Neuroanatomy Flashcards
1
Q
cells in the olfactory bulb with no axons, hence forming dendodendritic synapses
A
Granule cells
2
Q
The olfactory tract splits into lateral, medial and intermediate olfactory striae in this area?
A
Anterior perforated substance
3
Q
Olfactory striae which projects to the piriform and entorhinal cortex and to the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus for the conscious analysis of odor
A
Lateral olfactory striae
4
Q
Olfactory striae which projects to the septal area mediating the autonomic and emotional response of odors
A
Medial olfactory striae
5
Q
Olfactory striae that projects to the anterior perforated substance
A
Intermediate olfactory striae
6
Q
It is a white matter tract connecting all three olfactory areas?
A
Diagonal band of Broca
7
Q
Why does the olfactory information causes salivation in response to odors?
A
The stria terminalis travel to the hypothalamus then to the superior and inferior salivary nuclei
8
Q
Unilateral anosmia suggests an olfactory lesion in what area?
A
proximal to the piriform cortex
9
Q
Condition associated with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia due to agenesis of olfactory bulbs
A
Kallmann syndrome
10
Q
Vitamin Deficiency which may cause perversion of smell or parosmia
A
Zinc, Vitamin A
11
Q
The cones are tightly packed in the macula which is located at?
A
posterior pole 4mm lateral to the optic disc
12
Q
How long is the optic nerve?
A
50mm
13
Q
Longest portion of the optic nerve
A
intraorbital (25mm)
14
Q
supplies the optic nerve
A
proximal part supplied by the small branches of ophthalmic artery, distal part supplied by the small branches of the ICA and ACA
15
Q
condition causing slow macular degeneration especially of the central cones
A
Stargardt disease
16
Q
Retinitis pigmentosa with congenital hearing loss
A
Usher syndrome
17
Q
Which nerve passes through the narrow slit in the cribriform plate alongside the crista galli?
A
Anterior ethmoidal nerve
18
Q
The body of the sphenoid contains the sphenoid air sinuses which are lined by mucus membrane and communicate with the nasal cavity. What is the purpose of the sphenoid air sinuses?
A
Voice resonators
19
Q
The superior orbital fissure transmits the following nerves:
A
Lacrimal, frontal, trochlear, oculomotor, nasociliary, abducent
20
Q
This transmits the middle meningeal artery from the infra temporal fossa into the cranial cavity?
A
Foramen spinosum
21
Q
T/F: the decussation of the lemnisci passes through a short distance above the level of the decussation of the pyramids
A
True
22
Q
T/F: The nucleus of the spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve lies lateral to the internal arcuate fibers
A
True
23
Q
T/F: The anterior spinothalamic tract occupy an area lateral to the decussation of the lemnisci
A
True
24
Q
T/F: The lateral and anterior spinothalamic tract and the spinotectal tracts are very close to one another and collectively are known as spinal lemniscus
A
True
25
nerves that can be seen running forward and laterally through the reticular formation
glossopharyngeal, vagus, cranial part of the accessory nerve, hypoglossal nerve
26
T/F: There is a shallow groove in the midline of the pons called the basilar groove which lodges the basilar artery.
True
27
T/F: The posterior surface is divided into symmetrical halves by a median sulcus.
True
28
T/F: Lateral to the median sulcus is an elongated elevation, the medial eminence bounded laterally by sulcus limitans.
True
29
T/F: The floor of the superior part of the sulcus laminates is bluish-bray in color.
True
30
T/F: The medial lemniscus rotates as it passes from the medulla into the pons.
True
31
T/F: The basilar part of the pons contains small masses of nerve cells in which the corticopontine fibers of the crus cerebri of the midbrain terminates.
True
32
T/F: The pontine nuclei give rise to the transverse fibers which forms the main pathway linking the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum.
True
33
This structure connects the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate body.
inferior brachium
34
T/F: The red nucleus is a rounded mass of gray matter situated between the cerebral aqueduct and the substantia nigra.
True
35
This neoplasm occurring usually during childhood is the most common tumor of the brainstem.
