Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LVN SEMESTER III > Nervous System Disorders > Flashcards

Nervous System Disorders Flashcards

2
Q

Questions to ask patient regarding allergies when preparing for myelogram (664)

A

Dye allergies.Allergies to iodine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs and symptoms of ICP (715)

A

Restlessness, disorientation, headache, contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilaterally dilated pupil, blurred vision, diplopia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ataxia (681)

A

Impaired ability to coordinate movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aphasia (659)

A

Language function is defective or absent because of injury to cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Apraxia (689)

A

Inability to carry out learned sequential movements, perform purposeful acts, or use objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Agnosia (699)

A

Loss of ability to recognize familiar objects or people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lumbar puncture (LP) body position (703)

A

Side laying with knees to chest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

After myelogram procedure, what things do you need to watch for (664)

A

Observe puncture site for any CSF leakage.Assess strength and sensation of lower extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

After lumbar puncture procedure, what things do you need to watch for (662)

A

Assess the puncture site for drainage. Watch for development of headache. Administer bed rest, analgesics, and ice. Opioids are not helpful for LP pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nursing instructions for someone having a CT scan done for the head (662)

A

No special physical preparation is necessary. Lay supine with head in rubber holder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What pupillary changes are observed with ICP (668, 669)

A

Diplopia (double vision), weakened eye muscles, pupils rect sluggishly, ipsilateral (blown) pupil, bilateral dilation.*Blown pupils must be reported immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dysarthria (659)

A

Difficult, poorly executed speech that results from interference innervating the muscles of speech.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What data should be obtained regarding the history of migraines (666)

A

What treatments didn’t work. Triggering factors. Signs and symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Medications for migraines (666)

A

ASA (Aspirin)-triptansTopiramate (Topamax)B-Blockers (-olol)SSRIs - Elavil, ProzacCa Channel Blockers - DepakoteThiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Foods that can trigger migraines (666)

A

Tyramine, nitrates, glutamates.Vinegar, chocolate, yogurt, alcohol, fermented or marinated food, ripened cheese, cured sandwich meat, caffeine, and pork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What category of diuretics are ordered for ICP (671)

A

Osmotic diuretics.Corticosteroids.Anticonvulsants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Decerebrate (670)

A

All 4 extremities are in rigid extension.*Planking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Decorticate (670)

A

Flexion with adduction of the upper extremities, and extension with inner rotation of the lower extremities. *Pretzel spoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signs and symptoms of Huntington’s Disease (693, 694)

A

Decrease in Dopamine levels. Abnormal and involuntary excessive movement (chorea). Twisting movement of the face, limbs, and body. Problems with speech, chewing, swallowing, decrease in mental cognition and emotional state, and psychotic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Therapeutic serum range for Dilantin

A

Phenytoin (10 - 20 mcg/mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Side effects of Depakene (679)

A

Valproic Acid.Nausea, vomiting, indigestion, sedation, emotional disturbance, weakness, altered blood coagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nursing care for myasthenia gravis (692, 693)

A

Teach airway protection techniques for swallowing. Suctioning as needed. ROM exercises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adverse effects with taking Levadopa for Parkinson’s (687)

A

Aggression, involuntary grimacing, head and body movements, depression, suicidal tendencies, orthostatic hypotension, nausea, vomiting, dark urine, abnormal sexual behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Official diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis (692)

A

History and physical examination. Ask patient to look up for 2-3 minutes, observe for drooping eye lids. Other diagnostic tests are EMG and IV anti-cholinesterase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alternative name for Levadopa (687)

A

DoparLarodopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Side effects of Dilantin levels too high (toxic effects) (679)

A

Ataxia, vomiting, nystagmus, drowsiness, rash, fever, gum hypertrophy, lymphadenopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nursing intervention for someone who is actively seizing (679, 680)

A

Protection from aspiration and injury. Lower patient to the floor. Support and protect the head. Turn head to side to maintain patent airway. Observe and record observations. Note aspects of seizure. Note time for each phase, events leading up to the incident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Postictal phase (676)

A

After a seizure, patient usually feels groggy and acts disoriented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The term for slow movement associated with Parkinson’s disease (684)

A

Bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. What should the nurse plan to do for safety specific to this impairment?

A

Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Diagnostic test used for myasthenia gravis.

A

Tensilon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Levodopa (Dopar) is prescribed for a client with Parkinson’s disease, and the nurse monitors the client for adverse reactions to the medication. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction?

A

impaired voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following symptoms are consistent with a phenytoin (Dilantin) level of 32 mg/dl?

A

Ataxia and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When obtaining vital signs in a client with a seizure disorder, which of the following measures is used?

A

take an axillary instead of oral temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the priority nursing action when the nurse enters a client’s room and find him/her having a seizure?

A

remain with client and prevent injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

To provide appropriate nursing care for a client with Multiple Sclerosis (MS), the nurse understands that this disease is characterized by:

A

progressive degeneration of the myelin sheath of the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for the grand mal seizure patient during the postictal phase?

A

Provide restful environment and reorient as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Parkinson’s is a syndrome that consist of slowing down in the initiation and execution of movements is called________________.(use lower case letters only.)

A

bradykinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following statements should the nurse include in patient teaching for a client with Multiple Sclerosis regarding activity?

A

They should not exercise to the point of fatigueAvoid using scatter rugs.Bed rest is indicated during an acute exacerbation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A firm diagnosis for Parkinson’s disease can be made only when at least two of the three characteristic signs of the “classic triad” are present. What characteristics comprise the “classic triad”?

A

Tremorsrigiditybradykinesia

42
Q

Which statements are accurate regarding the neurological disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

The patient remains cognitively intact throughout disease progressionIt is progressive and usually leads to death in 2 to 6 years

43
Q

When taking the health history of a client admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington’s disease, the nurse expects the client to answer “yes” when she asks:

A

“Have other family members experienced a similar diagnosis?”

44
Q

The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with tonic-clonic seizures the importance of observing for side effects of Valproic acid (Depakene). The nurse knows that the client needs further education when he states:

A

It is normal for me to have nose bleeds for one week after I start this medication.

45
Q

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) for intracranial pressure (ICP). Which one of the following diuretics will the nurse anticipate the doctor will order?

A

Mannitol (Osmitrol)

46
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) who has the following symptoms. What symptom requires a prompt nursing intervention?

A

Tonic-clonic seizures

47
Q

Patient teaching for someone newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (683)

A

Space activities and avoid temperature extremes. They have a potential for emotional lability. Ensure they have the number for the nearest support group.

48
Q

Classic Triad for Parkinson’s disease (684)

A

TremorRigidityBradykinesia

49
Q

ALS (693)

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. Progressive neurological disease. Loss of both upper and lower motoneurons. Presents with weakness of upper extremities, dysarthria, and dysphagia. Their bodies literally waste away, and typically die from respiratory complications.

50
Q

Is Huntington’s disease hereditary (693)

A

Yes

51
Q

Adverse effects of Depakote (679)

A

Used for generalized tonic-clonic and myoclonic seizures. A/E: Sedation, drowsiness, behavioral changes, visual disturbances, and hepatic failure.

52
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia (710, 711)

A

Aka autonomic hyperreflexia. Typical in spinal cord injuries. Presents with severe paroxysmal hypertension and increased reflex actions. Damage to the 6th thoracic vertebrae or higher, including cervical injuries. Abnormal cardiovascular response to stimulation of the sympathetic (autonomic) nervous system. Stimulation of visceral organs results in severe bradycardia, systolic hypertension, diaphoresis, “goose flesh”, flushing, dilated pupils, blurred vision, restlessness, nausea, severe headache, and nasal stuffiness. Most common cause stems from distended bladder or fecal impaction.

53
Q

Spinal cord injuries that result in paraplegia (711)

A

T1 - T6

54
Q

Wernicke’s Area (659)

A

Temporal lobe with language comprehension. Damage to this area results in receptive aphasia.

55
Q

Broca’s Area (659)

A

Responsible for motor speech. Damage to this area results in expressive aphasia.

56
Q

Global Aphasia (659)

A

Damage affecting both Wernicke’s and Broca’s Areas.

57
Q

DEET Spray (705)

A

DEET is the primary chemical component used in insect repellent found to be very effective. Paramount in the reduction of West Nile Virus infections. Encephalopathy can occur from prolonged excessive DEET exposure.

58
Q

Dysreflexia (710)

A

Increased reflex reaction (hyperreflexia).

59
Q

Complications of dysreflexia (712)

A

StrokeBlindnessDeath

60
Q

Age group that spinal cord injuries are most common in (710)

A

Men between 18 and 25 years old.

61
Q

Kernig’s Sign (704)

A

Inability to stretch the legs. Diagnostic sign for meningitis.

62
Q

Brudzinski’s Sign (704)

A

Hip and knee flexion with neck flexion. Diagnostic sign for meningitis.

63
Q

Strategies to minimize pain in Trigeminal Neuralgia (701)

A

AKA Tic Douloureux. Minimize stimulation and use of the facial area (including drafts and touching). Can be managed with antiseizure medications, but the only cure is surgical alcohol injection into the nerve.

64
Q

Primary route of infection of west nile virus (WNV) (705)

A

Bite from an infected female mosquito.

65
Q

Medical term for inflammation of the brain (705)

A

Encephalitis

66
Q

Medical term for inflammation of the meninges (704)

A

Meningitis

67
Q

Cranial nerve(s) involved with Bell’s Palsy (701, 702)

A

Peripheral facial paralysis. Inflammation of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

68
Q

Proprioception (661)

A

Spacial awareness and body position.

69
Q

12 Cranial Nerves

A

OOOTTAFAGVSH

70
Q

Spinal cord level injuries and paralysis (711)

A

(C1 - C3): Tetraplegia(T1 - T6): Paraplegia

71
Q

Which level of spinal cord injury requires immediate action because of respiratory depression (711)

A

(C1 - C3): Loss of innervation to diaphragm, presents with absence of independent respiratory function.

72
Q

Most common site of heterotrophic ossification

A

Formation of new bone: hips.

