Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cpnp- ac > Hem/Onc > Flashcards

Hem/Onc Flashcards

1
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for HSP?

A

Palpable purpura plus diffusive abdominal pain, acute arthritis, arthralgia, hematuria, proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

Methylene blue IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Aggressive hydration, diuretics, correct electrolytes, dialysis in extreme cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of death in sickle cell?

A

Sepsis or meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for hyperleukocytosis?

A

Prompt chemotherapy, dexamethasone for pulmonary leukostasis, avoid RBCs until WBC reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cells are seen on a peripheral smear of a patient with ALL?

A

Blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common solid tumor?

A

CNS tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What sickle cell complication is an indication for stem cell transplant?

A

Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What condition presents with isolated thrombocytopenia?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What conditions are associated with an increased risk of developing ALL?

A

Trust me 21, Franconia anemia, client filter syndrome, shwachman diamond syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the goal of treatment for splenic sequestration?

A

Restore circulating volume and oxygen carrying capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the triad for hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A

Thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment for hyperleukocytosis?

A

Prompt chemotherapy, dexamethasone for pulmonary leukostasis, avoid RBCs until WBC reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment for it wilms tumor?

A

Nephrectomy or resection maybe with chemotherapy or radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of tumor is typically found due to leukocoria on exam?

A

Retinal blastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the management of a mediastinal mass?

A

Prom position, costume with anesthesia, positive pressure ventilation if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What transfusion reaction is caused by an immune response resulting in acute hypoxemia, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema and occurs within 6 hours?

A

TRALI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a life-threatening failure of hematopoiesis leading to a peripheral pencytopenia in bone marrow aplasia?

A

Aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are complications with the treatment of thalassemia?

A

Iron overload, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What disorder is a hypochromic, microcytic, low and MCV anemia?

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does an increased retic and low MCV tell us about the cause of anemia?

A

Hemoglobinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When’s the first episode of splenic sequestration occur?

A

Between age 3 months and 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does TACO present?

A

Respiratory distress, hypoxia, rails, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What disorder results in the production of abnormal forms of hemoglobin resulting in the destruction of RBCs?

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the management for a plastic anemia?

A

Bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In the prevention of stroke what is the goal percentage of hemoglobin S through exchange transfusions?

A

Less than 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What disorder is defined as an immune mediated small vessel vasculitis?

A

HSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define acute chest?

A

Ischemia or infarction of lung segments due to sickling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a neoplasm of the adrenal glands?

A

Neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does splenic sequestration present?

A

Cute weakness, power, abdominal distinction, pain, slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does acute chest look like on x-ray?

A

Infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What medications are given to reduce hyperglycemia or protect the kidneys from the extra uremic acid?

A

Rasburicase or allopurinol

33
Q

What oncologic emergency causes you to question the safety of anesthesia?

A

Mediastinal mass

34
Q

What blood transfusion reaction causes hemolysis secondary to ABO incompatibility?

A

Acute hemolytic reaction

35
Q

What does a peripheral smear look like in a child with a plastic anemia?

A

Very few cells, no evidence of malignancy

36
Q

How does leukemia present?

A

Phone pain, anemia, fatigue, fever, bruising

37
Q

What is the most concerning complication of HSP?

A

Renal failure

38
Q

How does HUS present?

A

Abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, fever, lethargy, pallor, petechiae, ecchymosis, hematuria

39
Q

What is the treatment for acute chest?

A

Exchange transfusion, antibiotics if infiltrates present

40
Q

What does a low MCV tell us about the cause of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency anemia, lead toxicity, thalassemia

41
Q

How does von willebrand disease present?

A

Later in life with easy bruising, frequent epistaxis, heavy menstrual bleeding

42
Q

Mediastinal mask can lead to what syndrome?

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

43
Q

What infection commonly proceeds HSP?

A

Group a strip

44
Q

What cause of anemia is the result of a genetic inborn error of metabolism that results in the breakdown of red blood cells?

A

G6PD deficiency

45
Q

Is Hodgkin lymphoma or non-Hodgkin lymphoma found in ages 5 to 15? 15 to 35?

A

Non-hodgkin lymphoma 5 to 15. Hodgkin lymphoma 15 to 35

46
Q

What is diagnostic for DIC?

A

Positive d dimer

47
Q

What is the most common age for HUS?

A

Less than 4 years

48
Q

How does ITP present?

A

Bruising, particular, epistaxis, hematuria

49
Q

What abnormal cell type causes sickle cell anemia?

A

Deoxygenated hemoglobin S

50
Q

How does someone get hemophilia?

A

X-linked chromosome disease

51
Q

Differentiate between Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma is slower with a more orderly spread while non-hodgkin lymphoma multiplies rapidly and is aggressive

52
Q

What is the most common cause of HUS?

A

E coli and its shiga toxin

53
Q

What infection requires penicillin prophylaxis in patients with sickle cell disease?

A

Pneumococcus

54
Q

What transfusion reaction occurs when circulatory capacity is exceeded causing circulatory overload and pulmonary edema?

A

TACO

55
Q

Hemophilia is caused by a deficiency in what? For a and B

A

Deficiency in fector 8 for hemophilia a

Deficiency in factor 9 for hemophilia B

56
Q

Describe a malignant lymph node

A

Non-smooth, non-mobile, hard, painful

57
Q

What kind of tumor is a solid tumor of the kidney?

A

Wilms tumor

58
Q

How is sickle cell diagnosed?

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis which can identify hemoglobin S and hemoglobin A

59
Q

What does a high MCV tell us about the cause of anemia?

A

A plastic anemia, immune disorders, a plastic crisis

60
Q

What are some common causes of DIC?

A

Infection, trauma, ARDS, ECMO, hematologic malignancies

61
Q

What is the typical age range for a wilms tumor?

A

Two to three years

62
Q

What does an increased retic and normal MCV Tell us about the cause of anemia?

A

Chronic blood loss, infection induced hemolysis, enzyme or immune disorder

63
Q

What changes are seen in the coagulation panel of a person with DIC?

A

Thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT, PTT

64
Q

How does HSP present?

A

Purple on lower extremities, hematuria, protein area, hypertension

65
Q

What is the most sensitive diagnostic study for a PE or DVT?

A

CT angiography

66
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

Disturbance normal coagulation cascade, consumption of coagulation factors and platelets, which trigger thrombosis and hemorrhage

Combination of impaired coagulation and hemorrhage

67
Q

What is the treatment for thalassemia?

A

Blood transfusions

68
Q

What are the four electrolyte changes in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

Hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia

69
Q

How does an acute hemolytic reaction present?

A

Fever, chills, hypotension, lumbar pain, shock, diaphoresis

70
Q

How does non-hodgkin lymphoma typically present?

A

Masses, chest pain, SCV syndrome, cervical lymphadenopathy

71
Q

What anemia is microcytic, low retic, elevated RDW?

A

iron deficiency

72
Q

what anemia is normochromic, macrocytic anemia?

A

diamon blackfan

73
Q

what anemia is severely low hgb, high retic, high RDW?

A

G6PD

74
Q

what is a normal RDW?

A

12-16

75
Q

what is a normal MCV?

A

80-100

76
Q

What is a normal retic?

A

0.5-2.5%

77
Q

What are normal plt?

A

150-450,000

78
Q

classic triad in HSP

A

abdominal pain, purpura, arthritis

cpnp- ac (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions