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Stage 1 > Neurobiology Theme 3 > Flashcards

Neurobiology Theme 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the types of sensory receptors in the skin

A 
hair follicle receptors 
free nerve endings 
meissner corpuscle 
merkel cells 
pacinian corpuscle 
ruffini endings
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2
Q

what are hair follicle receptors

A

sense motion, direction
fibre type II (a beta)
small receptive field
uncapsulated

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3
Q

what are free nerve endings

A 
nociception 
III ( adelta) & IV (cfibres)
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4
Q

what are meissner corpuscles

A

tap, flutter
fibre type II ( a beta)
small receptive field
encapsulated

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5
Q

what are merkel cells

A

touch, pressure
fibre type II (a beta)
small receptive field
unencapsulated

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6
Q

what are pacinian corpuscles

A

vibration
type II (a beta)
large receptive field
encapsulated

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7
Q

what are ruffini corpuscles

A

skin, stretch (slippage)
fibre type II (a delta)
large receptive field
encapsulated

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8
Q

what type of threshold do skin receptors usually have

A

low

except for nociceptors which have high

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9
Q

what is sensory transduction

A

conversion of a sensory stimulus from one form to another

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10
Q

describe signal transduction on the pacinian corpuscle

A

pressure on skin changes shape of pc stretching na channels so na influx.
depolarisation, more +ve inside cell.
only when threshold is reached AP is propagated (generator potential)

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11
Q

what type of action potential do sensory receptors generate

A

tonic- steady and constant firing

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12
Q

how can we tell between light and touch

A

changes in firing rate- increase in tonic firing
duration of time for AP
activation of different receptive fields

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13
Q

what is the difference between rapid and slow adapting receptors

A

rapid will respond to the application and removal of stimulus & fail to respond to a maintained stimulus
slow will increase firing rate if stimulus increased

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14
Q

what are some ex of rapid adapting receptors

A

meissner corpuscle
hair follicles receptors
pacinian corpuscle

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15
Q

what are some ex of slow adapting receptors

A

merkel cells
hair follicle receptors
ruffini corpuscles

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16
Q

what is the receptive field

A

space occupied by a sensory receptor that can elicit a response to a stimulus (may be overlap)
different receptors have different sized receptive fields

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17
Q

what would the receptive field be like on fingertips

A

small, numerous
more fields
highly discriminatory (can discriminate between 2 receptive fields)

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18
Q

what would the receptive field be like on the back

A

large, sparse

low discrimination

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19
Q

where is there a convergence of pathways in the body

A

rod of retina which signal to one bipolar neurone and one retinal ganglion cell can head to the brain

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20
Q

what happens in divergence

A

one neurone can make many divergent connections to a number of post synaptic neurones

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21
Q

what is the purpose of divergence and convergence

A

one sensory modality can alter the other like in the gated theory of pain

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22
Q

in sensitive areas what happens to receptive fields

A

they overlap

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23
Q

what is lateral inhibition

A

the ability of an excited neurone to reduce the activity of its neighbours

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24
Q

what happens when there is stimulation of the centre of the field

A

the lateral aspects can also be stimulated

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25
Q

what happens to the lateral neurones when the centre neurone is central neurone is stimulated

A

they are inhibited by interneurones from the middle neurone

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26
Q

what does the brain receive in lateral inhibtion

A

info from the middle neurone to provide a more accurate and discriminative input

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27
Q

what are the two motorneurones in the ventral horn that innervate skeletal muscle

A

alpha motor neurones

gamma motor neurones

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28
Q

specifically what the alpha motor neurones innervate

A

extrafusal muscle fibres

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29
Q

specifically what do gamma motor neurones innervate

A

intrafusal muscle fibres (within muscle spindle)

spindle measures the degree of stretch tension within the muscle

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30
Q

what does the myotactic (stretch) reflex involve

A
  • 1A afferents bringing back info from muscle spindle relating to the degree of stretch
  • excite the flexor/extensor muscle that it is coming from
  • inhibitory inter neurones will inhibit the activity of the opposite muscle being excited
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31
Q

where do preganglionic sympathetic axons arise and where do they go

A

lateral horn of the thoracic spinal cord and enter the sympathetic chain and synapse in the sympathetic ganglia

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32
Q

what is flaccid paralysis caused by

A

damage to lower motor neurones due to no innervation of the muscle it supplies so muscle will not work

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33
Q

what is spastic paralysis caused by

A

damage to upper motor neurones (e.g stroke, lesion i spinal cord) , lower motor neurones still active and under reflex control

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34
Q

what signals change in length in muscle spindle

A

1a afferents- stimulate muscle contraction

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35
Q

what signals change in tension in golgi tendon organ

A

1b afferents - inhibit muscle contraction

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36
Q

what will an increase in muscle length causes

A

activation of stretch and tendon(dampen down stretch reflex) reflexes

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37
Q

what is the central pattern generator

A

generation of alternate flexion and stretching during routine movements e.g. walking (within the spinal cord or brainstem)

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38
Q

the primary somatosensory cortex is the site for the termination of what pathway

A

thalamocortical

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39
Q

what does the primary somatosensory cortex contain

A

a topographical map of senses proportionate to the amount of sensory info

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40
Q

what are Brodmans areas 1,2,3

A

in the post central gyrus, compartmentalisation based on different functions

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41
Q

what is area 3b

A

primary somatosensory cortex

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42
Q

what is area 3a

A

proprioception

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43
Q

what is area 3b and 1

A

cutaneous stimuli

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44
Q

what is area 2

A

tactile and proprioception, size and shape

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45
Q

how is the post central gyrus organised

A

columnar organisation

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46
Q

what does the columnar organisation of the post central gyrus allow for

A

exact info from body areas to be extracted & processing of all info from nearby modalities

