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HOSA-PATHO > Nerves & Senses > Flashcards

Nerves & Senses Flashcards

1
Q

aka: periorbital ecchymosis

A

raccoon eyes

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2
Q

aka: retinopathy of prematurity

A

retrolental fibroplasia

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3
Q

abnormal growth of blood vessels in retinas of premature infants

A

retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

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4
Q

describe the group of preemies that get routinely screened for retinopathy of prematurity

A

< 1500g or gestational age of < 30 weeks when infant is 4-6 weeks old

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5
Q

cause of retinopathy of prematurity

A

preemie, low birth weight, high supplemental oxygen concentration, drugs, artificial lighting, seizures, mechanical ventilation, anemia, blood transfusions, spells of apnea & bradycardia

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6
Q

how is retinopathy of prematurity diagnosed

A

indirect ophthalmoscope and scleral depression

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7
Q

complications of retinopathy of prematurity

A

blindness, crossed/wandering eyes, lazy eye, nearsightedness, glaucoma, late onset retinal detachment

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8
Q

what is the most common crippling condition in children

A

cerebral palsy

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9
Q

can retinopathy of prematurity be prevented

A

no

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10
Q

congenital or acquired damage to CNS

A

cerebral palsy

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11
Q

how many types of cerebral palsy are there

A

3

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12
Q

list the 3 types of cerebral palsy

A

spastic, athetoid, ataxic

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13
Q

cause of cerebral palsy

A

poor blood/oxygen supply during development/birth/early childhood

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14
Q

cerebral palsy is more common in

A

men

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15
Q

how is cerebral palsy diagnosed

A

clinical picture and neurologic exam

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16
Q

group of malformations of spine where posterior part of bony canal completely/partially absent

A

spina bifida

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17
Q

aka: spina bifida

A

neural tube defects

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18
Q

list the 3 different types of spina bifida

A
  • spina bifida occulta
  • meningocele
  • myelomeningocele
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19
Q

this version of spina bifida only involves the vertebrae

A

spina bifida occulta

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20
Q

cause of spina bifida

A
  • exposure to radiation
  • reduced levels of vitamin A and folic acid
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21
Q

how is spina bifida diagnosed

A

maternal blood levels of AFP, prenatal ultrasound, physical exam, neurologic sx, spinal ultrasound

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22
Q

meninges protrude through opening of spine forming sac filled w/CSF

A

meningocele

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23
Q

tx meningocele and myelomeningocele

A

surgery

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24
Q

condition where spinal cord & meninges protrude thru spinal cord

A

myelomeningocele

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25
Q

aka: myelomeningocele

A

spinal bifida cystica

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26
Q

increase in CSF/CSF circulation blocked creating head enlargement/increase in cranial pressure

A

hydrocephalus

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27
Q

the cause of hydrocephalus is unknown, however what are some potential theories

A

lesion in CSF system, congenital structural defect, intracranial hemorrhage

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28
Q

how is hydrocephalus diagnosed

A

clinical picture, physical exam, xray skull studies, CT, MRI

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29
Q

tx: hydrocephalus

A

shunt and catheters

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30
Q

most severe neuro defect where fetus has no cranial vault and little cerebral tissue

A

aencephaly

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31
Q

how is anencephaly diagnosed

A

prenatal ultrasound and elevated AFP levels in blood test

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32
Q

cause of anencephaly

A

failure of neural tube to close during 2nd-3rd week of gestation

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33
Q

anencephaly is ___ and affects ____ more than ____

A

familial; affects females more than males

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34
Q

combination of brain disease and fatty invasion of inner organs

A

reye syndrome

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35
Q

the cause of reye syndrome is unknown, but its occurrence is linked to

A

using aspirin during viral infection (specifically flu or chicken pox)

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36
Q

how is reye syndrome diagnosed

A
  • elevated serum ammonia levels
  • elevated enzyme level on liver function test
  • liver biopsy
  • CSF analysis
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37
Q

cancer of sympathetic nervous system

A

neuroblastoma

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38
Q

what ist he third most common childhood malignancy

A

neuroblastoma

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39
Q

how is neuroblastoma diagnosed

A
  • measure urine & serum catecholamine levels
  • electrolyte & kidney function
  • biopsy of mass
  • bone marrow aspiration & biopsy
  • radionuclide bone scan
  • abdominal CT
  • chest xray
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40
Q

tx: nueroblastoma

A

surgery, chemotherapy, autologous hematopoietic stem cell rescue

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41
Q

aka: hyperopia

A

farsightedness

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42
Q

cause of hyperopia

A

abnormally short eyeball

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43
Q

light focuses beyond retina causing unable to see close up

A

hyperopia

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44
Q

light focuses in front of retina so cannot see far away

A

myopia

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45
Q

cause of myopia

A

abnormally long eyeball

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46
Q

aka: myopia

A

nearsightedness

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47
Q

condition where cornea is not spherical

A

astigmatism

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48
Q

lens cannot focus on near objects bc of lack of elasticity from age

A

presbyopia

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49
Q

when does presbyopia generally start

A

mid 40s

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50
Q

tx: refractive errors

A
  • glasses
  • contacts
  • corrective surgery (radial keratotomy, laser, LASIK, PRK, AK, LTK, CK, Intraocular contact lens)
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51
Q

condition with involuntary repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes

A

nystagmus

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52
Q

cause of nystagmus

A

congenital, brain or inner ear lesions, alcohol, drug abuse, brian tumors, cerebrovascular lesions, abnormal development of nervous system

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53
Q

what is the most common form of nystagmus

A

congenital

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54
Q

congenital nystagmus commonly manifests

A

before 6 months-1yr

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55
Q

tx: nystagmus

A
  • treat underlying cause
  • Kestenbaum procedure
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56
Q

condition where eyes fail to look in same direction @ same time

A

strabismus

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57
Q

cause of strabismus

A
  • weakness in nerves stimulating eye muscles
  • diabetes mellitus
  • muscular dystrophy
  • hypertension
  • trauma
  • aneurysm
  • intracranial lesion
  • temporal arteritis
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58
Q

tx: strabismus

A

glasses, surgery, ambylopia tx

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59
Q

aka: hordeolum

A

stye

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60
Q

condition of acute painful abscesses of eyelash follicle/sebaceous gland

A

hordeolum

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61
Q

cause of hordeolum

A

staphylococcal infection, blepharitis

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62
Q

tx: hordeolum

A

warm compress, topical or oral antibiotics, surgical drainage

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63
Q

condition with small firm nonmobile painless subcutaneous nodule with occlusion of meibomian gland

A

chalazion

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64
Q

cause of chalazia

A

blockage of fluid from meibomian gland

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65
Q

tx: chalazia

A

let run its course, warm compress, topical antibiotics, corticosteroid injection, surgical removal

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66
Q

any inflammation or infection to kornea

A

keratitis

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67
Q

cause of keratitis

A
  • herpes simplex
  • bacteria
  • fungi
  • wearing contacts
  • cornea trauma
  • exposure to dry air or intense light
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68
Q

tx: keratitis

A
  • broadspectrum antibiotic or antiviral
  • ophthalmic moisturizing ointments and drops
  • eye patch
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69
Q

inflammation of margins of eyelids involving hair follicles and glands

A

blepharitis

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70
Q

cause of blepharitis

A
  • staphylococcus infection
  • allergies
  • exposure to smoke/dust/chemicals
  • seborrhea
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71
Q

tx: blepharitis

A
  • warm compress
  • clean eyelids w/baby shampoo
  • antibiotic ophthalmic ointments
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72
Q

condition where eyelids turn inwards

A

entropion

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73
Q

cause of entropion

A

aging (soft tissue loses elasticity)

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74
Q

tx: entropion

A

surgery

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75
Q

condition where eyelid everts from eye

76
Q

cause of ectropion

A
  • aging (decreased elasticity)
  • scar on cheek
77
Q

tx: ectropion

78
Q

condition of permanent drooping of upper eyelid

A

blepharoptosis

79
Q

aka: blepharoptosis

80
Q

cause of blepharoptosis

A
  • weakness of CN III
  • weakness of muscle raising eyelid
  • disease
81
Q

cause of conjunctivitis

A
  • viral or bacterial infection
  • allergies
  • chemicals
  • STDs
82
Q

tx: conjunctivitis

A
  • cool compress
  • topical/systemic antibiotics
83
Q

condition where tears don’t lubricate eyes enough

A

keratoconjunctivitis

84
Q

aka: keratoconjunctivitis

A

dry eye syndrome

85
Q

cause of keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • aging
  • other disorders
  • medications
  • damage to tear glands
  • temperature damage
  • increased tear evaporation
86
Q

list risk factors for keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • female
  • > 50 years
  • wearing contacts
  • diet deficient in vitamin A
87
Q

tx: keratoconjunctivitis

A
  • OTC eye drops
  • meds (cyclosporin ophthalmic emulsion, lifitegrast ophthalmic solution)
  • lifestyle changes
  • wear contacts properly
88
Q

painful loss of surface epithelium or outer layer of cornea

A

corneal abrasion

89
Q

infection of cornea

A

corneal ulcer

90
Q

cause of corneal abrasions and ulcers

A

foreign bodies & ill-fitting contacts

91
Q

how are corneal abrasions and ulcers diagnosed

A
  • sx
  • visual exam
  • fluorescein stain
  • opaque area on cornea
92
Q

tx: corneal abrasions

A
  • remove foreign body
  • antibiotic ointments/drops
  • eye dressing
93
Q

tx: corneal ulcer

A

intensive broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy

94
Q

inflammation of deeper sclera

95
Q

inflammation of external surface of sclera

A

episcleritis

96
Q

small blood vessel rupture under conjunctiva

A

spontaneous subconjunctival hemorrhage

97
Q

cause of spontaneous subconjunctival hemorrhage

A
  • violent sneezing
  • severe coughing
  • vomiting
  • straining
  • eye trauma
  • unknown
98
Q

tx: spontaneous subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

resolves spontaneously

99
Q

how is episcleritis diagnosed

A

ophthalmic exam, blood test, ultrasound, MRI

100
Q

opacification of natural lens

101
Q

cause of cataracts

A
  • aging
  • congenital
  • ocular trauma
  • drug toxicity
  • systemic disease
  • exposure to sunlight
102
Q

what % of the population 75 yrs and older in the US have cataracts

103
Q

tx: cataracts

A

surgery & phacoemulsification

104
Q

what is the most common cataract tx

A

phacoemulsification

105
Q

damage to optic nerve bc of elevated IOP

106
Q

glaucoma is more common in ppl ___

A

60 yrs and older

107
Q

what are the four types of glaucoma

A
  • chronic open angle
  • acute angle closure
  • secondary
  • congenital
108
Q

list the risk factors for glaucoma

A
  • > 60 yrs
  • blood relatives w/glaucoma
  • nearsightedness
  • african american
109
Q

cause of chronic open-angle glaucoma

A
  • block @ level of trabecular meshwork
  • trauma
  • overuse of topical steroids
110
Q

list risk factors of chronic open angle glaucoma

A
  • family history
  • age
  • diabetes mellitus
  • ocular trauma
  • obesity
111
Q

what is the leading cause of blindness in african americans

112
Q

how is chronic open angle glaucoma diagnosed

A
  • pt history
  • ophthalmic exam w/tonometry
  • exam of optic nerve
  • visual field analysis
113
Q

tx: chronic open angle glaucoma

A
  • meds decreasing aqueous humor
  • laser tx
  • trabeculectomy
  • drainage implantation
  • eye drops
114
Q

cause of acute angle-closure glaucoma

A

opening of drainage system narrow and closes completely

115
Q

how is acute angle-closure glaucoma diagnosed

A

pt history & notable increase in IOP

116
Q

tx: acute angle-closure glaucoma

A

laser iridotomy

117
Q

progressive deterioration or break down of macula of retina

A

macular degeneration

118
Q

cause of macular degeneration

A

age, genetic, prolonged exposure to light

119
Q

what is the most common cause of blindness in white americans

A

age related macular degeneration

120
Q

how is macular degeneration diagnosed

A
  • eye exam w/dilation
  • pigment changes in macula area
  • drusen deposits
  • fluorescein angiography
121
Q

tx: macular degeneration

A
  • vitamin C and E, beta-carotene, zine supplements
  • photodynamic laser therapy
  • laser photocoagulation
  • anti-vascular endothelial growth
  • visual aids
122
Q

cause of diabetic retinopathy

A

diabetes mellitus

123
Q

list the four stages of diabetic retinopathy

A
  • mild nonproliferative
  • moderate nonproliferative
  • severe nonproliferative
  • proliferative
124
Q

tx: diabetic retinopathy

A
  • laser photocoagulation
  • panrentinal photocoagulation
  • manage blood sugar
  • vitrectomy
125
Q

separation of retina from choroid

A

retinal detachment

126
Q

cause of retinal detachment

A
  • severe diabetic retinopathy
  • ocular trauma
  • extremely nearsightedness
  • retinal atrophy
127
Q

tx: retinal detachment

A

photocoagulation or surgery

128
Q

inflammation of uveal tract

129
Q

cause of uveitis

A
  • autoimmune disorders (RA and ankylosing spondylitis)
  • syphilis
  • TB
  • toxoplasmosis
  • histoplasmosis
  • IBD
  • unknown
130
Q

how is uveitis diagnosed

A
  • ophthalmological exam w/slit lamp
  • skin test
  • blood test
131
Q

tx: uveitis

A
  • topical/systemic steroids
  • tx underlying cause
  • cycloplegic agents
132
Q

protrusion of eyes

A

exophthalmos

133
Q

cause of exophthalmos

A
  • enlarges extraocular muscles
  • retrobulbar mass
  • edema of soft tissue
  • thyroid disorders
134
Q

tx: exophthalmos

A
  • tx underlying disorder
  • surgical decompression
  • systemic steroids
135
Q

what is the most common primary malignancy of the eye in kids and causes 3% of all childhood cancers

A

retinoblastoma

136
Q

what are the most common ocular cancers in adults

A

ocular melanoma and intraocular lymphoma

137
Q

how are eye cancers diagnosed

A
  • eye exam
  • fundoscopic exam
  • MRI
  • biopsy
  • ultrasound
  • genetic testing
138
Q

tx: eye cancer

A
  • excision of tumor
  • removal of eye
  • radiation
  • chemotherapy
  • laser therapy
139
Q

cause of impacted cerumen

A

dryness, scaling of skin, excessive hair in ear canal, abnormally narrow ear canals

140
Q

tx: impacted cerumen

A

ear irrigation

141
Q

inflammation of external ear canal

A

infective otitis externa

142
Q

aka: infective otitis externa

A

otitis externa

143
Q

cause of infective otitis externa

A

impacted cerumen

144
Q

tx: infective otitis externa

A
  • good hygiene
  • antibiotic/steroid eardrops
  • systemic antibiotics
145
Q

inflammation and infection from outer ear canal fed by cerumen

A

swimmer’s ear

146
Q

inflammation of air-filled middle ear and fluid accumulates

A

otitis media

147
Q

what are the 2 types of otitis media

A

supperative and nonsupperative

148
Q

cause of otitis media

A

virus from URI, allergic reaction, bacteria, flu/mumps

149
Q

how is otitis media diagnosed

A

otoscopy, elevated WBCs, tympanogram

150
Q

tx: otitis media

A

analgesics/decongestants, antibiotics, myringotomy

151
Q

abnormal bone growth in middle ear (gen stapes)

A

otosclerosis

152
Q

cause of otosclerosis

A

idiopathic

153
Q

tx: otosclerosis

A

stapedectomy

154
Q

chronic disease of inner ear affecting labyrinth

A

meniere disease

155
Q

cause of meniere disease

A

unknown; increase in endolymph

156
Q

list risk factors for Meniere’s disease

A
  • middle ear infections
  • head trauma
  • dysfunction in ANS
  • noise pollution
  • premenstrual edema
157
Q

how is otosclerosis diagnosed

A

audiogram, pt history, otoscopy

158
Q

how is meniere disease diagnosed

A
  • 4 core sx (recurring vertigo, tinnitus, progressive hearing loss, sensation of fullness)
  • audiometry
  • balance studies
  • imaging
  • electrocochleograph
159
Q

tx: meniere disease

A
  • meds to manage sx
  • salt-free diet
  • restrict fluid
  • diuretics
  • meclizine
  • mild sedatives
  • limit caffeine and alcohol
  • stop smoking
  • avoid stress
  • surgery
160
Q

vestibular disorder with positional vertigo

A

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

161
Q

cause of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

heat trauma, otitis media, viral infection, vascular, balance/equilibrium disorder, unknown

162
Q

how is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo diagnosed

A

pt history & exam, audiogram, imaging, caloric stimulation, blood labs

163
Q

tx: benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

antihistamines, anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, exercises

164
Q

inflammation/infection of labyrinth

A

labyrinthitis

165
Q

cause of labyrinthitis

A

virus, bacterial infection, meningitis

166
Q

how is labyrinthitis diagnosed

A
  • audiometry
  • blood, neurologic, caloric, and imaging studies
167
Q

tx: labyrinthitis

A

bed rest, tranquilizer, antiemetic agent, antibiotic, antihistamines, corticosteroids

168
Q

any tear or injury to eardrum

A

ruptured tympanic membrane

169
Q

cause of ruptured tympanic membrane

A
  • insertion of sharp objects
  • explosions
  • severe middle ear infection
  • blow to ear
  • fractured skull
  • spontaneous
170
Q

how is ruptured eardrum diagnosed

A

otoscope and audiometry

171
Q

tx: ruptured eardrum

A

antibiotic, patch, analgesics

172
Q

infected mass of skin cells in middle ear eroding the bone and damaging the ossicles

A

cholesteatoma

173
Q

cause of cholesteatoma

A

congenital or chronic ear infection

174
Q

tx: cholesteatoma

A

removal or surgery

175
Q

list possible complications of cholesteatoma

A

erosion of facial nerve, facial paralysis, labyrinthitis, meningitis, epidural abscess

176
Q

inflammation of mastoid or mastoid process

A

mastoiditis

177
Q

cause of mastoiditis

A

Haemophilusemophilus influenza, moraxella catarrhalis, group A streptococci, staphylococcus aureus, cholesteatoma

178
Q

how is mastoiditis diagnosed

A

pt history, otoscopy, audiometry, radiographic studies, blood culture studies

179
Q

tx: mastoiditis

A

antibiotic, sulfonamide therapy, surgery

180
Q

nerve impulses from sound waves not transmitted to brain

A

sensorineural hearing loss

181
Q

aka: sensorineural hearing loss

A

occupational hearing loss

182
Q

cause of sensorineural hearing loss

A

nerve failure, damage to cochlea or auditory nerve, age, loud sounds, medications, mumps, measles, syphilis, meningitis, suppurative labyrinthitis, viral infection, trauma

183
Q

how is sensorinueral hearing loss diagnosed

A

pt history & audiometry findings

184
Q

tx: sensorineural hearing loss

A

reduce noise & ear protectors

185
Q

acoustic neuromas, facial neuromas, and glomus tumors are ____ tumors

186
Q

glomus tumors are found in

A

middle ear

187
Q

acoustic neuromas are found from

HOSA-PATHO (13 decks)

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