Astrocytoma of the pons
36
T/F: The fibers of the optic nerve are the axons of the cells in the ganglionic layer of the retina
True
37
T/F: The main oculomotor nucleus lies at the level of the superior colliculus.
True
38
T/F: The trochlear nucleus receives corticonuclear fibers from both cerebral hemispheres.
True
39
The cells of the motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve supplies which muscles?
Muscles of mastication, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric muscle
40
T/F: V1 and V2 only contains sensory fibers.
True
41
T/F: The facial nerve has three nuclei: the main motor nucleus, the parasympathetic nucleus and the sensory nucleus.
True
42
T/F: The sensory nucleus of the facial nerve receives taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the floor of the mouth and the palate.
True
43
T/F: Each lateral lemniscus consists of third order neurons from both sides.
True
44
T/F: The afferent impulses from the carotid sinus travel with the glossopharyngeal nerve and terminate in the nucleus of the tracts solitarius.
True
45
T/F: Both the left and right vagus nerve contribute to the pulmonary and esophageal plexus.
True
46
T/F: The hypoglossal nucleus receives corticonuclear fibers from both cerebral hemispheres but the cells responsible for supplying the genioglossus muscle has only contralateral innervation.
True
47
This is the smallest cranial nerve only consisting of 2400 axons and the only cranial nerve in which all axons decussate.
Trochlear nerve
48
Condition of intermittent vertical diplopia and oscillopsia caused by spontaneous firing of trochlear motor units.
Superior oblique myokymia
49
Largest branch of the mandibular nerve
Inferior alveolar nerve
50
An onion-skin pattern of sensory loss over the lateral forehead, cheek and jaw can be localized in what region?
Lower medullary or upper cervical spinal cord
51
Characterised by unilateral oculosympathetic paresis and ipsilateral trigeminal involvement
Raeder paratrigeminal syndrome
52
Bilateral enhancing cerebellopontine angle tumors are pathognomonic
Neurofibromatosis-2
53
Fungal organisms found in fungal meningitis which are associated with rapid clinical deterioration
Aspergillus and Mucor
54
Type of nasopharyngeal carcinoma which is the most common and associated with EBV.
WHO-3
55
A genetic disorder caused by absence of underdevelopment of CN VI and VII characterised by horizontal gaze palsy and facial diplegia
Mobius syndrome
56
Congenital unilateral horizontal abduction deficit due to absence of the abducens nerve on one side.
Duane retraction syndrome
57
What is the usual location of chordoma?
sacrum (50%)
58
It is the most common pathologic entity of the petrous apex
Cholesterol granuloma
59
This is a horizontal bony strut separating the superior and inferior halves of the fundus of the internal auditory canal
Crista falciformis
60
A surgical landmark separating CNVII from the superior vestibular nerve
Bill's bar
61
Branches arising from the mastoid segment of the facial nerve
Nerve to the stapedius muscle, chords tympani nerve and sensory auricular branch
62
It is the only vestibular nuclei which projects to the ipsilateral MLF
superior vestibular nucleus
63
this is characterized by the classic clinical triad of bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, ataxia and myelopathy.
superficial siderosis
64
intracranially, this is the most common site of schwanommas
superior vestibular nerve
65
a 49-year old female presents with dysphagia and sharp right parotid pain. Parasagittal CT image shows elongated styloid process arising from the mastoid bone. What is the possible diagnosis?
Eagle syndrome
66
the recurrent laryngeal nerve supply all the intrinsic laryngeal muscles except _______?
cricothyroid
67
This is the most common site of skull base dural AVFs?
transverse sinus (followed by cavernous sinus)
68
Origin of the first-order neuron of Horner's syndrome
Posterior Hypothalamus
69
T/F: There is no pharmacologic test to differentiate a first-order or second-order lesion in Horner's syndrome
True
70
The patient has a complete left oculomotor nerve palsy with intact pupillary function. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Diabetic Oculomotor Nerve palsy
71
characterized by impaired adduction of the affected side and nystagmus of the abducting contralateral eye
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
72
syndrome characterized by a lesion to both the ipsilateral PPRF and MLF
One-and-a-half syndrome
73
T/F: Retrochiasmal lesions do not cause a pure relative afferent pupillary defect
True
74
It is considered to be the most common optic nerve disorder in patients older than 50yo.
