Q

Describe the mechanism/pathway that occurs when someone gets high blood pressure.

A
  1. carotid sinus (detect)
  2. nodose ganglia (neuron)
  3. activate NTS (receive info)
  4. CVLM (inhibitory. When activated, it will inhibit RVLM)
  5. RVLM (stimulatory) –> because it is inhibited, it won’t be able to send stimulatory signals to preganglionic sympathetic neurons. And so, the heart and blood vessels will relax. Causing lower blood pressure.
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51
Q

What happens during low blood pressure?

A
  1. carotid sinus (detect)
  2. nodose ganglion (transmit info)
  3. NTS cannot activate.
  4. CVLM cannot activate (i.e. cannot inhibit RVLM)
  5. RVLM remains active
  6. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons are activated. In turn, heart rate increases blood vessels constrict
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52
Q

What possible intervention can you do when someone experiences a very high heart rate?

A

carotid massage. You manually introduce pressure on the carotid sinus, this makes your body think that you have high blood pressure and thus mellow down sympathetic ganglion to decrease heart rate and pressure.

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53
Q

The Micturition Reflex is also known as what?

A

Urination Reflex

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54
Q

When you let your bladder relax (expand) and external sphincter to constrict, what are you essentially doing?

A

letting pee stay inside. u don’t urinate.

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55
Q

In relation to urinating, the parasympathetic innervation allows for what?

A

to urinate

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56
Q

In relation to urinating, the sympathetic innervation allows for what?

A

to hold urine

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57
Q

What allows us to hold our pee voluntarily?

A

Pudendal Nerve (somatic).

It innervates external voluntary sphincter. (at a certain point in time)

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58
Q

When bladder is holding on to a lot of urine, what happens?

A
  1. Pelvic Nerve senses bladder
  2. activate parasympathetic arm (you will URINATE)
59
Q

The central autonomic network interacts with the endocrine and behavioral responses via what?

A

hypothalamus

60
Q

What network of the brain region coordinates with the sympathetic and parasympathetic responses?

A

Central Autonomic Network

61
Q
A
62
Q

What is the role of the central autonomic network and hypothalamus in integrating autonomic, endocrine, and behavioral responses?

A
  1. blood pressure
  2. energy metabolism
  3. reproductive behavior
  4. body temperature
  5. defensive behavior
  6. sleep wake cycle
63
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for the sleep wake cycle?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus and lateral hypothalamic area

“SLeep”

64
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for the defensive behavior?

A
  1. Paraventricular
  2. Ant. Hypothalamic
  3. Lateral Hypothalamic
  4. dorsal pre-Mamillary

“PALM”

65
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for body temperature?

A

preoptic region

66
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for reproductive behaviors?

A
  1. Ventromedial
  2. Ventral pre-mamillary
  3. Medial Preoptic

“VeVe-Me”

67
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for energy metabolism?

A
  1. paraventricular
  2. arcuate nuclei

“PAn”

68
Q

What hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for blood pressure?

A

paraventricular

69
Q

What do you call the ‘folds’ in the brain?

A

Gyrus

70
Q

What do you call the “lubog” part of the brain?

A

Sulcus

71
Q

What do you call the “deep lubog” part of the brain?

A

Fissure

72
Q

What is the functional units of the prefrontal cortex?

A

superior, middle, and inferior frontal gyrus

73
Q

What is the functional unit of Broca’s area?

A

Pars orbitalis & Pars triangularis

73
Q

What is the functional units of the motor cortex?

A

pre-central gyrus

74
Q

Which part of the brain is the primary motor area?

A

Pre-central Gyrus

75
Q

Which lobe is mostly for sensory?

A

Parietal Lobe

76
Q

According to the Brodmann Area, what is the primary motor area?

A

Brodmann Area 4

77
Q

The primary motor area is Brodmann Area 4. Thus, our will to move originates from here. True or False?

A

False. The primary motor complex only “executes” those commands/will.

78
Q

Where does the “will to move” originate from? i.e. the initiators

A
  1. Somatosensory Association Area
  2. Visual Association Area
  3. Prefrontal Cortex
  4. Auditory Association Area
79
Q

Why is the Central Sulcus of Rolando important?

A

It separates the frontal lobe (primary motor cortex) and the parietal lobe (primary somatosensory cortex).

80
Q

The lateral sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobe from the temporal lobe. It is notable for its proximity to which regions of the brain?

A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area (speech and language)

81
Q

What are the 2 areas in the cerebral cortex that are responsible for controlling movement?

A
  1. Premotor Area (BA 6)
  2. Primary Motor Area (BA 4)
82
Q

Describe the neural pathway involved in planning and initiating voluntary movement?

A

Association Area (initiators)→ Basal Nuclei → Thalamus (VA & VL nucleus; motor) → Premotor Area → Primary Motor Area

83
Q

A stroke occurs at the medial part of the brain. Which part of the body is affected?

A

contralateral Legs/Feet

*Medial Region of Motor Cortex: region closer to center (longitudinal fissure) controls lower extremities

84
Q

What are the 2 direct pathways (pyramidal) that control movement?

A
  1. corticospinal
  2. corticobulbar (brainstem)
85
Q

What is the corticobulbar pathway responsible for?

A

Facial expressions, mastication

85
Q

The corticospinal pathway can further be classified into 2. What are they and how do they differentiate?

A
  1. Lateral: decussates
  2. Anterior: doesn’t decussate
86
Q

Which corticospinal pathway decussates at the level of the medulla?

A

lateral

86
Q

The primary motor cortex is situated at which Brodmann Area?

A

4

87
Q

What are the 4 brainstem motor centers that contribute to the control of movements?

A
  1. superior colliculus
  2. Red Nucleus
  3. Reticular formation
  4. Vestibular nuclei
87
Q

What are the indirect motor pathways?

A
  1. tectospinal tract
  2. rubrospinal tract
  3. Reticular Formation
    a. lateral reticulospinal
    b. medial reticulospinal
  4. vestibulospinal tract
88
Q

What is the brainstem center of the tectospinal tract?

A

superior colliculus

89
Q

What is the brainstem center of the rubrospinal tract?

A

red nucleus

90
Q

What is the brainstem center of the lateral and medial reticulospinal tract?

A

reticular formation

91
Q

(1) “Huy! May ipis sa likod mo,” kuya said. The flutter of its wings eerily grazed my ears. I immediately snapped my head to the side to see where it was. (2) It flew towards and me, but years of taekwondo made me nimble and was able to regain my balance after a swift dodge.

What indirect motor paths were used?

A

(1) tectospinal + reticulospinal
(2) vestibulospinal + reticulospinal

92
Q

What is the brainstem center of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

vestibular nuclei

93
Q

All indirect motor pathways are involuntary. True or False?

A

True

94
Q

There are 2 types of reticulospinal tract. What are they and how are they different?

A
  1. Lateral Reticulospinal: inhibit muscle of trunk and proximal
  2. Medial Reticulospinal: excites muscle of trunk and proximal
95
Q

What happens during decortication?

A

Lesion is above Red Nuclei.
a. Upper Extremity is flexed
b. Lower Extremity is extended

96
Q

What happens during decerebration?

A

Lesion is below Red Nuclei.
a. Upper Extremity is extended
b. Lower Extremity is flexed

97
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

1) Initiation of movements
2) Suppression of unwanted movements
3) Regulation of muscle tone (via the
reticulospinal tract)
4) Regulation of non-motor processes
(cognitive, linguistic, limbic functions,
memory, planning)

98
Q

What are the 3 pathways of the basal ganglia?

Hint: “circuit”

A
  1. Direct Circuit
  2. Indirect Circuit
  3. Substansia Nigra
98
Q

What is the main function of the Direct Circuit pathway of the Basal Ganglia?

A

Promote movement

98
Q

What neurotransmitters does the Direct Circuit pathway of the Basal Ganglia use?

A
  1. Glutamate = excitatory
  2. GABA = inhibitory
99
Q

Describe the pathway of the direct circuit pathway of the basal ganglia.

A

“Coke, Pepsi, In can, Tall CappuCcino”
1. Cortex
2. Putamen
3. GPi
4. Thalamus
5. Cortex
6. Corticospinal Tract

100
Q

Describe the pathway of the indirect circuit pathway of the basal ganglia.

A

“Coke, Pepsi, maX, Sprite, in can, tall
cappuccino”

  1. Cortex
  2. Putamen
  3. GPe
  4. STN
  5. GPi
  6. Thalamus
  7. Cortex
  8. Corticospinal Tract
101
Q

What is the main function of the indirect circuit pathway of the basal ganglia?

A

inhibition/modulation of movement

102
Q

What is the main function of the substantia nigra?

A
  1. produces dopamine
  2. It is the “battery of the circuit”.
    • promotes the direct pathway
    • inhibit indirect pathway
102
Q

What neurotransmitter does the substantia nigra use?

A

dopamine ONLY, for both direct and indirect. Only the receptors are different

103
Q

Identify the receptors substantia nigra uses.

A
  1. Dopamine 1 receptor: stimulatory
  2. Dopamine 2 receptor: inhibitory
104
Q

Give an example of a disease that is caused by the degeneration in the substantia nigra. Explain its mechanism

A

Parkinson’s Disease. (hypokinetic):
- direct pathway is underactive (stimulate movement)
- indirect pathway (movement suppresser) is overactive

Both pathways don’t receive enough dopamine. Hence, movement is slow

105
Q

Describe the mechanism of Chorea

A
  • hyperkinetic
  • degeneration at the indirect pathway
  • indirect pathway is underactive (reduced inhibition)
  • direct pathway is overly stimulated

Hence, there is too much movement

106
Q

What is STN for?

A

send excitatory signal to GPi to increase its inhibitory effect

107
Q

Describe what happens in Ballismus (disorder)

A

STN is damaged. GPi is not stimulated thus it cannot inhibit thalamus. Thalamus sends too much excitatory signal to motor cortex causing big and violent involuntary movements

108
Q

What part of the brain acts like a consultant?

A

cerebellum

109
Q

What are the pathways of the cerebellum that it uses to modulate movement?

A
  1. cortico-ponto-cerebellar tract (CPCT)
  2. spinocerebellar tract
  3. Dentato-rubro-thalamic tract (DRTT)
  4. compare command signal w/ sensory info*
110
Q

What is CPCT for?

A

Monitoring intentions for movement

111
Q

What is the spinocerebellar tract for?

A

monitor actual movements

112
Q

What is DRTT for?

A

send out corrective feedback

113
Q

Which indirect / extrapyramidal pathway allows an individual to look briskly and
reflexively towards visual and auditory stimuli?

A

Tectospinal

114
Q

Which tract allows the cerebellum to monitor intentions for movements and to receive
input from the cerebrum?

A

Cortico-ponto-cerebellar

115
Q

Where do sensory signals enter the cord through?

A

dorsal roots

115
Q

where are the 2 destinations sensory signals can go to?

A
  1. gray matter
  2. higher level of the nervous system
115
Q

what tract is responsible for the voluntary control of the muscle

A

corticospinal tract

115
Q

What are the 2 types of anterior motor neurons?

A
  1. gamma motor neuron: innervate intrafusal fiber (muscle fiber)
  2. alpha motor neuron: innervate extrafusal fiber (main meat of muscle)
116
Q

What is the dorsal root for?

A

sensory

116
Q

What are the inhibitory cells that transmit
inhibitory signals to the surrounding motor neurons (lateral inhibition)?

A

renshaw cells

117
Q

What muscle sensory receptor is responsible for sensing the length of the muscle and is distributed throughout the belly of the muscle?

A

Muscle SpindLes

118
Q

What muscle sensory receptor detect tendon tension or rate of change of tension? (located in muscle tendons)

A

Golgi Tendon Organ

119
Q

What are the 2 types of spindle nerve endings?

A
  1. Primary Afferent
  2. Secondary Afferent
120
Q

What are the 2 types of intrafusal muscle fiber?

A
  1. nuclear bag muscle fiber
  2. nuclear chain fiber
121
Q

What is the muscle stretch reflex for?

A

It contracts the muscle when the body detects over-stretching. This is done to prevent injury.

122
Q

Describe the mechanism of the muscle stretch reflex.

A
  1. muscle spindle detects over-stretching
  2. afferent impulse travels via type la nerve fibers
  3. enter dorsal root
  4. dorsal fiber goes to ant. horn & synapse with ant. motor neuron –> facilitate contraction

Note: this reflex is monosynaptic. Only one synapse between sensory (type la afferent) & motor neuron. Allows for quick reflex

123
Q

How much resting cardiac output does the brain receive?

A

15%

124
Q

How much blood flows through the brain per minute?

A

~750 to 900 ml/min.

125
Q

What metabolic factors dictate blood flow to the cerebrum?

A
  1. CO2 concentration
  2. O2 concentration
  3. Hydrogen Ion
  4. Increased glutamate
126
Q

What happens when hydrogen ion (acidity) is increased?

A

increase blood flow

127
Q

When Mean Arterial Pressure is within 60-180 mmHg, what mechanism can blood vessels do?

A

narrow or widen. (increase glutamate = vasodilation)

127
Q

Autoregulation is effective within what range? (Mean Arterial Pressure)

A

60-180 mmHg

127
Q

What are the functions of the Cerebrospinal fluid?

A
  1. mechanical protection
  2. chemical protection
  3. circulation
127
Q

What produces the cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Choroid plexus

128
Q

The average total volume of circulating cerebrospinal fluid in an adult is (in mL):

A

80-150

129
Q

Which structure is responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production?

A

Choroid plexus

130
Q

What are the special features of brain metabolism?

A
  1. Higher metabolic rate compared
    to the rest of the cells in the
    body
  2. Lack of significant anaerobic
    metabolism
  3. Reliance on glucose
131
Q
A

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