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National Registry Flashcards

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1
Q

Where is McBurney’s Point

what does it indicate

A

between the right superior iliac crest and the umbilicus

appendicitis

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2
Q

What are signs of Renal failure and why

A

decreased urinary output, weight gain, SOB, nausea, fatigue.

Due to fluid overload and inability to diurese.

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3
Q

Cushings

and

Addisons

A

Cushing is too much adrenal corticoids

Addison’s is too little adrenal corticoids 

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4
Q

What is causing type one diabetes

A

Not enough insulin is being produced due to the beta cell destruction isle of lagerhans

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5
Q

What is causing type two diabetes

A

The insulin production is fine but cells cannot break down insulin properly.

It develops over days to weeks they have Chronic thirst, and increase urination. 

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6
Q

When is in the right lower quadrant?

A

Appendix 

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7
Q

Define visceral pain

A

Organ pain generally diffuse hard to localize 

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8
Q

Define somatic pain

A

Sharper, stabbing pain, localizes easily

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9
Q

Where do upper G.I. bleeds occur? What is the most common cause? 

A

Above the ligament of traits, most common cause is peptic ulcers 

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of lower G.I. bleeds?

A

Diverticulitis 

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11
Q

What is the Parkland formula?

A

4 mL x % bsa x kilograms

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12
Q

What are the six p’s of crush injury?

A

Pain, pal, paresthesia, pulselessness, paralysis, and  poikilothermia

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13
Q

What happens during neurogenic shock?

A

Massive vasodilation due to loss of sympathetic tone 

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14
Q

What happens in an epidural bleed? What are the signs? 

A

They are arterial in nature, most commonly the middle meningeal artery.

They lose consciousness after injury, become conscious again, lucid, and then lose consciousness.

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15
Q

What happens during a subdural bleed and what are the signs?

A

Venus bleed develops over days two weeks

patients have a severe headache, alcoholic and geriatric patients are prone



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16
Q

Would you suspect if the patient becomes altered and blows a pupil?

A

Brain herniation

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17
Q

What are the signs of a hemothorax patient?

A

Hypotensive no JVD 
Hypo  resonance
Will develop into hypovolemic shock 

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18
Q

What are the signs of a pneumothorax patient?

A

JVD hyper resonance on percussion 

Pneumothorax with develop into obstructive or cardiogenic shock 

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19
Q

What is becks triad?

A

Muffled heart tones, hypotension JVD

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20
Q

How much fluid is in the pericardial sac normally

A

25 mL between the visceral and parietal lining 

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21
Q

Define flail chest

A

Fracture of three or more ribs in two or more places 

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22
Q

What are the signs of diaphragmatic rupture?

A

Sudden compression of abdomen may hear bowel sounds 

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23
Q

How do you treat evisceration

A

Cover with moist sterile dressing, and then with a dry sterile dressing to preserve temperature of organs

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24
Q

Name two solid organs

A

Liver and spleen

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25
Q

Name two hollow organs

A

Stomach : intestines

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26
Q

How much blood loss is in the femur pelvis and tib fib

A

Femur 1000 mL
Pelvis is 2000 mL
Fib is 550 mL

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27
Q

How do you tell the difference between hip fracture and hip dislocation?

A

Hip fracture, external rotation

Hip dislocation, internal rotation

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28
Q

How long is a start triage assessment?

A

60 seconds

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29
Q

What is phosgene smell like?

A

Fresh cut grass

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30
Q

What is NFPA 704

A

It’s the system that identifies hazardous materials 

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31
Q

What’s the difference between level a level B and level C and level D

A

Level a is the highest protection SBA, full encapsulating suit

level B is the highest level of respiratory protection

level C is used during transport of contaminated patients like a facemask

level. D is your work uniform

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32
Q

What type of infection is croup?

A

Viral infection from six months to four years they have a fever

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33
Q

What type of infection is epiglottitis?

A

Bacterial infection

they have a fever, difficulty swallowing, and drooling

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34
Q

When is asthma, diagnosed and what is it called before that

A

It’s diagnosed after when your age, but before then it’s considered bronchiolitis 

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35
Q

What is croup also known as

A

Lorengo tracheal bronchitis

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36
Q

What type of injury do kids often have as a result of abdominal trauma?

A

Spleen

Adults usually have liver

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37
Q

What type of blade do you use for ped? And what does it do?

A

Miller Blade

epiglottis should be lifted directly up

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38
Q

What’s the formula for determining tube size for ped

A

Age and years +16÷4

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39
Q

When do you suction a newborn?

A

Only suction if the child is severely meconium, stained, and having respiratory distress

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40
Q

What is the neonatal CPR ratio

A

3:1

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41
Q

Define gravita and para

A

Gravity is the number times pregnant, including current pregnancy

Para is the number of live births

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42
Q

placenta, previa signs

A

Third trimester, painless, bright, red blood

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43
Q

Abrupt placenta signs

A

Third trimester, painful dark red blood

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44
Q

What are the three stages of labor?

A

Stage one contractions to full cervical dilation 10 cm

Stage two full dilation to delivery of newborn

Stage three delivery of newborn to delivery of placenta 

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45
Q

What do you do for prolapsed cord?

A

If pulsating, rapid, moist dressing and transport,

if no pulse, insert gloved hand, keep in position

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46
Q

Define endocarditis

A

Infection of the endocardium inner layer of the heart from bacterial infection

Sudden, gradual, chills, successive, sweating, fever, shortness of breath, joint muscle pain weakness

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47
Q

Define pericarditis

A

Inflammation of the pericardium, fiber sac around the heart, viral infection,

chest pain, difficulty breathing worse when laying down better lane forward 

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48
Q

How do you tell the difference between left bundle, branch block, and right bundle branch block?

A

Wide, QRS and V1

Downward left bundle branch

Upward right bundle branch 

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49
Q

What is Wolf Parkinson’s white?

A

Conduction that occurs from the atria to ventricles through accessory pathways

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50
Q

How do you find digitalis toxicity in a 12 lead

A

Look for the dig sag it occurs from too much of the medication

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51
Q

What’s the medicine you give to alcoholic who hypoglycemic?

A

100 mg of thiamine prior to glucose 

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52
Q

What are the signs of black widow bite?

A

Females are venomous bite as painless one hour muscle spasm and cramps

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53
Q

Brown recluse, bite define by what

A

Wanted to two hours of pain after bite bite is surrounded by a ischemic ring

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54
Q

What do you do for snake?

A

Immobilized extremity in neutral position

do not use tourniquet or ice packs 

55
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden, cardiac death?

A

Acute coronary syndrome, AMI, and unstable angina

56
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?

A

Stable is usually predictable caused by exertion

Unstable may occur during exertion or rest, and last longer 

57
Q

What is the difference between a transmural MI and sub endocardial MI

A

Transmural is full thickness of myocardium infarcted, and will leave pathological Q waves greater than .004 seconds

Sub endocardial is a partial thickness of the myocardium infarcted may or may not produce pathological Q waves 

58
Q

What are the zones of infarct

A

Inner ring infarct

Middle ring injury

Outside ring ischemia

59
Q

What’s the primary cause of MI?

A

Left sided heart failure

60
Q

What are the signs of left sided heart fail?

A

Fluid in the lungs, pink frothy, sputum plate, sign, anxiety, tachycardia, Disney crackles rails

61
Q

What causes less sided heart failure?

A

Blood backing up from the left ventricle to the left atrium to the lungs, and then to the right side of the heart

62
Q

What are the signs of right sided heart failure?

A

Difficulty breathing with clear lung sounds, pedal, edema, sacral, edema, abdominal edema JVD

63
Q

What causes right sided heart failure?

A

Blood is backing up from the right ventricle to the right atrium to the vena cava into the body 

64
Q

For chronic hypertension, what drug should you not use?

A

Nitro

65
Q

What blood pressure is defined as a hypertensive crisis

A

180/120

66
Q

Define cardiac tamponade

A

Blunt chest trauma

Becks Triad muffled heart tones, hypotension DVD

67
Q

What is the classic sign of aortic aneurysm?

A

Tearing pain, but also unequal blood pressure readings from left to right unequal, pulse, strengths, severe chest or back pain 

68
Q

Signs of arterial occlusion

A

Pale skin distal to the clot, cool skin distal to the clot,

immobilize extremity and transport

69
Q

Define pharmacodynamics

A

How drugs work on the body

70
Q

Define Pharma kinetics

A

How drugs move through the body

71
Q

What are parenteral routes?

A

Io im sq

72
Q

Meds given my mouth must go through what

A

First pass metabolism by the liver it decreases the med and slows down the process

73
Q

What is the difference between partial generalized tonic colonic, tonic, and colonic seizures?

A

Partials, one side, one side of the brain is affect

Generalized. entire brain, patient will lose consciousness

Tonic colonic, also known as grandma, they’re unconscious and major motor activity

Tonic, the body is rigid

Colonic body jerks violently 

74
Q

What are the two types of stroke?

A

Hemorrhagic from a bleed

Ischemic from a blockage or clot

75
Q

Define TIA

A

Stroke the last 5 to 10 minutes last no longer than 24 hours

76
Q

What is Warnicke syndrome?

A

Patient develops, sudden, ataxia, nystagmus, speech, disturbances, signs of neuropathy, stupor, and coma

77
Q

What is Korsakoff psychosis?

A

Mental disorder found with Warnke in psychopathy

apathy, poor memory, retrograde amnesia, confabulation, storytelling and dementia

78
Q

Name a depolarizing medication, and nondepolarizing medication

A

Depolarizing is succsinycholine

Nondepolarizing is vecuronium and rocuronium

79
Q

How do use a Miller blade? How do you say McIntosh blade?

A

Sweet tongue to the left

Miller blade lift epiglottis

Mac blade goes into the vallecula

80
Q

Define cystic fibrosis

A

Disease, it appears in childhood excess production of mucus

81
Q

What’s the treatment for pulmonary embolism?

A

Oxygen consider, CPAP, rapid transport

82
Q

Signs of pneumonia

A

Fever diminished, lung sounds, or crackles in the affected. Lung usually found one lung, but can be both.

83
Q

Signs of pulmonary edema and treatment

A

Build up a fluid in the lungs CHF left sided heart failure, crackles, rails, oxygen consider CPAP 

84
Q

The difference between chronic bronchitis and emphysema

A

Chronic bronchitis has excessive mucus production

Emphysema has destruction of Avola walls

85
Q

What do you do with dentures?

A

Leave place, unless they become dislodged then remove immediately

86
Q

How long do you suction for adults and pediatrics and infants?

A

Adults no longer than 15 seconds
Pediatrics no longer than 10 seconds
Infants no longer than five seconds

Pre-oxygenate first if possible

87
Q

What is the proper amount of suction pressure?

A

30 L per minute at a pressure of 300 MMHG

88
Q

What’s the proper way to insert OPA?

A

Tip pointing up to the roof of the mouth and turn 180° 

89
Q

What is the greatest risk associated with RSI?

A

Aspiration

90
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for pediatric and for an infant

A

Pediatric is 15 to 30 breaths for a minute

And infant is 25 to 50

91
Q

A nasal cannula is how many liters, and what concentration

A

Nasal cannula is one to 6 L 24 to 44% concentration

92
Q

How many liters do you set a CPAP to

A

15 to 25 L per minute 5 to 10 CM H2O pressure

93
Q

Nonrebreather is how many liters, and what concentration

A

12 to 15 L 80 to 100% concentration 

94
Q

Nebulizer is how many liters

A

6-8 L per minute

95
Q

What blood pressure does the person need to use CPAP

A

Above 90 systolic and alert oriented

96
Q

What is the pneumonic to remember for CPAP?

A

FNCPAP

Flail, segment, near, drowning, COPD, CHF, pulmonary edema, asthma, pulmonary embolism, pulmonary edema

97
Q

What is Kuszmaulls sound like?

A

Rapid and deep

98
Q

What does chane Stokes look like?

A

Increasing title, volume then apnea

99
Q

ATaxic and biots

A

Gasping and periods of apnea

100
Q

Apneustic sounds like

A

Long, deep breaths, separated by periods of apnea

101
Q

Wheezing is a sign of

A

Bronchial constriction, lower airway

COPD pneumonia asthma

102
Q

Crackles and rails is a sign of

A

Fluid buildup lower airway

CHF pneumonia, pulmonary edema

103
Q

Rhochi is a sign of

A

In the bronchi lower airway issue

COPD, chronic bronchitis cystic fibrosis 

104
Q

Inspiration causes the diaphragm to

A

Contract to move downward

105
Q

When you breathe air rushes in why

A

Due to the decrease, inter, thoracic pressure

106
Q

Expiration causes the diaphragm to

A

The diaphragm moves up

107
Q

What is the stimulus for normal breathing?

A

High CO2 carbon dioxide

108
Q

Define hypercapnia

A

Increase levels of carbon dioxide >45 MMHG

109
Q

Define diffusion

A

Process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration,

oxygen, and carbon dioxide

110
Q

What do chemo receptors monitor?

A

Carbon dioxide levels

111
Q

How much is normal title volume

A

500 mL

112
Q

How much is normal atomic dead space

A

150 mL

113
Q

How long do you hold EpiPen in place?

A

10 seconds 

114
Q

What happens during anaphylaxis?

A

Histamines are release which causes vasodilation and bronchial construction

Low BP because the vessels are dilated 

115
Q

What are the five classes of antidysrhythmic?

A

Class one sodium channel blocker Cynamide class one a lidocaine class 1B

class two beta blockers metoprolol

class three potassium channel blockers amiodarone

class four calcium channel blocker duties

class five unnamed class adenosine

116
Q

What’s the neurotransmitter for parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

117
Q

What’s the receptors for the parasympathetic

A

Nicotinic found in skeletal muscles

Muscatini. Sludgem

118
Q

What’s the neurotransmitter for the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine catecholamine

Nor epinephrine catecholamine

119
Q

What’s the receptor for the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Adrenergic

Alpha, one alpha, two beta one, beta two

120
Q

Central nervous system is made up of

A

Brain and spinal cord

121
Q

Peripheral nervous system is made out of

A

Somatic nervous system controls voluntary muscles

Autonomic nervous system controls and voluntary responses

122
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain and where are they for?

A

Frontal lobe is for a speech smell and conscious thought

Parietal is for primary senses, body awareness, taste language

Temporals for reading, and hearing

Occipital is for vision

123
Q

What are the intrinsic rates of the heart?

A

Sa 60 to 100
AV, 40 to 60
Purkinji, 20 to 40

124
Q

What are the three planes of the body?

A

Coronal front back transverse top and bottom sagittal left and right

125
Q

What are the different color tube tops used for at the hospital

A

Gray could used to be tested alcohol blood levels

Green is used for premature coagulation of blood with heparin Test, electrolytes glucose and cardiac enzymes

Lavender used for blood counts

Light blue and sodium citrate used to test pro thrombin time

126
Q

What’s the Hartford consensus?

A

It’s the recommendations for mass shooting

Threat suppression hemorrhage, control, rapid extraction to safety assessment transport 

127
Q

How do you tell axis deviation?

A

Normal access were result and positive. QRS is in both lead one in AVF.

If there’s a negative and lead one in a positive AVF, this is right access deviation

If there’s a positive and lead one a negative and AVF, this indicates Lex left access deviation

Negative QRS in both leads indicates extreme access deviation

128
Q

If you lose your gag reflex, it affects which nerve

A

Cranial nerve vagus nerve 10

129
Q

What is the lethal triad of death?

A

Acidosis hypothermia coagulopathy

130
Q

What is considered a critical burn?

A

Partial thickness burn of greater than 30%

Critical burn is burns involving hands, feet face or genitals

Circumference burns of torso, arms and legs greater than 10% of the body

Any thickness burn or airway or respiratory involved?

Patients age less than five or over 55 with a moderated burn

And other trauma, such as fractures involved

131
Q

What are the four classes of blood loss?

A

Class one less than 15%

Class 2. 15 to 30%

Class three 30 to 40%

Class five over 40% blood loss

132
Q

What are external factors that affect gas exchange respiration?

A

Carbon monoxide and high altitude

133
Q

What are internal factors that affect respiration?

A

COPD and pulmonary edema

Paramedic (24 decks)

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