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
75
T/F: The hypoglossal nerve provides innervation to all intrinsic tongue muscles and three of the four extrinsic tongue muscles (genioglossus, styloglossus and hypoglossus)
True
| palatoglossus is innervated by the vagus nerve
76
T/F: Each SCM is innervated by the ipsilateral motor cortex whereas each trapezius is innervated by the contralateral motor cortex.
True
77
Responsible for the tactile sensation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Trigeminal nerve
| taste-facial nerve
78
Parasympathetic source to head and neck
Superior salivatory nucleus
79
This provides innervation to the parotid gland by the glossopharyngeal nerve
Inferior salivatory nucleus
80
Where is the nuclei for baroreceptor reflex located?
Caudal nucleus solitarius
| taste sensation-rostral nucleus solitarius
81
T/F: Crossed aphasia is very rare occurring in only 1% of cases.
True
82
Hallmark of conduction aphasia
The patient is unable to repeat what is said to him despite relatively adequate comprehension
83
Localisation of repetition
Perisylvian area
84
A patient with non-fluent Broca's aphasia with no difficulty in repetition has this condition
Transcortical motor aphasia
85
The patient is wordless but the inner speech and writing is undisturbed.
Aphemia (pure word mutism)
86
The inferior surface of the hypothalamus bulging downward from the floor of the 4th ventricle
Tuber cinereum
87
Main blood supply to the posterior pituitary
Inferior hypophyseal artery
88
T/F: More than half of the thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is found outside the hypothalamus.
True
89
A basic peptide that is synthesized in the liver exerting feedback control of GH by inhibiting the pituitary somatotropes and stimulating the release of somatostatin.
Somatomedin C
90
Part of the hypothalamus that is reportedly smaller in the homosexual male
Interstitial nucleus
91
The hypothalamus is involved in approximately how many percent of patients with sarcoidosis?
5%
92
This is a state of polyuria with dilute urine and polydipsia that results in the loss of action of ADH
Diabetes insipidus
93
Satiety center of the hypothalamus
Ventromedial nucleus
94
Appetite center of the hypothalamus
Ventrolateral nucleus
95
Weight of the brain when suspended in CSF.
50g
96
Main cation of the CSF
Sodium
97
T/F: the pressure in the CSF compartment is highest in the ventricles and diminishes successively along the subarachnoid pathways.
True
98
The arachnoid villi is most numerous in this region
Both sides of the superior sagittal sinus
99
The change in ICP for a given change in intracranial volume
Intracranial elastance
100
The normal curve begins its steep ascent at what ICP level?
25 mmHg
101
Therapeutic target when monitoring the ICP
Below 15-20 mmHg
102
Ventricular enlargement because of failure of development of the brain
Colpocephaly
103
T/F: The ventricle closest to the obstruction enlarges the most.
True
104
Characterized by retracted upper eyelids, eyes turned down and paralysis of upward gaze.
Setting-sun sign
105
CSF pressure in NPH
150-200 mmH2O
106
T/F: the gait derangement of NPH is fairly obvious by the time memory function is substantially impaired.
True
107
Most common form of pseudotumor cerebri
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
108
T/F: In pseudotumor cerebri, central acuity is spared initially.
True
109
The most dependable treatment in intracranial hypotension
Blood patch
110
Consequence of repeated contamination of the meninges by blood
Superficial siderosis of the meninges
111
Phylogenetically the oldest area of the cerebral cortex
Hippocampus
112
Part of the Broca's area responsible for the production of spoken words
Pars opercularis
113
First branch of the ICA as it enters the brain
Ophthalmic artery
114
Most common type of neuron in the nervous system
Multipolar cells
115
Astrocyte regulate this electrolyte concentration
Potassium
116
The only paired circumventricular organ
Area postrema
117
Cation with the greatest amount in the CSF
Sodium
118
Major energy substrate of the brain
Glucose
119
Rate of production of the CSF
0.35 ml/min (about 500 ml/day)
120
T/F: In the absence of exposure to neurotrophins, p75 receptor activation promotes neuronal death.
True
121
Motor protein involved in fast axonal transport
Kinesin (dynein in slow axonal transport)
122
Most superficial retinal layer
Ganglion cell layer
123
Rate limiting step in the synthesis of acetylcholine
Uptake of choline
124
Neurotransmitter that does not depend primarily on reuptake for inactivation
Acetylcholine
125
Refers to the belief that the strangers are identified by the patient as familiar
Fregoli syndrome
126
Part of the inferior frontal gyrus which are referred to as the Broca's speech area
Pars triangularis and pars opercularis
127
It represents a cortical association area where multisensory signals form the adjacent parietal, temporal and occipital regions converge
Inferior parietal lobule
128
Surface opening leading to the insular region
Limen insula
129
Portion of the parietal lobe caudal to the paracentral lobule and rostral to the parieto-occipital sulcus
Precuneus
130
Main output center of amygdala
Central nuclear group
131
Border of the Guillain-Mollaret triangle (myoclonic triangle)
Red nucleus, inferior olivary nucleus and contralateral dentate nucleus
132
Syndrome of sustained muscle contractions producing abnorml postures or repetitive movements involving different distributions.
Dystonia
133
Refers to the reflexive upturning of eyes upon forced closure of the eyelids
Bell phenomenon
134
T/F: the bell phenomenon and the ability to converge are lost eventually in PSP.
True
135
Presents with the applause sign
PSP
136
T/F: each climbing fiber may contact up to 10 Purkinje cells but each Purkinje cell has contact with only one climbing fiber.
True
137
Deepest of all cerebellar fissures
Primary fissure
138
It is a result of powerful contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles followed immediately laryngeal closure
Hiccup
139
Anatomical interface between the brain and the anterior pituitary
Median eminence
140
Provide a structural and functional link between the CSF and the perivscular space of the pituitary portal vessels
Tanycytes
141
It lies between the primary and posterolateral fissures of the cerebellum
Posterior lobe (neocerebellum)
142
Deepest of all cerebellar fissures
Primary fissure
143
Cerebellar layer which contains basket and stellate cells
Molecular layer
144
T/F: A cerebellar glomerulus is a synaptic cluster in which two types of presynaptic fibers enter into a complex relationship with one postsynaptic element.
True
145
Cerebellar nucleus which has the most extensive thalamic projections.
Dentate nucleus
146
T/F: The medial surfaces of thalami on each side of the third ventricle are partially fused in about 80% of human brains.
True
147
Medial+Lateral geniculate bodies are called
Metathalamus
148
Chief integrating and tuning mechanism of the neuraxis
Thalamus
149
A small, relatively clear area dorsal and rostral to the subthalamic nucleus
Zona incerta
150
Two hormones responsible for synthesizing melatonin from serotonin
N-acetyltransferase and hydroxyindole-o-methyltransferase
151
This large nuclear mass overhangs the geniculate bodies and dorsolateral surface of the midbrain.
Pulvinar
152
Larger subdivision of the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus
Pars oralis
153
Largest primary somatic sensory relay nucleus of the thalamus and is referred as the ventrobasal complex
Ventral posterior nucleus
154
A thin neuronal shell which surrounds the lateral, superior and rostroinferior aspects of the dorsal thalamus
Thalamic reticular nucleus
155
Best documented thalamic neurotransmitter
GABA
156
Synaptic base of a rod cell
Spherule
157
Synaptic base of a cone cell
Pedicle
158
Chief subcortical center for the regulation of both sympathetic and parasympathetic activities.
Hypothalamus
159
T/F: The anterior thalamus is sensitive to increases in blood temperature while the posterior hypothalamus is sensitive to conditions of decreasing body temperature.
