Neuro/Sedation Flashcards

1
Q

What is a sudden interruption of arterial or venous blood flow to a focal region of the brain?

A

Stroke

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2
Q

What is the third line therapy for seizure control?

A

If lasting 40 is 60 minutes repeat dosing of second line, then anesthetic dose of versed, propofol, or pentobarbital

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3
Q

What diagnostics tool shows abnormality in 90% of encephalitis cases?

A

EEG

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4
Q

What kind of seizure results in a sudden loss of tone?

A

A tonic

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5
Q

When can children return to activities after traumatic brain injury?

A

Went at pre-morbid state and symptom-free at rest

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6
Q

What neurologic problem is a progressive and symmetrical with ascending paralysis progressive neuromuscular weakness?

A

Guillain-Barre

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7
Q

What are three kinds of shunts used to help with hydrocephalus?

A

VP or ventricular pleural, VA or ventricular atrial, VG ventricular gall bladder

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8
Q

What is the best radiographic view for viewing C1?

A

Udontoid view

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9
Q

What are some post-operative complications of craniosynostosis surgery?

A

Pain, bleeding, s i a d h, bradycardia, facial edema

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10
Q

What are signs of botulism in infants?

A

Constipation, hypertonia, listlessness, dysphagia, weak cry

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11
Q

What is initial therapy for seizure control?

A

In the 5 to 20 minutes after the seizure starts give benzodiazepines

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12
Q

What is the Mallampati score?

A

Score that describes ability to visualize the pharynx one and two are safest

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13
Q

Bleeding inside or around the ventricles of the brain?

A

Introventricular hemorrhage

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14
Q

What is the opening pressure of an LP in pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Greater than 280

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15
Q

What is a common cause of encephalitis and neonates?

A

Herpes simplex virus

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16
Q

What can an MRI identify?

A

Ischemia or infarcts, degenerative diseases, congenital anomalies, AV malformations, posterior fossa or spinal cord lesions

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17
Q

Why are children more prone to s c i w o r a?

A

They have cartilaginous end plates with wax interspinous ligaments

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18
Q

What medications used to treat delirium?

A

Haldol

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19
Q

What is the second line therapy in status epilepticus?

A

If lasting 20 to 40 minutes give keppra fosfone, valpo weight or phenobarbital as a last choice

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20
Q

What will a CT scan of a hydrocephalus patient show?

A

Ventricular magnolia, macrocephaly

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21
Q

What is a brief but widespread inflammation of the brain and spinal cord that damages the myelin usually following a bacterial or viral illness?

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

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22
Q

What are the two most common presenting signs of neurofibromatosis?

A

Lisch nodules and cafe au lait spots

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23
Q

When is p r e s most often seen?

A

In oncologic, transplant, dialysis patients

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24
Q

Or the three types of delirium?

A

Hyperactive, hypoactive, mixed

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25
What imaging should be used to diagnose hydrocephalus?
CT scan
26
Ischemia, cell death, cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure is primary or secondary brain trauma?
Secondary
27
What is a typical sign of shunt complications?
Wi'll go back to pre-shunt functioning
28
If concerned for high ICP what should be performed prior to a lumbar puncture?
CT scan
29
What are some other presenting factors of tuberous sclerosis?
Infants with seizures or cardiac rhabdomyomas and seizures
30
What is the most common sight of the lumbar puncture?
Between l4 and l5 or one space above or one space below
31
What are two sedation scores?
State behavioral score and Richmond agitation scoring system
32
Is an intracranial contusion, hemorrhage, or diffuse external injury the primary or secondary injury?
Primary
33
Is the most common presenting symptom in pediatrics of posterial reversible encephalopathy syndrome?
Seizures
34
What is the diagnostic and treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?
Lumber puncture
35
What is the scoring method used to screen for delirium?
Pediatric confusion assessment method or P-CAM
36
What kind of seizure originates in one hemisphere?
Focal
37
What is the mnemonic used to determine if safe to sedate?
AMPLE Allergies Medications Past illnesses Last oral intake Events leading up to injury
38
On a spinal cord injury impairment scale what is the best and worst category?
Best is category E where sensory and motor function is preserved Worst is category A where there is no sensory or motor function preserved before S4 or S5
39
What kind of seizure affects bilateral hemispheres of the brain?
Generalized
40
When using an MRI to evaluate seizures what are the advantages?
Eliminates radiation exposure, higher resolution and differentiation of gray and white matter, higher resolution of skull base and orbits
41
Bleeding within the brain tissue is what kind of hemorrhage?
Intraparenchymal
42
What defines status epilepticus?
Single seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes or two or more consecutive seizures without returning to baseline level of consciousness
43
What can a CT identify?
Bony abnormalities, intracranial hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, cerebral edema, space occupying lesions and calcifications
44
What screening tool is used to test for traumatic brain injury during sporting events?
Scat 5
45
What is a motor impairment resulting from neurological insult?
Cerebral palsy
46
What is the PACARN or CHALICE criteria used for?
To decide whether or not to do a CT scan
47
When does the child was seizures need to be seen in the ear?
Last greater than 5 minutes, head injury, high fever, compromised cardiac function
48
What kind of seizure causes rhythmic or repetitive movements?
Chronic
49
What is the gold standard study to diagnose an arteriovenous malformation?
Cerebral angiography
50
What is an autosomal dominant disorder that develops benign tumors in the brain skin and kidneys?
Tuberous sclerosis complex
51
What are some features of tuberous sclerosis complex?
Hypomelanotic fibromas, cortical tubers, facial angiofibromas, lymphangioleiomyomatosis
52
Where do the tumors in neurofibromatosis present?
Brain, spine, skin, eyes
53
What should we watch for after a lumbar puncture?
CSF leak, headache, lower extremity sensory changes, hematoma at the site
54
What neurological problem is progressive, symmetrical with proximal weakness and has a genetic link?
Muscular dystrophy
55
When using a CT scan to evaluate seizures what are the advantages?
Sensitive to presence of blood, bones, lesions Can be done quickly Fluid changes can be seen such as hydrocephalus or cerebral edema
56
What kind of seizure causes sustained extension reflection of head trunk or extremities?
Tonic
57
How does a shunt infection present?
Can be meningitis like
58
What are the essential findings of brain death?
Coma, apnea, absence of brain stem reflexes
59
What syndromes are associated with craniosynostosis?
Aperts, cruizzon, Pierre Robin, Turner, Vader, dandy Walker
60
Which is the most severe and early onset form of SMA?
Type 1
61
Tearing of small vessels in the pia matter is what kind of hemorrhage?
Subarachnoid
62
What is the most common age for a febrile seizure to occur?
Between 6.and 60 months
63
What brain abnormalities are associated with craniosynostosis?
Hide yourself list, chiari malformation, increased ICP, vision problems, hearing loss
64
What injury are children with down syndrome prone to and why?
They are prone to arlanto axial subluxation after acute flexion injury due to atlanto axial instability
65
Preaching vein rupture that may cross sutureline but not midline and is typically a counter coup injury is what kind of hemorrhage?
Subdural
66
Injury to the middle meningeal artery or vein is what kind of hemorrhage? That does not cross the suture line
Epidural
67
What sedative agents are related to delirium?
Benzos, propofol, can mean, opioids
68
What is a skin feature of tuberous sclerosis complex?
Ashley's spots
69
What is a SCIWORA?
Spinal cord injury without radiological abnormality
70
What are some common causes of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy?
Birth trauma, submergent injury, is fixation, accidents, prolonged resuscitation
71
What are symptoms of delirium?
Impaired consciousness, impaired awareness, unable to focus, sleepwalk cycle abnormalities, thought processes disturbances, behavioral issues