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47
Q

where is the secondary somatosensory cortex located

A

towards the end of the post central gyrus

sup aspect is the lateral sulcus

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48
Q

what is the secondary somatosensory cortex involved in

A

higher order functions

  • sensorimotor integration
  • integration info from the 2 body halves
  • attention, learning and memory
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49
Q

where is the association cortex for the primary somatosensory cortex located

A

posterior parietal cortex

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50
Q

what is the function of the posterior parietal cortex

A

integrate sensory info

recognition of objects by touch

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51
Q

what does the lateral corticospinal tract do

A

voluntary control of distal musculature- trunk and limbs

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52
Q

why are movements from one side of the body controlled by the opposite cerebral cortex

A

corticospinal & corticobulbar tract originate in the motor area are the cerebral cortex but decussate to the other side of the brainstem

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53
Q

what does the anterior corticospinal do

A

voluntary control of proximal musculature (either under voluntary or unvoluntary control) - trunk and limbs

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54
Q

what do the reticulospinal tracts do

A

from pontine and medullary reticular formation into the spinal cord
regulate flexor reflexed and initiate patterned activity e.g. locomotion, swallowing

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55
Q

what to rubrospinal tracts do

A

red nucleus

motor control, excitation of flexor muscles

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56
Q

which tract is the red nucleus apart of

A

rubrospinal

regulates ongoing movement

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57
Q

where does the tectospinal tract run from

A

sup & inf colliculus in the tectum to cervical region of spinal cord

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58
Q

what is the role of the tectospinal tracts

A

orientation to auditory and visual stimuli

control head movements in response to visual stimuli

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59
Q

where does the vestibulospinal tract run from

A

vestibular nucleus to the spinal cord

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60
Q

what do the lateral & med vestibulospinal tract do

A

lateral- controls antigravity muscles- balance

medial- regulates head movements

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61
Q

what are upper motor neurones

A

those found in the cerebral cortex

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62
Q

what are the 2 ways UMN can project to LMN

A

directly or indirectly

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63
Q

how can UMN project directly onto LMN

A

corticospinal or corticobulbar tracts

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64
Q

what can damage to direct pathways cause

A

babinski sign: paralysis, paresis (weakness) of fine skilled movements

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65
Q

why do segmental reflexes remain unaffected when there is damage to the direct pathways

A

local reflexes still present

only descending pathways damaged

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66
Q

what are the indirect pathways that UMN can project onto LMN

A

brainstem nuclei to LMN

  • rubrospinal tract
  • vestibulospinal tract
  • tectospinal tract
  • reticulospinal tract
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67
Q

what is the role of the indirect pathways of projection

A

integrate supporting musculature during voluntary movements & facilitate spinal reflexes involved with balance, posture eqm etc.

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68
Q

where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate

A

medulla-spinal cord junction.

it innervates the LMN on the other side

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69
Q

where does the anterior corticospinal tract decussate

A

at the segmental level in the spinal cord

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70
Q

where is the internal capsule located

A

between basal ganglia and thalamus

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71
Q

what passes through the internal capsule

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar fibres

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72
Q

how is the internal capsule organised

A

segmented to receive fibres from different limbs and part of the face

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73
Q

what type of stroke affects the internal capsule

A

lacunar stroke- this can take out the corticobulbar/corticospinal fibres

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74
Q

what does the tectum consist of

A

sup and inf colliculi in the midbrain

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75
Q

what is the reticular formation

A

all the neurones in the pons/medulla that are not in a specific nuclei or axons not in a particular pathway

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76
Q

what does the reticular formation contain

A

many nuclei and fibres travelling to cortex that release neuromodulators such as AchCh, serotonin and nor adrenaline

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77
Q

what is the function of the reticular formation

A 
regulate cranial nerve activity
slow pain conduction and modulation 
voluntary movements 
autonomic nc activity 
distribution of monoaminergic and cholinergic pathways 
respiration 
sleep 
cerebral cortical arousal and wakefulness
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78
Q

where does the reticular formation spread from

A

pons to spinal cord

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79
Q

where do reticulospinal and vestibulospinal pathways originate from

A

brainstem

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80
Q

why does the vestibulospinal tract control the same side of the body

A

the cerebellum controls the same side of the body and the vestibular nucleus is linked to the cerebellum

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81
Q

what is the babinski sign

A

upper motor neurone lesion leading to damage to descending corticospinal pathways, stroking the sole of the foot causes an abnormal fanning of the toes and the extension of the big toe

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82
Q

what is the function of general somatic afferent fibres (GSA)

A

general sensation (from skin, skeletal muscle, joints and bone)

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83
Q

what is the function of special somatic afferent (SSA)

A

vision hearing and balance

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84
Q

what is the function of general visceral afferent (GVA)

A

visceral organs- info from visceral organs e.g in the vagus from the stomach

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85
Q

what is the function of special visceral afferent (SVA)

A

taste, visceral sense

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86
Q

what is the function of special visceral efferent (SVE)

A

skeletal muscle from branchial arches typically muscles of facial expression/mastication

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87
Q

what is the function of general somatic efferent (GSE)

A

skeletal muscle from somites (eyes and tongue

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88
Q

what is the function of general visceral efferent (autonomic) ? (GVE)

A

parasympathetic to smooth muscles and glands

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89
Q

which cranial nerves entirely sensory

A

I II and VIII

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90
Q

which cranial nerves are entirely motor

A

III, IV, VI, XI and XII

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91
Q

which cn are both sensory and motor

A

V, VII, IX and X

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92
Q

which 4 cranial nerves carry parasympathetic preganglionic fibres

A

III, VII, IX and X

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93
Q

what are the general somatic efferent (GSE) nuclei- motor

A

oculomotor
trochlear
abducent
hypoglossal

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94
Q

generally, where are the general somatic efferent nuclei (GSE)

A

close to the midline

closest to the alpha motor neurones of the spinal cord

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95
Q

what do the oculomotor nerve innervate

A

superior, inferior & medial rectus, inf oblique & levator palpebrae superioris

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96
Q

what does the trochlear nerve innervate

A

sup oblique

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97
Q

what does abducent nerve innervate

A

lateral rectus

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98
Q

what does the hypoglossal nerve innervate

A

muscles of tongue

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99
Q

where is the oculomotor nuclei found

A

midbrain nearest midline

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100
Q

where is the trochlear nuclei found

A

midbrain nearest midline

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101
Q

where is the abducent nuclei found

A

pons nearest midline

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102
Q

where is the hypoglossal nuclei found

A

medulla nearest midline

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103
Q

what are the special visceral efferent nuclei (SVE) - motor

A

trigeminal
facial
nucleus ambiguous

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104
Q

what is nucleus ambiguous

A

the motor nuclei of IX, X, XI

all the fibres that run in these nerves originate from this single nucleus

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105
Q

what does the motor trigeminal supply

A

Muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, tensor palitini, mylohyoid, ant, belly of digastric

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106
Q

what does the motor facial supply

A

Muscles of facial expression, post. belly of digastric, stylohyoid and stapedius

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107
Q

what does the motor nucleus ambiguous supply

A

Skeletal m. of pharynx, larynx and soft palate

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108
Q

where is the motor trigeminal nucleus

A

pons

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109
Q

where is the motor facial nucleus

A

pons

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110
Q

what are the general visceral efferent (motor) nuclei - parasympathetic

A

edinger-westphal nucleus
super salivatory nucleus
inferior salivatory nucleus
dorsal nucleus of the vagus n

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111
Q

where is the edinger westphal nucleus

A

midbrain

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112
Q

where is the superior salivatory nucleus

A

pons

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113
Q

where is the inferior salivatory nucleus

A

medulla

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114
Q

where is the dorsal nucleus of the vagus

A

medulla

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115
Q

what does the edinger-westphal nucleus supply and via what cn

A

III

Sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles

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116
Q

what does the Superior salivatory nucleus supply via what cn

A

VII

Submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands

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117
Q

what does the inferior salivatory nucleus supply via what cn

A

IX

Parotid gland

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118
Q

what does the dorsal nucleus of vagus n. supply

A

Many cervical, thoracic and abdominal viscera

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119
Q

where do all the parsympathetic fibres of the vagus originate

A

dorsal motor nuclues of the vagus

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120
Q

what are the general somatic afferent (GSA) nuclei

A

mesencephalic nucleus of V
chief sensory nucleus of V
spinal nucleus of V

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121
Q

which nuclei does proprioception muscle spindle relflex, spindle afferents enter

A

mesencephalic nucleus of V

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122
Q

which nucleus does fine touch (discriminative) enter

A

chief sensory nucleus of V

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123
Q

which nucleus does pain and temp from face enter

A

spinal nucleus of V

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124
Q

what are the special somatic afferent nuclei (SSA)

A

vestibular and cochlear nuclei

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125
Q

what is the General and special visceral afferent nucleus (SVA)

A

nucleus of solitary tract

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126
Q

what sensation does the nucleus of the solitary tract receive and from what cn

A

VII- taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
IX- taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
X- taste from epiglottis

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127
Q

what are the the 2 major places strokes can occur

A

cortical stroke- blood supply to the cortex from the carotid artery and middle cerebral (face and arms)
lacunar stroke- affects internal capsule area (more devastating)

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128
Q

what is the early neural tube surrounded by

A

alar and basal lamina

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129
Q

what does alar lamina develop into

A

dorsal horn- sensory - lateral

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130
Q

what does the basal lamina develop into

A

ventral horn- alpha

motor neurones- medial

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131
Q

Where do corticobulbar fibres run from ?

A

cortex to the cranial nerve nuclei

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132
Q

What is the innervation of lower motor neurones ?

A

cranial nerve nuclei

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133
Q

What is the innervation of V and VII ?

A

bilateral projections from the primary motor cortex - upper face

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134
Q

What is the innervation of VII - lower face ?

A

contralateral

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135
Q

What is the innervation of XI ?

A

ipsilateral from PMC

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136
Q

What is the innervation of II , IVand VI ?

A

contralateral innervation from frontal and parietal eye fields

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137
Q

What is the innervation of XII ?

A

bilateral from PMC except for genioglossus - contralteral

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138
Q

Where does the trigeminal carry pain afferent run from ?

A

face, nose , orbit , meninges and muscles of mastication

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139
Q

Where does the facial nerve carry pain afferents from ?

A

ear and the canal

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140
Q

Where does the vagus nerve carry pain afferents from ?

A

meninges , ear canal and the larynx

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141
Q

Where does the glossopharyngeal carry pain afferents from ?

A

posterior tongue and pharynx

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142
Q

Where do the cervical spinal nerves carry pain afferents from ?

A

neck , meninges in the psoterior cranial fossa

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143
Q

Where are the sensory neurone cell bodies of the trigeminal found ?

A

in the trigeminal ganglion

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144
Q

Where are the proprioception cell bodies of the trigeminal found ?

A

mesencephalic nucleus of V

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145
Q

What does the spinal nucleus of V receive information about ?

A

firm touch , pain and temperature from skin of the face , oral and nasal cavities and palate

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146
Q

What does the main nucleus of V receive information from ?

A

fine touch from skin of face , oral cavity and palate

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147
Q

What information does the mesencephalic nucleus of V receive ?

A

proprioception from muscles of head

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148
Q

Where are the sensory neurone cell bodies ?

A

geniculate ganglion

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149
Q

Where do the general somatic afferents in the facial nerve come from ?

A

skin of the ear , ext.auditory meatus to spinal nucleus of V in medulla

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150
Q

Where are the sensory neurone cell bodies of the vestibulocochlear nerve ?

A

vestibular and spiral ganglia

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151
Q

Where are the somatic sensory neurone cell bodies of the glossopharyngeal nerve ?

A

superior ganglion

152
Q

Where are the visceral sensory neurone cell bodies ?

A

petrosal ganglion

153
Q

Where does the glossopharyngeal bring general somatic afferents from ?

A

firm touch , pain and temperature from posterior third of the tongue , oropharynx , nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses to the spinal nucleus of V

154
Q

Where are the somatic sensory neurone cell bodies of the vagus ?

A

jugualr ganglion

155
Q

Where are the visceral sensory neurone cell bodies of the Vagus ?

A

nodose ganglion

156
Q

Where does the vagus carry general somatic afferentss from ?

A

firm touch , pain and temperature from the ear and external auditory meatus and mucous membrane of the larynx to the spinal nucleus of the V

157
Q

What is the plexus of Raschkow ?

A

a central plexus in the pulp of the tooth - pain from teeth is mediated through this

158
Q

What type of pain do A-fibres transmit ?

A

rapid and sharp pain

belong to the myelinated group

159
Q

What can A-fibres end branches to ?

A

odontoblastic processes located on the periphery of the pulp and dnetinal tubules

160
Q

Where are A-fibres located ?

A

on the periphery of the pulp

161
Q

What may trigger pain sensation in the teeth ?

A

fluid movement in the dentinal tubules

162
Q

What type of pain is conducted by C-fibres ?

A

dull aching pain

163
Q

Are C-fibres myelinated or unmyelinated ?

A

unmyelinated

164
Q

Where do C-fibres terminate ?

A

in the pulp proper as free nerve endings or branches around blood vessels

165
Q

What is the route of A and C fibres ?

A

run in the branches of V2 and V3 and then terminate in the spinal nucleus of V - passing to the thalamus and cortex

166
Q

Where is pain associated with emotional distress processed ?

A

anterior cingulate cortex

167
Q

Where is the periaqueductal grey matter located ?

A

around the cerebral aqueduct in the tegmentum of the midbrain

168
Q

What does the periaqueductal grey matter do ?

A

plays a role in the descending modulation of pain

169
Q

What neurones are found in the periaqueductal grey ?

A

enkephalin releasing neurones

170
Q

What do enkephalin releasing neurones do ?

A

suppress pain

171
Q

What is released from the raphe nuclei ?

A

serotonin

172
Q

What does serotonin do ?

A

descends to the dorsal horn of the spinal chord where it forms excitatory connections with inhibitory interneurones in laminae II

173
Q

When activated what do the interneurones do ?

A

release enkephalin

binds to opioid receptros - descending pain modualtion

174
Q

What is the corneal reflex ?

A

touch cornea with a cotton wisp which elicits the bilateral blink reflex

175
Q

What is the pathway of the corneal reflex ?

A

sensory input from V1 - spinal nucleus of V - facial motor nucleus - orbicualris oculi

176
Q

What is the gag reflex ?

A

touching the back of the oropharynx elicits brief elevation of the paate and brief constriction of the pharyngeal constrictors

177
Q

What is the pathway of the gag reflex ?

A

sensory input from the glossopharyngeal - nucleus of solitary tract - nucleus ambiguus - vagus to the pharyngeal constrictors

178
Q

What is the jaw jerk reflex ?

A

tapping on the chin leads to contraction of masseter and jaw closing

179
Q

What type of reflex is the jaw-jerk reflex ?

A

monosynaptic

180
Q

What is the pathway of the jaw-jerk reflex ?

A

chewing against resistance builds up tension in the PDL
unloading of stretch inhibits masseter
golgi tendon organ detects level of stretch in PDL , pressure is released and inihbits contraction of masseter

181
Q

Which 3 cortices can pain pathways synapse in ?

A

nsular cortex
somatosensory cortex
anterior cingulate cortex

182
Q

What is the spinal nucleus of V continuous with ?

A

dorsal horn of the spinal chord

183
Q

Where is the primary visual cortex ?

A

occipital lobe - either side of the calcarine sulcus

184
Q

Where does light first hit ?

A

retinal ganglion cells

185
Q

How do impulses tavel from the retina to the bvrain ?

A

sensory neurones

186
Q

What does the retina consist of ?

A

pigmented epithelium

rods and cones

187
Q

Where are the cones situated ?

A

fovea

188
Q

Where are the rods sitted ?

A

peripheries

189
Q

How do the rods synapse ?

A

many rods synapse on one bipolar sensory neurone - more sensitive to lower light

190
Q

How do cones synapse ?

A

cones synapse on one bipolar neurone providing higher resolution

191
Q

What are the membraneous discs ?

A

thye contain proteins that respond to light - rods contain rhodopsin and cones contain photopsin

192
Q

What is the disinhibition of bipolar neuroness ?

A

light hits photoreceptors leading to hyperpolarisation which stops the release of neurotransmitter

193
Q

Where does the optic nerve travel ?

A

through the optic canal

194
Q

What is the pathway of the optic nerve ?

A

passes through the optic tract and the optic chiasm to the thalamus

195
Q

Where in the thalamus does the optic nerve pass to ?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus

196
Q

Alternatively where does the optic nerve pass to ?

A

superior calliculus

197
Q

What are the 4 cranial nerve nuclei that control the movements of the eye ?

A

edinger- westphal nucleus
oculomotor nucleus
abducens nucleus
trochlear nucleus

198
Q

What does the edinger westphal nucleus supply ?

A

ciliary muscle and the iris muscle

199
Q

What is the papillary light reflex ?

A

light shone in one eye - contraction of both pupils - direct light reflex
contraction if the pupil oppsote leads to consensual light reflex

200
Q

What is the accomodation relfex ?

A

focus on the incoming object leads to pupillary constriction- convergence of eyes as eyes focus on the near object

201
Q

What is the pathway of the pupillary light reflex ?

A

light comes into the retina and the retinal gnaglion cells
travel via the optic tract to the lateral geniculate nucleus and the superior colliculi
bilateral innervation of the edinger westphal nucleus
output to the pupil and ciliary nucleus - contraction of the pupils

202
Q

What is the pathway of the accomodation relfex ?

A

information travels tothe primary visual cortex

bilateral innervation of the oculomtor (eye muscles) and edinger westphal nucleus (eye focus)

203
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex located ?

A

in the superior tempora; gyrus

204
Q

How are action potentials triggered in the ear ?

A

pressure waves in the ear are conducted through the inner and middle ear
vibrations are caused in the tympanic membrane
generates waves of fluid on the cochlear
triggers hair cells to move
opens mechanically gated ion channels
triggers action potentials

205
Q

What does the cochlear consist of ?

A 
semi circular canals 
utricle 
sacculae 
ampullae 
cochlea nerve
206
Q

What is the organ of corti ?

A

between the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani

has a tectoriul and basilar membrane

207
Q

What does the sensory ganglion contain ?

A

sensory cell bodies of the cochlea nerve

208
Q

What does the sound on the tympanic membrane cause ?

A

sound hits the ossicles and causes vibration of the endolymph in the cochlea
generates vibrations in the basilar membrane
rubs in the tectorial membrane
moves the hair cells on the organ of corti
opens up channels and triggers APs.

209
Q

What is the action of stapees ?

A

vibrates on the oval window

210
Q

What is the helicotrema ?

A

a gap at the end of the unravelled cochlea allows fluid to move constantly

211
Q

High frequency sounds are picked up by what ?

A

proximal end of the cochlea

212
Q

Low frequency sounds are picked up by what ?

A

distal end of the cochlea

213
Q

Which hair cells are sensory ?

A

95% of inner hair cells

214
Q

What is the role of the outer hair cells ?

A

receive efferents from the superior olive

modulate basilar membrane motions

215
Q

What are sterocilia ?

A

organ of corti hair cells

216
Q

What are present on hair cells ?

A

potassium ion channels - linked mechanically

217
Q

Moving hair cells side to side causes what ?

A

physically opens the potassium channels and triggetrs voltage sensitive calcium channels - calcium cascade - vesicle movement and fusion with the presynaptic membrane

218
Q

Desribe the auditory pathway ?

A

1st order neurones from receptors in the organ of corti , fibres synapse in the cochlear nuclei
2nd order neurones travel to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus via the superior olivary nucleus and the inferior colliculus
3rd order neurones travel to the superior temporal gyrus in a bilateral pathway

219
Q

Describe the auditory stream ?

A 
primary auditory cortex
association auditory cortex
wernickes area
arcuate fasciculus 
brocas area
motor cortices
220
Q

What are the roles of the auditory cortrex

A

processing of sound
receives information from the medial geniculate nucleus
tonotopic representation of frequencies- different parts of the cortex pick up different f requencies

221
Q

What is the vestibular system concerned with ?

A

balance

222
Q

What is the vestibular system ?

A

semi circular canals are fluid filled - bulges are called ampullae
hair cells are located at the ampullae
endolymph inside the semi circular canals moves via inertia
triggers hair cell movement
nerve cells are triggered

223
Q

What are otolith organs ?

A

ear stones

224
Q

What are the ear stones ?

A

utricle and the saccule

225
Q

What is the sensory epithelium of the ear stones called ?

A

macula

226
Q

What do the ear stones do ?

A

sense tilt and linear head motions

respond to gravity and linear acceleration

227
Q

Where are the otolith organs ?

A

in a gelatinous mucous on top of hair cells

228
Q

What are the otolith organs made of ?

A

CaCo3 deposits

229
Q

What is the effect on the otolith organs of moving backwards ?

A

gravity pulls stones backwards and this pulls on the hair cells triggering a response

230
Q

Describe the vestibuLar pathway ?

A

information from the ampullae , utricle and saccule goes to the vestibualr nucleus
from here pathways go to the cortex (III, IC,VI) , spinal chord (vestibulospinal tract and cerebelllum (balance)
to enter the cortices the pathway is the medial longitudinal fasciculus

231
Q

performance of voluntary movements requires ?

A

job/task identification
planning for the activity
performance

232
Q

What are the 3 levels of motor control ?

A

motor areas of thee cerebral cortex
brainsntem
spinal chord

233
Q

What are the roles of the motor areas of the cerebral cortex ?

A

issue sequential and parallel commands
change intensities of different patterns
modify timing

234
Q

What are the roles of the brainstem ?

A

maintain axial tone for standing

235
Q

What are the roles of the spinal chord ?

A

programmed , local pattern of muscle movement

location of complex pattern of rhythmical and reciprocal motion

236
Q

What are the cortices of the brain related to motor control ?

A

posterior parietal cortex

primary motor cortex

237
Q

What is the role of the posterior parietal cortex /

A

association and representation

initiation , planning and thought of activities

238
Q

What is the role of the primary motor cortex ?

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar fibres arise from here

239
Q

What are the 2 loops from the posterior parietal cortrex ?

A

1 to basal ganglia

1 to pontine nuclei and the cerebellum

240
Q

Describe the basal ganglia loop for planning , carrying out and modulating activities ?

A

from the posterior parietal cortex to the basla ganglia

back through the thalamus to the pre motor cortex to the supplementary motor cortex and to the primary motor cortex

241
Q

What do the basal ganglia store ?

A

patterned movements are stored , responsible for initiation and planning of movement

242
Q

Describe the pontine nuclei loop for planning , carrying out and modulating movement ?

A

fibres from the posterior parietal cortex to the pontine nuclei to the cerebellar hemispheres through the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus
from the thalamus to the pre motor cprtex , supplemnetary motor cortex and the primary motor cortexx

243
Q

What does the cerebellum do in modifying movements ?

A

it looks at intended movement and the current position of the muscles and decides which muscles to move

244
Q

What does the cerebellum receive input from ?

A

the inferior olive- proprioception information from muscles

245
Q

What arises from the primary motor cortex ?

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar fibres that travel in the internal capsule

246
Q

What does the paramedian midbrain reticular formation do ?

A

regulates walking

247
Q

What do the pontine reticulospinal pathways do ?

A

control extensor lower motoneurones

248
Q

What does the posterior parietal cortex produce ?

A

produces internal models of movement prior to the involvement of the premotor and motor cortices

249
Q

What do the prefrontal areas do ?

A

decisions here are made about what action to take
integrates info
concerned with personality , reasoning and conscience

250
Q

`What does the premotor area do ?

A

controls axial and proximal limb muscles in the initial phases of orientating the body and arm to a target

251
Q

wha does the supplemnetary motro area do ?

A

execute stages of complex movements based on past experiences

252
Q

What side of the body does the cerebellum control

A

ipsilateral side

253
Q

What does the cerebellum consist of ?

A

vermis - central
folia - folds
flocularnodular lobe
deep cerebellar nuclie

254
Q

What are the 4 deep cerebellar nuc,ei from lateral to medial ?

A 
dentate nucleus 
emboliform nucleus 
globose nucleus 
fastigial nucleus
interposed nucleus - some individuals have this - emboliform and globose
255
Q

What are the 3 functional parts of the cerebellum ?

A

vestibulocerebellum
spinocerebellum
neocerebellum

256
Q

What is the vestibulocerebellum ?

A

flocculo-nodular lobe and part of the vermis

257
Q

What is the function of the vestibulocerebellum ?

A

posture and balance
input from the vestibular nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tract
output to the vestibular nucleus

258
Q

What is the spinocerebellum ?

A

vermis and the fastigial nucleus and the intermidiate part or cerebellar hemisphere , globose and emoboliform nuclei

259
Q

What is the function of the spinocerebellum ?

A

updating ongoing movements
input from the primary motor cortex via pontine nuclei, DSCT, ASCT and olivary nucleus
output to red nucleus

260
Q

What is the neocerebellum ?

A

lateral part of the hemisphere and the dnetate nucleus

261
Q

What is the role of the neocerebellum ?

A

initiation and planning of movements , motor learning
inout from the posterior parietal cortex , inferioe olivary nuclue s
output to the premotor cortedx , supplemnetary moor area via the thalamus

262
Q

What is the route for planning and prediction in the cerebellum ?

A

from the cerebral cortex to the dentate nucleus via corticopontine fibres back to the thalamus to the cerebral cortex

263
Q

What is the route for modification of ongoing movement ?

A

from the inferior olivary nucleus to the interposed nucleus to the red nucleus and the rubrospinal tract

264
Q

What is the input and output of the olivary nucleus ?

A

output as climbing fibres to opposite cerebellum

input from cortex and spinal chord

265
Q

What is the role of the olivary nucleus ?

A

plays a role in movement inititation and motor learning

266
Q

How is a lesion in the vestibulocerebellum presented ?

A

staggering gat

267
Q

How is a lesion in the spinocerebellum presented ?

A

ataxia

268
Q

How is a lesion in the corticocerebellum presented ?

A

slow movement onset

269
Q

What are the basal ganglia ?

A 
caudate nucleus 
putamen 
globus pallidus 
subthalamic nucleus 
substantia nigra
270
Q

What is the circuit of the basal ganglia ?

A

output from cortical areas involved in planning and execution of movement to the basal ganglia
output from the basal ganglia to motorrelay areas of the thalamus (ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei of the thalamus)

271
Q

How do the basal ganglia act ?

A

act ispilaterally

272
Q

What do basal ganglia tend to do ?

A

inhibit movements therefore lesions produce unwanted movements

273
Q

What are the 2 circuits through the basal ganaglia ?

A

putamen ciruit- putamen - globus pallidus to the thalamus and the cortex

274
Q

What is the role of the putamen circuit ?

A

subconscious execution of learned patterns of movement

275
Q

What is the caudate circuit ?

A

cognitive planning of movement - feedback to cortex

276
Q

What does the substamtia nigra do ?

A

releases dopamine into the putamen circuit which acts on D1 and D2 receptors

277
Q

Describe the direct pathway ?

A

cells with D1 receptors are excited by dopamine released from the substantia nigra
release of dopamine increases inhibition of the globus pallidus
releases tonic inhibiion of the thalamus causing cortical excitation
increases movement and cortical activity

278
Q

Which pathway is normally inhibited ?

A

indirect pathway

279
Q

Describe the indirect pathway ?

A

cells with D2 receptors are inhibited by dopamine
increases inhibition of the globus pallidus
decreases inhibition of the sub thalamic nucleus
increases excitation of globus pallidus
increases inhibition of thalamus
reduces thalamic excitation of cortex
reduces cortical motor activity

280
Q

What are hypokinetic disorders ?

A

insufficient direct pathway output

excess indirect pathway output

281
Q

What are hyperkinetic disorders ?

A

excess directly pathway output

insuufficient indirect pathway output

282
Q

How is chewing iniitated ?

A

by voluntary movement

followed by a period of reflex activity

283
Q

What do CPGS do in mastication ?

A

generate masticatory rhythms - alternative action of jaw openers and closers

284
Q

Where are the CPGs for mastication ?

A

in the pontine reticular nucleus

285
Q

Describe the process of mastication ?

A

food is taken in and rhythmic mastication is imitiated
receptors in the oral cavity monitor hardness
assess whether the food is fir for swallowing
adjust the activity if muscles by feedback to motor neurones , CPG and cerebllum
when bolus is appropriate swallowing is initiated

286
Q

Describe the control of mastication ?

A

CPG in the pontine RF
activate s the pre motro neurones and the trigmeinal motro nucleus
sneds rhythmical signals to the maticatory muscles
sensroy signals feedback about the bolus to the RF and the trigeminal motro neucleus

287
Q

Which receptors control masticatory force ?

A

periodontal ligament receptors

288
Q

What do periodontal ligament receptors do ?

A

inhibit neurones in the trigmeinal motro nucleus via inihbitory interneurones

289
Q

What is the limbic system ?

A

neuronal cicitry that controls emotional behabviour and motivational drivees

290
Q

What does the anteiror conguakte gyrus do ?

A

emotional aspect of pain

291
Q

Where is the hippocampus and what does it do ?

A

medial aspect of the temporal lobe and is involved in memory formation

292
Q

What is the hypothalamus and what does it do ?

A

major part of the limbic system and controls internal body conditions - vegetative behavior and endocrine fucntions

293
Q

What are the outputs of the thalamus ?

A

to the braisntem RF
anterior thalamus and the limbic portion of teh cerebral cortex
hypothalamic infindibulum - pituitary glands

294
Q

What are the functions of the thalamus ?

A

sexual behaviour
endocrine function
homeostasis

295
Q

What does the hypothalamus do in terms of endocrine function ?

A

neuroendocrine cells reelase hormones that act in the pituitary gland and this releases more hormones

296
Q

Which part of teh hypothalamus is to do with sexdual behaviour in fmelaes ?

A

ventromedial hypothalamus

297
Q

Which part of the hypothalamus is to do with sexual behaviour in males ?

A

preoptic region

298
Q

How does the hypothtlmaus carry out temperature reguaktion ?

A

temeprature sensitive neurones in the preoptic area measure the core body temeprature of teh blood
reduced brain/blood barrier in the hypothalamus
repsonse- horemone production
activation of teh ANS
behavioural response

299
Q

Which area of the hypothalmaus creates a thirst sensation ?

A

laterla hypothalamic area

300
Q

Which nucleus of the hypothalamus controsl the excretion fo water into urine ?

A

supraoptic nucleus

301
Q

Which ara regualtes hunger in the hypothalamus ?

A

lateral hypothalamic area

302
Q

Which area of the hypothalamus creates a desire for food ?

A

satiety centre in the ventromedial nucleus

303
Q

What area of the hypothalamus carries out GI activity ?

A

mammillary bodies

304
Q

What is the orexigenic response ?

A

response to low glucose and the need to eat more food

305
Q

What is the anorexigenic response ?

A

high nutrients - stop eating food like GI stretch , circadian rhythms

306
Q

What does GI stretch do ?

A

inihibits te orexigenic response and excites the anorexigenic response

307
Q

What are circadain rhythms ?

A

endodogenous entrainsble 24 hour rhythmicity

308
Q

What nucleus are circadian rhythms controlled by ?

A

suprachiasmatic nuclei

309
Q

Where is the amygdala located ?

A

below the hypothakmaus and i the inferior portion of the laterla ventricvle

310
Q

What ae the fucntions of teh amygdala ?

A

emotional letrning and memeorty
fear and fear cinditioning
reward

311
Q

What does activation of the amygdala lead to ?

A

indices fea anxiety and violence

312
Q

What does deactivation of the amygdala lead to ?

A

incapable pof fear

313
Q

How is the amygdala involved in emotional learning and memory ?

A

amygdala assesses the emotional significance of inputs

much more likely to remember something with emotional significance

314
Q

How is thye amygdala involved in fear and fear conditioning ?

A

amygdala and the medial temporal lobe are invollved in the mediating , acquisition and storage of fear and memory

315
Q

What is the reward system for ?

A

liking and positive reinforcement

316
Q

What are the important structures in the reward system ?

A 
ventral tegmental area - origin 
amygdala 
nucleus accumbens 
hippocampus 
prefrontal cortex
317
Q

What is the reticular formation ?

A

a complex group of neurones and nuclei in the brainstem

318
Q

What are the afferent inouts to the RF ?

A

spinal chord
cranial nerves
cerebellum
forebrain

319
Q

What are the efferent ouputs of the RF ?

A

spinal chord and cortex

320
Q

What are the fucntiomns of the RF ?

A 
sleep and consciousness 
somatic motor cintrol - CPGs
cardiovascular control 
pain modulation 
habituation
321
Q

What are the 4 nuclei of the reticualr acting syste, ?

A

locus coereleus
raphe nucleus
ventral tegmental area
basal forebrain - nucleus of meynert

322
Q

Where are the dopaminergic pathways of the RF ?

A

Ventral Tegmental Area - mesocorticolimbic pathway

and substantia nigra - dopamine to basal ganglia

323
Q

Where are the serotonergic pathways ?

A

raphe nuclei and the nucleus raphe magnus
ascending pathways to the cortex
descending pathways to the spinal chiord - pain modulation

324
Q

Where are the noradrenergic pathways ?

A

locus coereleus

325
Q

Where are the cholinergic pathways ?

A

basal forebrain and nucleus of meynert

to the hippocampus

326
Q

When does rapid eye movement sleep occur ?

A

JUST BEFORE WE WAKE UP

327
Q

Wehre is rapid eye movement sleep regulated ?

A

pontine RF

328
Q

What is needed to prevent the acting out of ndreams ?

A

connections between the pontine RF and the spinal chord

329
Q

What nuclei are involved in sleep ?

A

Arpahe nuclei

dorsolaterla pontine RF

330
Q

What are the motor effects if the reticular formation ?

A

meduallry reticulospinal tract - laterla

pontine reticulospinal tract- medial

331
Q

What is the function of the pontine RT ?

A

enhances antigravity muscles and reflexes of the soinal chord
helps maintain a standing posture by resisting the effects of gravity

332
Q

What is the function of the medullary RT ?

A

liberates the antigravity muscles from reflex control

333
Q

What is the collective fucntion of the reticulospinal fibres ?

A

modualte muscle tone
regualte psoture
participate in automatic reflexes involving extensor musculature

334
Q

What are CPG s?

A

trigger the correct enets at the right time

2 processes occur and they interact sequentially

335
Q

What are the repsiratory CPGs ?.

A

pontine respiratory group

medullary respiratory group - DRG and VRG and the pre botzinger complex

336
Q

What is the paccemaker theory of CPGs ?

A

self activating fibres that trigger events

337
Q

What is the network theory of CPGs ?

A

VRG made of inspiratory and expiratory neurones

reciprocal imnhibition

338
Q

Main output from the basal ganglia is from where ?

A

globus pallidus

339
Q

What are the receptor organs responsdibl;e for detecting vibrations in the basialr membrane ?

A

organ of corti and the ampullae

340
Q

What are sensory projections on the hair cells known as ?

A

sterocilia

341
Q

What are the receptor organs responsible ofr snesing baalnnce ?

A

ampullae

342
Q

Where are the ampullae located ?

A

in the semi circular canals of the cochlea

343
Q

Which nuclei in the brainstem does the ouput from the vestibular nucleus go to ?

A

nucleus of oculomotr , trochlear and abducens

344
Q

What are the outputs of the supplementary motor cortex ?

A

primary motor cortex
reticular formation
cortocspinal and corticobulbar

345
Q

Which area of the brain is responsible for making an internal model of move,ent when assessing movements ?

A

posterior parietal cortex

346
Q

Which nuclei are responsible for adaptation of movement in response to external stimuli ?

A

red nucleus

olivary nucleus

347
Q

In huntingtons disease which of the basal ganglia are effected /

A

globus pallidus

348
Q

Which of the nuceli are responsible for conbtrol of water excretion ?

A

supra optic nuclei

349
Q

Where is the satiety centre which controls hunger ?

A

ventromedial nuclei

350
Q

What are the 5 structures responsible for the reward system ?

A 
ventral tegmental area
nucleus accumbens
hippocampus 
amygdala 
pre frontal cortex
351
Q

What are thee nuclei of the reticular formation and what do thy release ?

A

nucleus of meynert- acetylcholine
nucleus raphe magnus/raphe nuckeus- serotonin
ventral tegmental area- dopmaine
locus coerleus- noradrenaline

352
Q

What happens during rapid eye movement sleep ?

A

paralysis of voluntary mucle and active brain

353
Q

What happens during non rapid eye movemnt sleppe ?

A

lowering of body temeratir
movement of muscles
lowering of heartr rate

354
Q

How can you identify a ruffini corpuscle ?

A

highly branched

355
Q

How can you identify a pacinian corpuscle ?

A

round

356
Q

How can you identify a pacinian corpuscle ?

A

round

357
Q

How can you identify merkel cells ?

A

individual cells

358
Q

How can you identify a meissner corpuscle ?

A

bunch of cells

359
Q

How can you identify hair follicle receptors ?

A

around the hair

360
Q

What are the structural components of the cerebellum ?

A

vermis
intermdiate zone
cerebellar hemispheres
floculonodular lobe

361
Q

What are the functional components of cerebellum ?

A

spinocerebellum
vestibulocerebellum
neocerebellum

362
Q

What is the vestibulocerebellum ?

A

floculonodular lobe

posture and balance

363
Q

What is the neocerebellum ?

A

posterior lobe

planning of movement

364
Q

What is the spinocerebellum ?

A

anterior lobe

monitoring of ongoing movements

365
Q

brain stem nuclei pathway- reticular nuclei

A

sensory, premotor, sup motor –> reticular nuclei -> reticulospinal -> coordianted movement muscle e.g. running

366
Q

brain stem nuclei pathway- vestibular nuclei

A

vestibular nerve, cerebellum -> vestibular nuclei -> vestibulospinal -> maintenance of upright posture

367
Q

brain stem nuclei pathway- cortex

A

cortex -> potine nuclei -> cerebellum -> Precision and efficiecny

368
Q

brain stem nuclei pathway- inferior olive

A

cortex, spinal cortex -> inferior olive -> cerebellum, spinal cord -> coordination learned movement

369
Q

what are the the 3 routes of pathways in the folia via

A

deep cerebellar nucleus
pontine nucleus
olivary nucleus

370
Q

what are the descending fibres that enter the pontine nuclei

A

corticopontine/bulbar/spinal

371
Q

where do axons from pontine nucleus go

A

send mossy fibres to cerebellum and into opposite cerebellar cortex

372
Q

where does olivary nucleus send climbing fibres from inputs of proprioception

A

to opposite cerebellar cortex

373
Q

what and where are purkinje cells

A

in folia- they are highly branches dendritic cells

374
Q

what fibres run through dendritic trees of purkinje cell

A

parallel fibres- (each one is info from a point in the cortex

375
Q

what permits the purkinje cells to allow or not allow movement to happen

A

collisions of proprioceptive info in purkinhe cells wiht sampling from hte cortex

376
Q

where do purkinje cells send output axons

A

deep cerebellar cortex

377
Q

where does deep cerebellar nucleus send its axons

A

back across midline to thalamus(hemisphere) or red nucleus (vermis)

Stage 1 (21 decks)

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