73
Q

Do not over stimulate the autonomic nervous system following a spinal cord injury because which condition may develop (710)

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

74
Q

Signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) (710)

A

Increased reflex actions from stimulation to the bladder, large intestine, or other visceral organs. Presents with systolic hypertension (300 mmHg), flushing, dilated pupils, severe bradycardia, diaphoresis, “goose flesh,” blurred vision, restlessness, nausea, nasal stuffiness.

75
Q

Spinal cord injury presents with bowel and bladder incontinence with paralysis of lower extremities (711)

A

(T1 - T6)

76
Q

Complications of someone who has had a “brain attack,” stroke (694)

A

Stroke resulting from thrombus, embolus, or hemorrhage. Complications include hemiparesis, inability to walk, ADL dependence, aphasia, and depression.

77
Q

Disease progression for Guillian-Barre syndrome (703)

A

Polyneuritis presents with rapid progression. Inflammation and demyelination of the peripheral nervous system. Ab’s attack Schwann cells, causing the sheath to break down. Uninsulated nerve becomes inflamed, cannot propagate an electrical charge, and resulting muscle weakness, tingling, and numbness. Disease begins at the feet and works upwards. Recovery, however, begins at the top and works downwards.

78
Q

First signs of ICP (658, 715)

A

Declining LOC.

79
Q

Best body position with increased ICP

A

Elevate HOB 30-45 degrees. Neck in neutral position and avoid flexion on hips, waist, and neck rotation.

80
Q

Craniotomy, post-op assessment what kinds of things do you need to report to the doctor?

A

Signs of increased ICP.Blown pupils.

81
Q

Instructions for a patient scheduled for an EEG.

A

Tea/coffee restricted on day of test. Test will take 45 min to 2 hours and hair should be washed the evening before the test.

82
Q

What medication is used to prevent seizures during neuro surgery. Same Anticonvulsant for status epilepticus.

A

Fosphenytoin sodium (Cerebyx)

83
Q

Alzheimer’s drugs: the first drug that was approved for moderate to severe Alzheimers.

A

Namenda (Memantine)

84
Q

What medication works well with spasms from spinal cord injuries.

A

Baclofen (Lioresal)

85
Q

Common side effects of antispasmodics.

A

Drowsiness, dizziness, disorientation, light headed ness, hypotension, urinary frequency, possible increase in blood glucose level.

86
Q

Signs and symptoms and cranial nerve for Bell’s Palsy.

A

Cranial Nerve VIIAbrupt onset of numbness, stiffness, drawing sensation of the face, unilateral weakness of facial muscles, flaccidity of affected side, inability to wrinkle forehead as well as close eyelid, pucker lips, frown or smile.

87
Q

Diuretics used for brain swelling and cerebral edema and how it works.

A

Osmotics

88
Q

Which types of strokes are known as “ischemic strokes.”

A

Thrombotic. Most common cause of strokes.Embolic. 2nd most common cause of strokes.

89
Q

Diagnostic tests used for someone suspected of brain injury.

A

CTMRIPET Scan

90
Q

What level of paralysis for tetraplegic.

A

Movement of neck and above.

91
Q

Signs of late stages of ICP (669)

A

Rise in systolic and unchanged diastolic results in widening pulse pressure. This leads to bradycardia and abnormal respirations as late signs of increased ICP. This indicates brain herniation is imminent.

92
Q

Glakow Coma Scale (GCS); normal vs. abnormal. (658)

A

Score for a patient not neurologically impaired is 15. The lowest possible score is 3.Any score of 8 or less is generally considered to be in a coma.

93
Q

Quadraplegic have postural hypotension, how low is acceptable?

A

-20 systolic

94
Q

A 70 yo with back pain is scheduled to have a myelogram in the morning to rule out pathological condition of the spine. In preparing him for the procedure, what info is important to share?

A

He may be asked to change positions during the procedure

95
Q

The nursing assessment of an 80 yo who has had a stroke found that she had difficulty swallowing. A video fluoroscopy with barium was performed to rule out aspiration. The rehab team in the SNF determined that she can eat a soft diet with one to one supervision. Which is important to prevent aspiration?

A

Tipping the head toward the unaffected side while swallowing.

96
Q

The patient was involved in a snow mobile accident. On admission to the ER, he is receiving O2 and is incubated. His Glasgow coma scale score is 6. About 10 mins after arrival, he is noted to have a widened pulse pressure, increased systolic pressure, and bradycardia. These signs are considered an important dx sign of the late stage increased ICP. Together they are known as?

A

Cushings response

97
Q

The primary goal of nursing intervention after a craniotomy is?

A

Prevent increased ICP

98
Q

Which sign or symptom of late stage ICP should the LVN be aware of?

A

Increase in systolic bpWidening of pulse pressureBradycardiaUnequal pupils that react slowly to light

99
Q

The nurse is teaching patients with potential aspiration problems airway protective techniques during swallowing. Which procedures should be taught?

A

Chin tuck, double swallow, full fowler s position, soft or puréed foods.

LVN SEMESTER III (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions