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Disease Process & Terminology & Cancer/Neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

define PATHOLOGY

A

objective description of traits, causes, & effects of abnormal conditions that threaten homeostasis

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2
Q

define SYNDROME

A

defined collection of signs and sx

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3
Q

define PATHOGENESIS

A

development of disease in stages

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4
Q

how long defines an acute disease

A

less than 6 months

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5
Q

aka: systemic health

A

internal equilibrium

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6
Q

risk factors may be useful for prevention but does not necessarily predict ___ of disease

A

occurence

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7
Q

list examples of predisposing factors to disease

A

age, gender, lifestyle, environment, heredity, immunodeficiency

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8
Q

list examples of environment predisposition factors

A

pollution, poor living conditions, excessive noise, chronic psychological stress, geographic location

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9
Q

define CROSS-REACTIVE PROTEIN (CRP)

A

blood test marker to detect inflammatory disorders

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10
Q

list factors of inflammation intensity

A

cause, area of body, physical condition of person

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11
Q

list factors of inflammation intensity

A

cause, area of body, physical condition of person

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12
Q

what type of response is inflammation

A

nonspecific

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13
Q

list some conditions that cause inflammation

A

infection w/pathogens, toxins, physical trauma, ischemia, necrosis

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14
Q

what kind of response is acute inflammation

A

exudative

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15
Q

describe purpose of acute inflammation

A

wall off/destroy/digest bacteria and dead/foreign tissue & allow fluid leakage that stimulate WBC phagocytes and antibody response

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16
Q

what conditions can inhibit normal inflammatory response

A

immune disorders, chronic illness, certain medications (esp long-term steroid therapy)

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17
Q

what are the cardinal signs of local infection

A

redness, swelling, heat, pain, fever, pus, enlarged lymph glands, & red streaks

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18
Q

what are the 2 ways pathogens cause disease in body

A
  1. invasion & destruction of tissue
  2. intoxicate/produce poisonous substances
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19
Q

what are some ways disease can be transmitted

A
  • direct/indirect physical contact
  • inhalation
  • drops
  • ingestion of contaminated food/water
  • inoculation via insect/animal
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20
Q

what are the body’s natural defenses

A
  1. chemical & mechanical barriers
  2. inflammatory response
  3. immune response
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21
Q

aggressive skin & soft tissue infections, abscesses & cellulitis, fatal pneumonia, bone infections, and septicemia can be caused by

A

MRSA

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22
Q

why is MRSA so dangerous

A

resistant to many antibiotics

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23
Q

what ist he leading cause of surgical wound infections

A

MRSA

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24
Q

what does MRSA stand for

A

Methicillin-Resistant Strains of Staphylococcus Aureus

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25
Q

what is the reservoir for Escherichia coli (E. coli)

A

colon and manure

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26
Q

what infection is caused by E. coli

A

mild to severe enteritis

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27
Q

what is the reservoir for staphylococcus aureus

A

skin, hair, anterior nares

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28
Q

wound infection, pneumonia, food poisoning, and cellulitis are caused by

A

staphylococcus aureus

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29
Q

strep throat, rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, and impetigo are caused by

A

streptococcus (hemolytic group A)

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30
Q

what is the reservoir of streptococcus (hemolytic group A)

A

oropharynx, skin, perianal area

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31
Q

what is the reservoir of Streptococcus (hemolytic group B)

A

adult genitalia

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32
Q

UTIs, wound infection, and endometritis are caused by

A

streptococcus (hemolytic group B)

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33
Q

what are the reservoirs for Clostridium difficile (C. Difficile)

A

contaminated surfaces/spores transferred on unclean hands of others

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34
Q

serious intestinal conditions like colitis are caused by

A

C. difficile

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35
Q

what is the reservoir of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

lungs

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36
Q

what condition is caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

TB

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37
Q

what are the reservoirs for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

genitourinary tract, rectum, mouth, eye

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38
Q

gonorrhea, pelvic inflammatory disease, infectious arthritis, and conjunctivitis are caused by

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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39
Q

reservoirs for rickettsia rickettsii is

A

wood tick

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40
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by

A

rickettsiae rickettsii

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41
Q

reservoirs for staphylococcus epidermidis pseudomonas aeruginosa are

A

skin, water, soil

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42
Q

wound infection, bacteremia, pneumonia, UTI, and meningitis are caused by

A

staphylococcus epidermidis pseudomonas aeruginosa

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43
Q

the reservoirs for hepaitis A is

A

feces, blood, and urine

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44
Q

the reservoirs for hepatitis B is

A

feces, blood, all body fluids & excretions

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45
Q

the reservoirs for hepatitis C is

A

blood and bodily fluids

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46
Q

chronic liver disease is caused by

A

hepC virus

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47
Q

the reservoir for herpes simplex is

A

lesions of mouth & skin, blood, and excretions

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48
Q

cold sores, aseptic meningitis, and STDs are caused by

A

herpes simplex

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49
Q

the reservoirs for human immunodeficiency virus are

A

blood, semen, vaginal secretions, saliva, tears, urine, breast milk

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50
Q

HIV causes

A

AIDS

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51
Q

reservoirs for hantavirus are

A

deer mouse urine, feces, and saliva

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52
Q

URI, LRI, adult respiratory distress syndrome are caused by

A

hantavirus

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53
Q

reservoirs for ebola hemorrhagic fever are

A

contaminated blood/bodily fluids and fruit bats

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54
Q

hemorrhagic fever, vascular permeability, shock, death, potential bioterrorism threat are caused by

A

hemorrhagic fever

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55
Q

the reservoir for west nile virus is

A

mosquitos

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56
Q

fever, rash, hepatitis, and encephalitis are caused by

A

west nile virus

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57
Q

the reservoirs for aspergillus organisms are

A

soil and dust

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58
Q

aspergillosis and allergic bronchopulmonary are caused by

A

aspergillus organisms

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59
Q

reservoirs for candida albicans are

A

mouth, skin, colon, and genital tract

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60
Q

thrush and dermatitis are caused by

A

candida albicans

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61
Q

the reservoir for plasmodium falciparum are caused by

A

mosquitos

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62
Q

malaria is caused by

A

plasmodium falciparum

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63
Q

why is Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) dangerous

A

only few antibiotics can fight it and can cause many types of infectins

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64
Q

why is carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) dangerous

A

high levels of resistance to last resort antibiotics and fatal

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65
Q

how many pairs of autosomes are there

A

22

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66
Q

what is the remaining pair of chromosomes that are not autosomes called

A

sex chromosomes

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67
Q

define KARYOTYPE

A

ordered arrangement of photographs of full chromosome set

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68
Q

genetic diseases are caused by what conditions

A
  • abnormality/mutation of code in single gene
  • several abnormal genes
  • abnormal presence/absence of entire chromosome
  • alteration in structure of chromsome
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69
Q

give examples of mutagens

A

chemicals, radiation, viruses

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70
Q

what are the main modes of inheritance for genetic diseases

A
  • autosomal dominant
  • autosomal recessive
  • x-linked/sex-linked recessive
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71
Q

define AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

A

mode of genetic inheritance where mutant phenotype is seen even if normal gene is present in other chromsome

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72
Q

define AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE

A

mode of genetic inheritance where both genes need to be mutated for disease to occur

73
Q

give an example of autosomal dominant conditions

A

marfan syndrome & huntington disease

74
Q

give an example of autosomal recessive conditions

A

cystic fibrosis & phenylketonuria

75
Q

define CANCER

A

group of diseases characterized by uncontrollable cell proliferation

76
Q

define NEOPLASMS

A

relentlessly growing mass of abnormal cells that proliferate at expense of healthy organism

77
Q

list the main general types of cancer

A
  • carcinoma
  • sarcoma
  • lymphoma
  • leukemia
  • melanoma
78
Q

define CARCINOMA

A

cancer of epithelial cells

79
Q

define SARCOMA

A

CANCER OF SUPPORTIVE TISSUES OF BODY

80
Q

define LYMPHOMA

A

cancer of lymph nodes & tissues of immune system

81
Q

define LEUKEMIA

A

cancer of blood cell precursors

82
Q

define MELANOMA

A

cancer of melanin-producing cells

83
Q
  • list characteristics of benign tumors
A
  • develop slowly
  • remain encapsulated
  • resemble tissue of origin
  • rarely recur after surgical removal
  • no tissue damage, not prone to hemorrhage
  • may be smooth & freely movable
84
Q

list characteristics of malignant tumors

A
  • rapid growth & invade via infiltration
  • abnormal appearance
  • metastasize
  • ulceration/necrosis
  • prone to hemorrhage
  • irregular & less movable
  • can reoccur
85
Q

define MYXOMA

A

benign tumor of embryonic fibrous tissue

86
Q

define MYXOSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of embryonic fibrous tissue

87
Q

define FIBROMA

A

benign tumor of fibrous tissue

88
Q

define FIBROSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of fibrous tissue

89
Q

define LIPOMA

A

benign tumor of adipose tissue

90
Q

define LIPOSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of adipose tissue

91
Q

define CHONDROSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of cartilage

92
Q

define OSTEOMA

A

benign tumor of bone

93
Q

define OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of bone

94
Q

define PAPILLOMA

A

benign tumor of skin & mucous membrane

95
Q

define SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

A

malignant tumor of skin and mucous membrane

96
Q

define NEVUS

A

benign tumor of melanocytes

97
Q

define MALIGNANT MELANOMA

A

malignant tumor of pigmented cells

98
Q

define ENDOTHELIOMA

A

endothelium

99
Q

define HEMANGIOMA

A

benign tumor of blood vessels

100
Q

what are names for malignant tumors of blood vessels

A
  • hemangioendothelioma
  • hemangiosarcoma
  • Kaposi sarcoma
101
Q

define LYMPHANGIOMA

A

benign tumor of lymph vessel

102
Q

what are names for malignant tumors of lymph vessels

A
  • lymphangiosarcoma
  • lymphangioendothelioma
103
Q

what are names for malignant bone marrow tumors

A
  • multiple myeloma
  • ewing sarcoma
  • leukmia
104
Q

what are names for malignant lymphoid tissue tumors

A
  • malignant lymphoma
  • lymphosarcoma
  • reticulum cell sarcoma
105
Q

define LEIOMYOMA

A

benign tumor of smooth muscle

106
Q

define LEIOMYOSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of smooth muscle

107
Q

define RHABDOMYOMA

A

benign tumor of striated muscle

108
Q

define RHABDOMYOSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of striated muscle

109
Q

define NEUROGENIC SARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of nerve sheaths

110
Q

what are the names of benign tumors of nerve fibers and sheaths

A
  • neuroma
  • neurinoma
  • neurilemmoma
111
Q

define NEUROFIBROMA

A

benign tumor of nerve fibers

112
Q

define NEUROFIBROSARCOMA

A

malignant tumor of nerve fibers

113
Q

define GANGLIONERUOMA

A

benign tumor of ganglion cells

114
Q

define NEUROBALSTOMA

A

malignant cancer of ganglion cells

115
Q

define GLIOMA

A

benign tumor of glial cells

116
Q

define GLIOBASTOMA

A

malignant tumor of glial cells

117
Q

define MENINGIOMA

A

benign tumor of meninges

118
Q

define MALIGNANT MENINGIOMA

A

malignant tumor of meninges

119
Q

define DERMOID CYST

A

benign tumor of gonads

120
Q

what are names for malignant tumors of gonads

A
  • embryonal carcinoma
  • embryonal sarcoma
  • teratocarcinoma
121
Q

list primary prevention guidelines for cancer

A
  • rich diet (limit red & processed meats)
  • no active/passive exposure to cigarette smoke
  • limit exposure to sunlight & alcohol
  • avoid excessive exposure to radiation & radon
  • avoid carcinogens
  • increase physical activity
  • maintain healthy weight
  • protect against STDs
122
Q

what is the death cancer statistic in US

A

1 out of every 4 deaths in US is cancer related

123
Q

what does early cancer detection include

A

physical exam, medical history, labs

124
Q

define CANCER STAGE

A

reflection of tumor size & extent of tumor spread

125
Q

majority of cancers use which system for staging

A

tumor-node-metastasis (TNM)

126
Q

TNM classifies based on what areas

A
  • size/extent of primary tumor
  • extent of regional lymph node involvement by tumor
  • number of distant metastases
127
Q

how many stages are described by the TNM system

128
Q

what is the most frequently reported survival period for cancer

129
Q

what does “overall 5 year survival” regarding cancer reflect?

A

all ppl regardless of stage w/cancer who are still alive or reflect 5-year survival rate for ppl in various stages of cancer

130
Q

what factors impact cancer prognosis

A
  • age
  • serum concentration of tumor markers
  • time between diagnosis & treatment
  • grade of tumor
131
Q

how is tumor grade developed

A

microscopic evaluation of degree of differentiation of tumor/biopsy specimen

132
Q

define WELL-DIFFERENTIATED LOW-GRADE tumors

A

cells retain features of cells derived from

133
Q

define POORLY DIFFERENTIATED HIGH-GRADE TUMORS

A

cells have abnormal appearance w/greater number of mitoses and associated w/poor survival

134
Q

define GLEASON GRADE

A

grading system for prostate cancer

135
Q

how does gleason’s grade work?

A

two predominant patterns for prostate cancer scored from 1 to 5 & scores summed to give gleason score from 2-10 correlating w/disease extent and prognosis

136
Q

what do tx options for cancer include

A
  • localized therapy (surgery & radiation)
  • systemic modalities (chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, immunotherapy)
  • neoadjuvant therapy
137
Q

what is the purpose of paliative surgery

A

relieve s/s of tumor like obstruction

138
Q

list classic side effects of chemotherapy

A

alopecia, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, bruising, infertility

139
Q

give examples of hormone dependent cancers

A

breast and prostate

140
Q

purpose of immunotherapy?

A

stimulate body’s own immune system to fight cancer

141
Q

what does immunotherapy include

A

cancer vaccines & infusion of cellular products (T cells, NK cells, monoclonal antibodies)

142
Q

what are 3 ways monoclonal antibodies can have an anti-cancer effect

A
  • trigger immune response
  • give lethal dose of radiation
  • release deadly chemical inside cell
143
Q

list monoclonal antibodies approved by FDA

A
  • trastuzumab (Herceptin)
  • rituximab (Rituxan)
  • almentuzumab (Campath)
  • iplimumab (Yervoy)
144
Q

what are the types of immune disorders

A

hypersensitivity, autoimmune, & immunodeficiency

145
Q

define AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE

A

inappropriate/excessive response of immune becoming self-destructive

146
Q

define IMMUNODEFICIENCY DISORDER

A

depressed/absent immune response caused by primary/secondary factors

147
Q

what is the major cause of death & young adults

A

physical trauma

148
Q

define IMMUNOSENESCENCE

A

gradual deterioration of functions of immune system

149
Q

what should be screened regularly in annual physicals for aging adults

A
  • blood cholesterol
  • rectal exam
  • EKG
  • PSA serum blood test
  • BP check
  • pap smear
  • mammogram
  • urinalysis
150
Q

list common concerns of the aging population

A
  • substance abuse
  • overmedication
  • loss of mental acuity
  • depression
  • nutritional problems
151
Q

define MENTAL DISORDER

A

clinically significant behavioral/psychological syndromes associated w/psychic pain/distress/function impairement

152
Q

list words used to describe pain

A

dull, aching, burning, cramping, throbbing, shooting, stabbing, stinging, frightening, sickening, tiring, discomforting, intense, unbearable, mild, excruciating, vicious

153
Q

the words “dull and aching” generally describe pain from what

A

overuse of musculoskeletal system

154
Q

“burning” pain along a nerve route is an indication of what

A

peripheral nerve insult

155
Q

what ist he word “cramping” used to describe

A

abdominal/visceral pain

156
Q

what does “throbbing” describe

A

head pin/pain felt along blood vessel

157
Q

describe the stages on the numerical pain scale

A
  • 1-3: mild
  • 4-5: moderate
  • 6-10: severe/bad as can be imagined
158
Q

pain receptors respond to which 3 stimuli

A
  • temperature extremes
  • mechanical damage
  • dissolved chemicals
159
Q

what chemicals do pain receptors respond to

A
  • potassium
  • acids
  • histamines
  • acetylcholine
  • bradykinin
  • prostaglandins
160
Q

what is the most widely used analgesic in the world

161
Q

what is the single greatest avoidable cause of disease and death

A

smoking tobacco & exposure to secondhand smoke

162
Q

how much exercise should adults do a week

A
  • 150 min (2.5 hrs)/week of moderate activity
  • 75 min (1.25 hrs)/week of vigorous activity
163
Q

vaccines for adults include

A
  • Tdap
  • flu
  • pneumococcal
  • hep A & B
  • MMR
  • varicella
  • HPV
  • Gardasil
  • Shingrix
  • vaccines for travel/special recommendations
164
Q

who should get the pneumococcal vaccine

A

adults 65 yrs and older

165
Q

how often should ppl get the tetanus-diphtheria vaccine

A

every 10 years

166
Q

how many doses is hep B vaccine versus the hep A vaccine

A

hep B: 3 doses
hep A: 2 doses

167
Q

who should get the meningococcal vaccine

A

college freshmen living in dorms

168
Q

who should get the HPV vaccine

A

all unvaccinated men and women up until 26 yrs

169
Q

who should get the Gardasil vaccine

170
Q

who should get the shingrix vaccine

A

adults 60 and older unless contraindicated

171
Q

who should get the Tdap vaccine

A

adults 19-64 yrs & certain adults >65 yrs

172
Q

define OSTEOPATHY

A

emphasis of body’s natural processes for healing by realigning body structure

173
Q

what is the most widely accepted alternative medicine

A

osteopathy

174
Q

define REFLEXOLOGY

A

massage gen feet & hands causing therapeutic effect on organ/system represented in certain zone

175
Q

give examples of alternative medicine

A
  • osteopathy
  • reflexology
  • aromatherapy
  • herbs
  • acupuncture & acupressure
  • shiatsu
  • magnetic
  • hypnosis
  • rolfing
  • tai chi
  • ayurveda
  • iridology
  • polarity
176
Q

define ACUPUNCTURE

A

use needles to adjust body’s energy

177
Q

define SHIATSU

A

japanese therapy putting pressure to acupoints

178
Q

define REIKI

A

transfer of healing energy to pt

HOSA-PATHO (13 decks)

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