Nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 low complement nephritic syndromes?

A
SBE
SLE
serum sickeness
cryoglobulinemia
PSGN
MPGN II
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the hormones with disulfide bonds?

A
PIGI
prolactin
inhibin
GH
insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do you see psammoma bodies in?

A

meningioma
mesothelioma
papillary carcinoma of thyroid
serous cystadenoma of ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A
J: joints
O: carditis
N: subcutaneous nodules
E: erythema marginatum
S: sydenham chorea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the IgA nephropathies?

A

HSP (Henoch Schlonein Purpura)
Berger’s
Alport’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes renal induced acidosis?

A

plasma RTA
metabolic acidosis
glutaminase
ammonia production in CD (10% of urea cycle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What hormones are produced by small cell lung carcinoma?

A
ACTH
ADH
PTH
TSH
ANP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 causes of SIADH?

A

small cell carcinoma
increased intracranial pressure
drugs
hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the low volume states with acidosis?

A

diarrhea and RTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the types of kidney stones?

A

calcium oxalate
struvite
uric acid
cysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the clues for pseudogout?

A

positively birefringent rhomboid crystals
calcium pyrophosphate
elderly pts
men=women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the bladder cancer risk factors?

A
smoking
aniline dyes
aflatoxine
benzenes
cyclophosphamide
Von Hippel Lindau
Tuberos Sclerosis
Schistosoma haematobium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the causes of papillary necrosis?

A

AIDS and vasculitides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 narrowings of ureter?

A

pelvic brim
hilum
entrance to the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is nephritic syndrome?

A

hematuria

protein loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome?

A
protein loss >3.5 g/dL
edema
hyperlipidemia (VLDL)
hypercoagulable (2,7,9,10,C,S)
dec serum albumin
inc urine albumin
loss of basement membrane charge due to deposition on heparin sulfate leading to massive proteinuria and lipiduria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the most common causes of UTIs?

A
#1 E. coli
#2 Proteus
#3 Klebsiella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most frequent cause of UTI in females 5-10yrs and 18-24 yrs?

A

staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pre-renal failure?

A
low vol state
BUN:Cr>20:1
low flow to kidneys
lao Na in urin
low FeNa
concentrated urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is intra-renal failure?

A

BUN:Cr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the vasculitic pattern for renal artery stenosis?

A

clot in front of renal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is glomerulonephritis?

A

inflamed glomeruli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is vasculitic pattern for interstitial nephritis?

A

clot off the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the vasculitic pattern for focal segmental glomerulonephritiis?

A

clot off part of nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do yo see in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

crescents

composed of glomeruler parietal cells, monocytes, macrophage and abundant fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the MC nephritic disease in adults?

A

membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MC renal disease in blacks/Hispanics?

A

FSGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the MC renal disease in HIV/IV drug users?

A

FSGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the MC renal mass?

A

cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the MC malignant renal tumor in adults?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the MC malignant renal tumor in kids?

A

Wilm’s tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What nephrotic syndrome can progress to RPGN?

A

Goodpastures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the MC nephrotic syndrome in kids?

A

miminal change disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is seen in Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis?

A
metabolic acidosis
distal collecting duct H/K exchange defect
hypokalemia
high urine pH
frequent UTIs
stones
35
Q

What is seen in Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis?

A

no carbonic anhydrase in PCT

hgh urine pH early but low late (b/c use up bicarb)

36
Q

Which part of nephron concentrates urine?

A

medulla

37
Q

What is Goldblatt’s kidney?

A

contralateral flea-bitten kidney

38
Q

What is uremia?

A

azotemia + symptoms

39
Q

What is azotemia?

A

renal failure (inc BUN/Cr)

40
Q

What is seen in post strep glomerulonephritis?

A

subepithelial humps
IgG/C3/C4 deposition
ASO Ab

41
Q

What is seen in interstitial nephritis?

A

urine eosinophils (drugs), toxins

42
Q

what is seen in lupus nephritis?

A

glomerular destruction
subeptihelial immune complex deposition
anti-ds-DNA

43
Q

What is seen in membranoglomerulonephritis?

A

deposition

44
Q

What is membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?

A

tram tracking (type II has low C3)

45
Q

What is seen in minimal change disease?

A

fused foot processes
no renal failure
loss of charge barrier

46
Q

What is the most common cause of kidney stones?

A

dehydration

47
Q

what type of kidney stones have coffin-lid crystals?

A

triple phosphate

48
Q

What type of kidney stones have rosette crystals?

A

uric acid

49
Q

What type of kidney stones have hexagonal crystals?

A

cysteine

50
Q

What type of kidney stones envelop or dumbbell-shaped crystals?

A

calcium oxalate

51
Q

what disease has aniridia?

A

Wilm’s tumor

52
Q

What is phimosis?

A

foreskin scarred to head of penis

53
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

foreskin retracted and scarred to base of penis

risk of strangulation

54
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

overactive detrusor muscle

small bladder volume

55
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

weak UG diaphragm muscles

estrogen connection

56
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

cannot fully empty

57
Q

What structures have a one way valves?

A

urethra and ejaculatory duct

58
Q

What has WBC casts?

A

nephritis

59
Q

What has WBC casts only?

A

pylonephritis

60
Q

What has WBC cast + eosinophils?

A

interstitial nephritis (allergies)

61
Q

What has WBC casts + RBC casts?

A

glomerulonephritis

62
Q

What has fat casts?

A

nephrotic syndrome

63
Q

What has waxy casts?

A

chronic renal disease

64
Q

What has tubular casts?

A

RTA

65
Q

What has hyaline casts?

A

normal

66
Q

What has epithelial cells?

A

normal

67
Q

What has crescents?

A

RPGN

68
Q

How do you measure afferent renal function?

A

creatinine or inulin

69
Q

How do you measure efferent renal function?

A

BUN or PAH

70
Q

How do you test afferent renal function?

A

GFR or inulin

71
Q

How do you test efferent renal function?

A

RPF or PAH

72
Q

What is post-renal failure?

A

obstruction

73
Q

What is the job of proximal convoluted tubule?

A

reabsorb 60-80% of everything filtered

74
Q

What is the job of the thick descending limb?

A

reabsorb water

75
Q

What is the job of the thick ascending limb?

A

make concentration gradient by reabsorbing solutes (Na, Cl, K, Mg, Ca) without water

76
Q

What is the job of the early distal tubule?

A

concentrate urine by reabsorbing NaCl(hypotonic)

77
Q

What is the job of the late distal tubule and collecting duct?

A

concentrate urine by reabsorbing water
excretion of uric acid
make new bicarb

78
Q

What does macula densa do?

A

measures osmolarity in beginning of DCT

79
Q

What does JG apparatus do?

A

measure volume

80
Q

What is Fanconi’s syndrome?

A

old tetracycline use destroys PCT

phosphates, glucose, and amino acids in urine

81
Q

What is Bartter’s syndrome?

A

baby with defective triple transporter
dec Na, Cl, and K
normal Bp

82
Q

What is psychogenic polydipsia?

A

dilute urine due to excess water intake

83
Q

What is central pontine myelinosis?

A

due to correcting Na faster than 0.5 mEg/hr