Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Hem/Onc, Renal, Repro, and Pulm Anatomy > Flashcards

Hem/Onc, Renal, Repro, and Pulm Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

anisocytosis

A

varying sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

poikilocytosis

A

varying shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

life span of RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

glucose use in RBCs

A

90% glycolysis, 10% HMP shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What channel do RBCs have

A

chloride-bicarb antiporter to allow export of HCO3 and transport of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

platelet lifespan

A

8-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

vWF receptor

A

GpIb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fibrinogen receptor

A

GpIIb/IIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What granules do platelets contain

A

Dense granules and alpha granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do dense granules have

A

ADP and calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do alpha granules have

A

vWF and fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the WBC differential from highest to lower

A 
Neutrophils Like Making Everythign Better
PMNs 54-62%
Lymphocytes (25-33%)
Monocytes (3-7%)
Eosinophils 1-3%
Basophils 0-0.75%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What granules due PMNs have

A

small and numerous granules and larger, less numerous azurophilic granules (lysosomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PMN small granule contents

A

ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PMN lysosome contents

A

Proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and beta-glucuronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many lobes is hypersegmented PMNs

A

5 or more lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Shape of monocyte nucleus

A

Kidney-Shaped. with extensive frosted glass cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What activates macrophages

A

gamma-interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is cell surface marker for macrophages

A

CD14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Actions of eosinophils

A

Helminths (major basic protein).
Highly phagocytic for antigen-antibody complexes.
Produces histaminase and arylsulfatase (helps limit reaction following mast cell degranulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of eosinophlia

A 
NAACP
Neoplasia
Asthma
Allergic Processes
Connective tissue diseases
Parasites (invasive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nucleus of eosinophil

A

Bilobate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Basophil granules

A

Basophilic granules contaiing heparin, histamine, and leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When can you see basophilia

A

Particularly CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Mast cell reaction

A

Binds Fc portion of IgE to membrane. IgE cross-links upon antigen binding, causing degranulation, which release histamine; heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What prevents mast cell degranulation

A

Cromolyn sodium (asthma PPx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What receptors on B cells

A

CD19 and CD20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What receptors on T cells

A

CD3, CD4/8, CD28 (costimulatory signal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does CD (e.g. CD20) stand for

A

Cluster of Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the most common lymphocytes

A

T cells (80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the subdivisions of the renal circulation

A

Renal artery to Segmental artery to Interlobar to Arcuate to Interlobular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Interlobar art. run along what

A

Along the sides of the medullary pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Arcuate art. runs along what

A

Runs along the top of the medullary pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where are the Juxtaglomerular Apparatus cells located

A

Between the Efferent Arteriole and the Distal Renal Tuble Macula densa cells

35
Q

Ureters pathway mnemonic

A

Water (ureters) under the bridge (uterine arteries, ductus deferens)

36
Q

Lymph drainage ovaries/testes

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

37
Q

Distal vagina/vulva/scrotum lymph drainage

A

Superficial inguinal nodes

38
Q

Proximal vagina/uterus lymph drainage

A

Obturator, external iliac, and hypogastric nodes

39
Q

Where is mesometrium?

A

Below the ovaries and ovarian ligament (part of broad ligament)

40
Q

Where is mesosalpinx?

A

Between ovary and fallopian tube (part of broad ligament)

41
Q

What is the mesovarium?

A

Part of broad ligament, covers the ovary attached to the infundibulopelvic ligament

42
Q

Where are uterine vessels found

A

In the cardinal ligament

43
Q

Where are the ovarian vessels found

A

Infundibulopelivc ligament (suspensory ligament of the ovaries)

44
Q

The gubernaculum forms what

A

Round ligament and ovarian ligament

45
Q

What does the round ligament do

A

Connects uterine fundus to labia majora

46
Q

Where does round ligament travel

A

Through round inguinal canal; above the artery of sampson.

47
Q

Endocervix histo

A

Simple columnar epithelium

48
Q

Transformation zone histo

A

Squamocolumnar junction (most common area for cervical cancer)

49
Q

Uterus histo

A

Simple columnar epithelium with long tubular glands

50
Q

Fallopian tube histo

A

Simple columnar epithelium, many ciliated cells, few secretory (peg) cells

51
Q

Ovary, outer surface histo

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium (germinal epithelium covering surface of ovary)

52
Q

Name the pathway of sperm during ejaculation

A 
SEVEN UP:
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vas deferens
Ejaculatory ducts
Nothing
urethra
Penis
53
Q

What causes erection in men

A

Parasympathetics
NO increases cGMP and smooth muscle relaxation, promotes erections
Norepinephrine increases ICF Ca2+, smooth muscle contraction, antierection

54
Q

What nerve for erection, emission, and ejaculation

A

Erection: Pelvic nerve (parasympathetics)
Emission: Hypogastric nerve (sympathetics)
Ejaculation: Pudendal nerve (visceral and somatic nerves)

55
Q

Sildenafil and vardenafil MOA

A

inhibit cGMP breakdown

56
Q

Pathway of sperm production

A 
Spermatogonium (gonna be a sperm)
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary spermatocyte
Spermatids
Spermatozoan in th elumen of seminiferous tubule
57
Q

What do sertoli cells secrete

A

Inhibin: inhibits FSH
Androgen-binding protein
MIF
They have tight junctions producing blood-testis barrier preventing autoimmune attack of sperm

58
Q

Sertoli cells and temperature

A

Decrease sperm production and decrease inhibin with inc. temperature (varicocele, cryptorchidism)

59
Q

Leydig cells and temperature

A

Testosterone production unaffected by temperature

60
Q

Where to find aromatase?

A

Leydig cells

61
Q

Sertoli cell enzyme

A

Aromatase: testosterone and androstenedione to estrogen

62
Q

Cartilage and goblet cells in conducting zone

A

Extend to end of bronchi

63
Q

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar cells

A

Extend to beginning of terminal bronchioles, then transition to cuboidal cells

64
Q

Airway smooth muscles

A

Extend to end of terminal bronchioles (sparse beyond this point)

65
Q

What cells in the respiratory bronchioles

A

Cuboidal cells

66
Q

Respiratory zone histo

A

no cilia, alveolar macrophages celar debris and participate in immune response

67
Q

Type 1 cells

A

97% of alveolar surface, thin squamous

68
Q

Type 2 cells

A

Secrete surfactant; cuboidal and clustered. Precursors to type I and II cells. proliferate during lung damage

69
Q

Club (Clara) cells

A

Nonciliated; low-columnar/cuboidal with secretory granules. Secrete compnoent of surfactant; degrade toxins; act as reserve cells

70
Q

Surfactant composition

A

mix of lecithins, most important is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

71
Q

When is surfactant first made

A

Around week 26, but not mature until week 35

72
Q

lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio

A

> 2.0 in amniotic fluid indicates fetal lung maturity

73
Q

Collapsing pressure on alveoli equation

A

P= 2(surface tension)/radius

As radius shrinks, collapsing pressure increases.

74
Q

Aspirate a peanut while upright

A

lower portion of R inferior lobe

75
Q

Aspirate a peanut while supine

A

superior portion of R inferior lobe

76
Q

Relation of pulm. artery to the bronchus

A

RALS: right-anterior, left-superior

77
Q

Diaphragm at T8

A

IVC

78
Q

Diaphragm at T10

A

Esophagus, vagus (CN 10; 2 trunks)

79
Q

Diaphragm at T12

A

Aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein. (T-1-2 red, white and blue)

80
Q

Phrenic nerve roots

A

C3,4,5

81
Q

Shoulder innervation

A

C5

82
Q

Trapezius ridge innervation

A

C3,4

83
Q

mnemonic for diaphragm structures

A

I ate ten eggs at twelve.

IVC 8
10 Esophagus
Aorta 12

Step 1 (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions