Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Neuroanatomy/Physiology 2 > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy/Physiology 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Friedreich ataxia genetics

A

Aut. rec. GAA repeats on chromsome 9 gene: frataxin (iron binding protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Friedreich ataxia path

A

Defective frataxin leads to impairment in mitochondrial functioning. Degeneratino of multiple spinal cord tracts leading to muscle weakness and loss of DTRs, vibratory sense, and proprioception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Friedreich ataxia mnemonic

A

Friedreich is Fratastic (frataxin): very fratty, stumbling, staggering, falling, but has a big heart (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Friedreich ataxia presentation

A

Childhood with kyphoscoliosis, with staggering gait, frequent falling, nystagmus, dysarthria, pes vacus, hammer toes, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy which is the cause of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Brown-Sequard presentation

A

Hemisection of cord.
Motor: Ipsilateral UMN signs below lesion, with flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion.
Sensory: Proprioception, vibration, pressure, and touch are impaired below the level of the lesion. Pain and tempeature loss below the level of the lesion 1-2 down because the spinothalamic tract rises up before crossing over. At the level of the lesion, all sensation is lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Brown-sequard above T1 can have

A

May have Horner syndrome due to damage of oculosympathetic pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What can cause a Horner’s

A

Pancoast tumor, cord hemisection, late-stage syringomyelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What controls ptosis in Horner’s

A

Superior tarsal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pathway for sympathetic control by Horner’s

A

Oculosympathetic 3 neuron pathway: hypothalamus to intermediolateral column of spinal cord (lateral horn) at T1, then to superior cervical ganglion at C2 next to carotid bifurcation, with the final 3rd neurons controlling the end functions, running along the appropriate carotid artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C2 dermatome

A

posterior half of a skull “cap”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

C3 dermatome

A

high turtleneck shirt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

C4 dermatome

A

low-collar shirt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T4 dermatome

A

at the nipple [teat pore]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T7 dermatome

A

at the xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T10 dermatome

A

at the umbilicus (important for early appendicitis pain referral) [belly butTEN]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

L1 dermatome

A

at the inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

L4 dermatome

A

Includes kneecaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

S2,3,4 dermatome

A

erection and sensation of penile and anal zones [S2,3,4 keeps the penis off the floor]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diaphragm and gallbladder shoulder pain

A

Referred to right shoulder via phrenic C3,4,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Biceps reflex roots

A

C5,6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Triceps reflex roots

A

C7,8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patellar reflex roots

A

L3,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Achilles reflex roots

A

S1,S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anal wink reflex roots

A

S3,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cremaster reflex roots

A

L1,L2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Galant reflex

A

Stroking one side of newbown spine causes lateral flexion of lower body toward the stimulated side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Know where the CNs and other structures are on a ventral view of the brain

A

……

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

fact: The cranial nerves are numbered based on how cephalad they are. I is the front most and XII is back most.

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What CNs lie medially at brain stem

A

III, VI, XII (motor=medial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Superior colliculi function

A

conjugate vertical gaze center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inferior colliculi function

A

auditory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Colliculi mnemonic

A

Eyes above your ears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Corneal reflex

A 
V1 ophthalmic (nasociliary branch) afferent
VII (temporal branch; orbicularis oculi) efferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lacrimation reflex

A

V1 (loss of reflex does not preclude emotional tears) afferent
VII efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Jaw Jerk reflex

A

V3 (muscle spindle from masseter) afferent

V3 (masseter) efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pupillary reflex

A

II afferent

III efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gag reflex

A

In IX, out X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sphincter pupillae nucleus

A

Edinger-Westphal (muscarinic receptors)

40
Q

Salivatino control

A

Facial is submandibular and sublingual.

Glossopharyngeal is parotid

41
Q

Stapedius control

A

Facial

42
Q

Stylopharyngeus control

A

Glossopharyngeal, elevates pharynx

43
Q

Aortic arch chemo- and barorreceptors

A

Vagus

44
Q

Carotid body and sinus chemo- and baroreceptors

A

Glossopharyngeal

45
Q

Alar plate forms what CNs

A

sensory

46
Q

Basal plate forms what CNs

A

Motor

47
Q

Pons CN nuclei

A

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

48
Q

Midbrain CN nuclei

A

CN III, IV

49
Q

Medulla CN nuclei

A

CN IX, X, XII

50
Q

Spinal cord CN nuclei

A

CN XI

51
Q

Nucleus Solitarius

A

Visceral Sensory information (taste, baroreceptors, gut distention). CN VII, IX, X

52
Q

Nucleus aMbiguus

A

Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus (e.g. swallowing, palate elevation). IX, X, XI (cranial portion)

53
Q

Dorsal motor nucleus

A

Sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart, lungs, and upper GI. X.

54
Q

fact: Cavernous sinus has III, IV, and VI for EOM control and V1,V2 run through it. It surrounds the pituitary.

A

.

55
Q

CN V motor lesion

A

Jaw deviates towards side of lesion due to unopposed pterygoid muscle on good side.

56
Q

fact: low frequency at apex of cochlea near helicotrema (wide and flexible), high freq. at base of cochlea (thin and rigid)

A

.

57
Q

Know how Rinne and Weber test match up to different hearing loss.

A

Conductive: Rinne B>A, Weber louder at bad side
Sensorineural: Rinne A>B, Weber louder on good side

58
Q

fact: UMN facial nerve lesions affect contralateral side except forehead. LMN facial nerve lesions are ipsilateral and affect entire face

A

.

59
Q

What are the jaws of mastication

A

Close jaw: Medial pterygoid, Masseter, teMporalis (M’s munch)
Open jaw: Lateral Pterygoid (Lateral lowers)
All by V3

60
Q

hyperopia

A

eye too short

61
Q

myopia

A

eye too long

62
Q

uveitis

A

anterior uvea and iris, hypopyon (sterile pus), conjunctival redness: sarcoid, RA, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, TB, HLA-B27-associated conditions

63
Q

retinitis

A

foten viral (CMV, HSV, HZV), immunosuppresion associated, retinal edema and necrosis

64
Q

what is the cherry red spot

A

isn’t it that the choroidal vessels are closer to the surface so it appears more red at the fovea????

65
Q

treating proliferative diabetic retinopathy

A

Peripheral retinal photocoagulation, anti-VEGF injections

66
Q

Treating non-proliferative DM retinopathy

A

blood sugar control, macular laser

67
Q

macular laser???

A

?????

68
Q

pathway of aqueous humor

A

Made by ciliary epithelium then flows from posterior chamber into anterior chamber through pupil then through the trabecular meshwork into the Canal of Schlemm.

69
Q

Dilator pupillae NT receptor

A

alpha1

70
Q

Sphinget pupillae NT receptor

A

M3

71
Q

Ciliary epithelium NT receptor

A

beta

72
Q

Ciliary muscle NT receptor

A

M3

73
Q

glaucoma visual field loss

A

peripheral visual field loss

74
Q

open angle glaucoma risk factors

A

age, blacks, FH, more common in the US

75
Q

open angle causes

A

Primary is unclear. Secondary to anything that blocks the trabecular meshwork: WBCs, RBCs, retinal elements.

76
Q

closed/narrow angle primary and secondary causes

A

primary: lens seals up entrance to anterior chamber, fluid builds up behind and then closes off the angle
secondary: hypoxia from retinal disease induces vasoproliferation in iris that contracts angle

77
Q

Chronic closure glaucoma

A

Asx with damage to ptic nerve and peripheral vision

78
Q

Acute angle closure

A

ophthalmic emergency. increased IOP pushes iris forward leading to angle closing abruptly. Painful, sudden vision loss, halos around lights, rock-hard eye, frontal HA. Don’t give epinephrine because of mydriatic effect.

79
Q

CN III damage presentation

A

down and out; ptosis, pupillary dilation, loss of accommodation

80
Q

What does superior oblique do?

A

Inward rotates, abducts, and while adducted (depresses eye)

81
Q

CN IV damage presentation

A

Eye moves upward, particularly with contralateral gaze (b/c normally depresses while eye is adducted).
Eye is extorted, elevated, and adducted a bit more so you tilt your head toward the good side, this aligns up the rotation, elevation, and adduction.

82
Q

Testing the muscles

A

To test IO and SO, have them adduct the eyes (SO depresses when adducted, IR depressed while abducted)

83
Q

Think about how the SO moves the eye

A

When the eye is abducted, the angle of insertion can only intort the eye. When the eye is adducted, it can actually pull the eye downards.

84
Q

Afferent pupillary defect called

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

85
Q

Miosis constriction pathway

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus of CN III activates ciliary ganglion to activate ciliary nerves and pupillary sphincter muscles.

86
Q

Diabetes infarct of what CN

A

CN III, leads to ptosis, down and out gaze

87
Q

CN III parasympathetic output damage

A

Compression, Pcomm aneurysm, uncal herniation leads to absent pupillary light reflex, blown pupil with down and out gaze

88
Q

Retinal detachment presentation

A

High myopic patients with curtain drawn down. surgical emergency

89
Q

Age related macular degeneration sxs

A

Metamorphopsia and eventual loss of central vision (scotomas)

90
Q

dry macular degeneration

A

nonexudative, >80%: drusen in and beneath Bruch membrane and retinal pigment epithelium with gradual vision loss. Tx with multivitamins and antioxidants

91
Q

wet macular degeneration

A

exudative, 10-15%: bleeding secondary to choroidal neovascularization leading to rapid vision loss. Treat with anti-VEGF

92
Q

Meyer’s loop

A

Inferior retina, loops around inferior horn of lateral ventricle

93
Q

Dorsal optic radiation

A

Superior retina; takes shortest path via internal capsule

94
Q

What does image look like when it hits the primary visual cortex

A

upside down and left-right reversed

95
Q

Explain internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Defect in eye edduction. Lateral gaze initiated by CN VI affecting lateral rectus, it fires through the contralateral MLF to activate CN III to fire the medial rectus. So if you have a Right INO, your Right MLF isn’t working so you can’t adduct your R eye. The lateral rectus will have a nystagmus as a result. Convergence is preserved. [MLF in MS]

Step 1 (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions