Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

How do B and T cells differ in neonates?

A

Normal and quantity but less efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

There are some gram negative organisms?

A

Gram-negative bacilli, e coli, club Cielo, pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List foir gram positive organisms?

A

Streptococcus staphylococcus and taro caucus listeria myobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the hallmark right of symptoms and older kids with viral meningitis?

A

Fever, headache, altered LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can be given for PCP prophylaxis

A

Bactrim or pentamidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do steroids affect your CRP?

A

Lowers it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most common bacterial organisms in bacterial meningitis of neonates?

A

Group B strip, e coli, listeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment for CMV in immunocompromised patients?

A

Valgancyclovir which is the prodrug for ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When are amino glycosides used?

A

Sepsis, endocarditis, UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment for meningococcemia?

A

Third generation cephalosporins such as subtraction or cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is used to treat strep pneumonia?

A

High doses amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis and neonates?

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin or cephfotaxim with acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are four antibiotics that can be used to treat MRSA?

A

Bactrim, clindamycin, doxycycline, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What occurs to the CSF WBC’s in a viral and bacterial infection?

A

Bacteria there will be greater than 1,000, viral less than 500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Concern of increased ICP what should you do prior to the lumbar puncture?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is vancomycin used to treat?

A

MRSA or MRSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Supportive treatment is used for dente but what agents need to be avoided?

A

Aspir in and or NSAID due to the risk of DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What cephalosporin is used for surgical prophylaxis?

A

First generation such as cephalexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for typhoid?

A

Ceftriaxone or ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an example of a glycopeptide?

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What differentiates CMV from EBV?

A

CMV does not have pharyngitis, tonsillitis or splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To qualify as SIRS patients need two or more of what four qualities?

A

Temperature greater than 38 or less than 36

Tachycardia greater than 2 cm above age norm

New respiratory rate greater than two standard deviations above age norm or mechanical ventilation for an acute process

Leukocyte count elevated or depressed for age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is used to treat otitis media?

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What antibiotic is used for bacterial prophylaxis, UTIs, otitis media, lower respiratory tract infections?

A

Penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What test to text presence of macrolide inducible resistance to clindamycin?

A

D test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is diagnostic for disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

D- dimer presence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When should you add acyclovir in the treatment of neonatal sepsis?

A

CSF pleocytosis, maternal prolonged rupture of membranes, primary maternal HSV infection, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is used to treat skin and softer shoe infections?

A

First generation cephalosporin, clindamycin, bactrim, vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the pathophysiology of typhoid?

A

Widespread bacteremia and endotoxin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the most common organisms to cause skin and soft tissue infections?

A

Staph aureus and group a strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What medication should be avoided when a patient has influenza?

A

Solicitor containing medications such as aspirin due to the risk of reye’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What disorder presents with bleeding followed by thrombosis and tissue ischemia

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an example of a sulfonamide?

A

Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the second most common STI in the US?

A

Necessaria gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an example of a fluoroquinolone?

A

Cipro, levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the treatment for Lyme disease?

A

Amoxicillin for children younger than eight doxycycline for children greater than eight

14 to 21 days or 21 to 28 days for severe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Comment on the infection presentation of CMV

A

Primary infection or virus goes to organs of kidney, lungs, liver, brain followed by secondary infection which is a reactivation scene in the setting of immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Christmas common cause of bacterial meningitis and children greater than 2 years of age?

A

And meningitides, s pneumonia, h influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Just the ESR or CRP rise faster in response to infection?

A

CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who needs prophylaxis after exposure to a patient with meningococcemia? What is the prophylactic treatment?

A

Close contacts and healthcare workers

Ciprofloxacin or rocephin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are patients with untreated Rocky mountain spotted fever at risk for?

A

D i c and septic like picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define fever of unknown origin?

A

Fever greater than 38.3, lasting for at least 8 days and up to 3 weeks with no apparent clinical diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In high risk patient with fever and neutropenia what do you need to be sure to cover with antibiotics?

A

Gram negative organisms, strep viridans and pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When managing septic shock what is your goal CVP?

A

10 to 12

46
Q

What does CMV cause in neonates when pass congenitally from mother to infant?

A

Hearing loss, ocular damage, ocular motor dysfunction

47
Q

What are the most common organisms causing sepsis in the neonate?

A

Group B strep, listeria monocytogenes, e coli

48
Q

Who’s the most common source of infection in young infants? In fever without a source

A

Group B strep the stereo monocytogenes, salmonella, e coli

49
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Sign of splenic rupture

50
Q

To be classified as severe sepsis what needs to be seen?

A

Cardiovascular organ dysfunction, acute respiratory distress syndrome, two or more other organ dysfunctions

51
Q

What is a normal glucose and what happens during a viral or bacterial infection in the CSF?

A

Normal is 50 to 75

Normal to low in viral
Low in bacterial

52
Q

What is most commonly causing otitis media?

A

Struck pneumonia, h influenza

53
Q

What kind of illness is dengue?

A

Viral

54
Q

What’s cephalospotin is used for meningitis or sepsis? Why

A

Third generation such as cephalexin or ceftriaxone as it crosses the blood brain barrier

55
Q

What is Malaria caused by?

A

Plasmodium

56
Q

What is the most common antibiotic therapy in bone and joint infections?

A

Cefazoline or clindamycin

57
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin g

58
Q

What what malignancy is our associated with EBV?

A

Lymphoma, B cell tumors

59
Q

What are the two antibiotic combos that can be used in the treatment of neonatal sepsis?

A

Gentamicin and ampicillin or ampicillin and cephalexin

60
Q

There’s most common cause of bacterial meningitis in young children?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, N meningititidis, groupie strip, H. influenza

61
Q

What are examples of macrolides?

A

Erythromycin or clarithromycin

62
Q

What should be used in a community acquired pneumonia if MRSA is suspected?

A

Add staff coverage using vancomycin or clindamycin

63
Q

What is the first line therapy for HSV?

A

Acyclovir

64
Q

What causes typhoid?

A

Salmonella enterica

65
Q

What is the most common organism in viral meningitis?

A

Enterovirus

66
Q

What is a synonym for the target lesions associated with Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans

67
Q

When is Cipro used?

A

UTIs, bacterial diarrhea, soft tissue or bone infections

68
Q

What is the severe outcome of mononucleosis?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of B cells and lymphobliferative disease

69
Q

What qualifies as septic shock?

A

An adult’s severe sepsis with refractory hypotension, and children sepsis in the presence of cardiovascular dysfunction

70
Q

What is the treatment for gonorrhea?

A

Intramuscular ceftriaxone plus azithromycin or doxycycline

71
Q

What is an example of a beta-lactam?

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems

72
Q

Where’s the most common STI in the US?

A

Chlamydia

73
Q

When should vancomycin or linezolid be used in a patient that is febrile and neutropenic?

A

Cellulitis or pneumonia

74
Q

What bacterial infection has a rapid onset of severe symptoms such as fever, altered mental status, poor perfusion, purpura, irritability?

A

Neisseria meningititidis

75
Q

What are examples of amino glycosides?

A

Gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin

76
Q

But it’s most common source of infection in a patient with fever without a source in the older infant or toddler?

A

Salmonella, neisseria meningititides streptococcus pneumonia

77
Q

What are the clinical criteria for toxic shock syndrome?

A

Fever greater than 39, diffuse fresh, desquamation of palms and souls wanted two weeks after onset, hypotension, multisystem involvement of at least three organ systems

78
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment for toxic shock syndrome?

A

Broad spectrum with ceftriaxone and vancomycin

79
Q

How is dengue transmitted?

A

Mosquitoes

80
Q

What is the treatment of meningitis in an older child?

A

Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

81
Q

What unique tick born disease causes a rash on the wrist ankles palms and soles that spreads to the trunk?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

82
Q

What cephalosporin is used in sepsis and febrile neutropenia?

A

Cefepime or other fourth generation cephalosporin

83
Q

What antibiotic monotherapy can be used in a fever and neutropenia patient?

A

Penicillin, fourth generation cephalosporum, or cartapenum

84
Q

What is the treatment for Rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Doxycycline

85
Q

What is the prophylaxis for malaria?

A

Doxycycline, tetracycline, clindamycin

86
Q

How is malaria diagnosed?

A

Blood smears repeated every 12 to 24 hours if test is negative

87
Q

What is the most common organism causing bone and joint infections?

A

Staph aureus

88
Q

What causes syphilis?

A

Spirochete treponema pallidum

89
Q

What should be used if a resistant organism is suspected in an infected fever and neutropenia patient?

A

Gram positive and anaerobic coverage such as gentamicin and or zosyn

90
Q

What is criteria for diagnosis of fever with neutropenia?

A

Single temperature greater than 38.3 or 38.0 for greater than 1 hour with an ANC ess than 500

91
Q

When do you need inotropic support?

A

Cold or warm shock

92
Q

What is a normal protein and what happens when a viral or bacterial is present in the CSF?

A

Normal protein is 15 to 45 becomes elevated when infected

93
Q

List 3 gram negative bacteria?

A

E coli, pseudomonas, neisseria, salmonella, haemophilus influenza B

94
Q

When do we see fungal infections?

A

Immunocompromised hosts, neonates and critically ill children on long-term antibiotics

95
Q

What are the three stages of Lyme disease?

A

Early dissemination, late disease, latent dissemination

96
Q

What three kinds of infections will cause fever without other symptoms and can be serious?

A

Bactoremia, UTI, pneumonia

97
Q

What bacteria causes meningococcemia?

A

Neisseria meningititidis

98
Q

What is a negative outcome of administering cipro?

A

Tendon rupture

99
Q

What bacteria are responsible for toxic shock syndrome?

A

Staph aureus and strep pyrogenes

100
Q

What is the difference between sepsis and SIRS or systemic inflammatory response syndrome?

A

Sepsis is s i r s nope with a known or suspected infection

101
Q

What does significant RBC’s on a good lumbar puncture indicate?

A

HSV

102
Q

What are some systemic infections most commonly associated with fever of unknown origin in children?

A

Salmonella, tuberculosis, syphilis, Lyme disease, cat scratch disease, , mono, CMV, viral hepatitis, malaria, toxoplasmosis

103
Q

What are the two meningial signs?

A

Kernig and brudzinski

104
Q

What balactam is used to treat mixed aerobic / anaerobic infections, ESBL infections, febrile neutropenia?

A

Meropenem and other carbapenems

105
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Azithromycin or doxycycline

106
Q

When should antifungal coverage be added in a patient that is febrile and neutropenic?

A

Fever persisting for 4 to 7 days after starting broad spectrum antibiotics

107
Q

What is given to address coagulation issues associated with DIC?

A

Vitamin k, cryo precipitate, FFP, platelets

108
Q

In what patients is parvovirus particularly dangerous?

A

Risk of transient aplastic crisis in patients with sickle cell, sphero cytosis, G6PD deficiency

109
Q

What does severe disease of malaria look like?

A

Hypotension, renal failure, hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis

110
Q

What is the treatment for meningitis in infants?

A

Vancomycin and ceftriaxone with acyclovir