True
160
Band of white fibers which constitutes the main efferent fiber system of the hippocampal formation
Fornix
161
T/F: the hippocampus has an exceedingly low threshold for seizure activity
True
162
Generally accepted as the most widely distributed excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS
Glutamate and Aspartate
163
Segment of the ICA with no branches arising from it
Cervical, clinoid
164
Large anterior radicular artery at level T12-L2
Artery of Adamkiewicz
165
CNS structures most sensitive to anoxia
Cerebellar purkinje cells, dentate nucleus, globus pallidus, hippocampus (CA1 pyramidal cells), cerebral cortex layers III and V
166
Infarction in the midbrain tectum
Nothnagel's syndrome
167
T/F: Thrombosis of the vein of Labbe causes infarction of the underlying superior temporal lobe and occlusion of the vein of Trolard implicates the parietal cortex
True
168
The greatly thickened band of Bailarger in Layer IV of the calcarine cortex
Line of Gennari
169
Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release this neurotransmitter
Norepinephrine
170
T/F: The brain are relatively richer in muscarinic sites while the spinal cord has a preponderance of nicotinic sites.
True
171
T/F: Unlike AMPA and Kainate receptors, all NMDA receptors are highly permeable to Ca2+ as well as to Na+ and K+.
True
172
Neurons which exclusively produce histamine in the CNS
Neurons in the tuberomammilary nucleus
173
Fine, pial remnant thread extending from end of conus medullaris to the end of the dural sac
Filum terminale
174
Separates the dorsal and ventral roots of the spinal cord
Denticulate ligaments
175
T/F: Pain is common in Cauda equina syndrome.
True
176
Only excitatory cells in the cerebellum
Granule cells
177
Part of the motor cortex which codes for the force of movement
Primary motor cortex
178
T/F: Tic Douloreux rarely involves the ophthalmic division of the fifth cranial nerve.
True
179
Arises from C5 nerve root and supplies the major and minor rhomboid muscles
Dorsal scapular nerve
180
Arises from C5-C7 roots and supplies the serratus anterior muscle
Long thoracic nerve
181
Foramen where the median nerve travels inside created by a tendinous band that runs between the humerus and the medial epicondyle
Ligament of Struthers
182
Induced by tapping over median nerve at the wrist
Tinel's sign
183
Spinal root with no sensory component
C1
184
T/F: The sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal cord via the ventral roots.
True
185
T/F: All sympathetic postganglionic neurons are adrenergic and release norepinephrine except those innervating the sweat glands and a few vasodilator neurons.
True
186
Associated with emotional and motivational aspects of sexual arousal
Orbitofrontal cortex
187
"Slow twitch" muscle fibers with less predisposition to muscle fatigue with repeated activation
Type 1 fibers
188
Transverse hollow tubular structures formed by invagination of sarcolemma
T tubules
189
Largest cell in the CNS
Motor neurons
190
Smallest cell in the CNS
Granular neurons
191
Structural protein that maintains the shape and supports the mechanical strength of astrocytes
Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
192
Swollen astrocytes in hepatic encephalopathy
Alzheimer Type II astrocytes
193
The most abundant water channel in the CNS
Aquaporin 4
194
Neurons damaged by hypoxia or trauma discharge
Glutamate
195
Specialized ependymal cells of the third ventricle with basal processes extending between astrocytic processes to form an endfoot on blood vessels
Tanycytes
196
T/F: 55% of the corticospinal tract terminates in the cervical cord.
True
197
Brodmann area adjacent to the primary somatosensory tongue representation and the insular cortex motor areas for salivation and gastrointestinal motility
Brodmann area 43
198
Neurotransmitter synthesized from glutamate by glutamic acid dehydrogenase (GAD)
GABA
199
T/F: D1 receptors may be important in mediating dystonia while D2 receptors may contribute to chorea.
True
200
Membranous organelles move toward terminals and back toward the cell body by what transport
Fast axonal transport
201
Caused by lesions that produce complete vision loss, typically affecting the bilateral medial occipital lobe
Anton syndrome
202
Caused by bilateral lesions of the lateral occipitoparietal cortex typically after watershed infarction presenting as simultanagnosia and ocular apraxia
Balint syndrome
203
A lesion on the visual radiation between the left lateral geniculatr body and the lingual gyrus will produce this type of visual defect
Right upper quadrantanopsia
204
A lesion on the visual radiation between the left lateral geniculate body and the cuneus will produce this type of visual defect
Right lower quadrantanopsia
205
Segment at the junction of pedicle and lamina
Pars interarticularis
206
Amaurosis fugax usually arises because of disease in what artery
Internal carotid artery
207
Association fibers which has connection to all major lobes of the cerebrum
Superior longitudinal fasciculus
208
Decerebrate rigidity can be abolished by transection of what tract?
Vestibulospinal tract
209
The hippocampus of the temporal lobe can make connection with the mamillary bodies via this structure
Fornix
210
The confluence of the sinuses in the brain
Torcula heterophile
211
Primary neurotransmitter of post ganglionic sympathetic neurons for the sweat gland
Acetylcholine
212
Eye position information reaches the abducens nucleus from neuronal integrator neurons coming from the
Nucleus prepositus hypoglossi (afferents coming from the flocculus)
213
The gaze-holding neural integrator for vertical gaze is located in the
Interstitial nucleus of Cajal
214
Represent the most massive collection of precerebellar nuclei and constitute the most important relay in the conduction of impulses from the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum
Pontine nuclei
215
Appears to be the only part of the cerebellum that does not receive a pontine projection
Nodulus
216
The only cerebellar afferent of the superior cerebellar peduncle
Ventral spinocerebellar tract
217
Neurotransmitter of the climbing fibers
Glutamate
218
The only efferent fibers from the cerebellar cortex come from
Axon of the purkinje cells
219
Most common location of neurogenic gastrointestinal ulceration after an acute hypothalamic lesion
Lower esophagus
220
Constitute the largest component of the inferior cerebellar peduncle
Crossed olivocerebellar fibers
221
The portion of the parietal lobe caudal to the paracentral lobule and rostral to the parieto-occipital sulcus
Precuneus
222
This cistern is of importance because it contains the great vein of Galen
Cisterna ambiens
223
The primitive neuroectodermal cells are generally found in what layer?
Subependymal matrix
224
T/F: the dorsal zona compacta contains melanin pigment while the ventral zona reticulata contains iron compounds
True
225
Region of the brain considered to have the lowest seizure threshold
Hippocampus
226
T/F: Area 17 is a typical homotypical cortex but is unique in that its fourth receptive layer is divided into two granular cell laminae by a greatly thickened band of myelinated fibers.
True
227
Remnant of the anterior neuropore in the adult brain
Lamina terminalis
228
Remnant of the notochord in the adult
Nucleus pulposus
229
The two thalami are connected across the midline (massa intermedia) in how many percent of individuals?
80%
230
T/F: The corpus striatum consists of the putamen, the caudate nucleus and the globus pallidus
True
231
Efferent impulses from the basal nuclei will have to exit via
Globus pallidus interna and substantia nigra pars reticulata
232
Cranial nerves represented by the facial colliculus
CN VI and VII
233
Arterial supply of the choroid plexus of the fourth ventricle
PICA
234
Arterial supply of the deep cerebellar nuclei
SCA
235
T/F: The venous drainage from the portal system of the hypothalamus is to the petrosal sinus where hormone levels can be sampled.
True
236
Inhibits the effect of Oxytocin
Alcohol
237
This structure caps the Sylvian fissure
Supramarginal gyrus
238
The venous couterpart of the posterior cerebral arteries that loop around the midbrain
Basal vein of Rosenthal
239
It is the most frequently injured cranial nerve
CN VI
240
T/F: Projections originating from the nucleus gracilis are located ventrally in the medial lemniscus and those from the nucleus cuneatus are dorsal.
True
241
Serves as a precursor of melatonin in the pineal gland
Serotonin
242
Brainstem control for somatic motor and cognitive behavior
Pedunculopontine nucleus
243
T/F: Visceral motor and sensory components of the facial nerve do not make a loop around the abducens nucleus
True
244
Monoamine originating from the tuberomamillary nucleus
Histamine
245
The circle of Willis is complete in how many percent of the population?
20%
246
Comprises the most massive striatal afferents
Corticostriate projection
247
Extracerebellar target from all deep cerebellar nuclei
Hypothalamus
248
It is the axonless neuron of the retina
Amacrine cells
