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Paramedic > 118 Mod 2 (Pharmacology, Med Admin) > Flashcards

118 Mod 2 (Pharmacology, Med Admin) Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Pharmacology

A

How substances interact with or alter
the function of living organisms.

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2
Q

What is “off label” use?

A

Use of a drug for a purpose not approved by the FDA (dose and route)

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3
Q

What must a drug label have?

A

manufacturing lot
number and expiration dat

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4
Q

Define Semisynthetic

A

Came from plant, animal or mineral sources

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5
Q

What are the 3 Names of a Medication

A

Chemical

Generic (nonproprietary)

Brand (proprietary)

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6
Q

What Medical Reference Source do Paramedics mostly use

A

The Maryland Medical Protocols

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7
Q

Whats the difference between Pharmacodynamics v Pharmacokinetics

A

codynamics - what the drug does to the body
(mechanism of action)

cokinetics - what the body does to the drug (how does it absorb) (biotransformation:metabolism)

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8
Q

Define Endogenous (chemicals)

A

In Body

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9
Q

Define Exogenous (medications)

A

Outside of body

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10
Q

What 4 things may occur (to cells) when a med binds with a receptor cite

A
  1. Channels may open or close
  2. Biochem messenger becomes activated
  3. Normal cell function is prevented
  4. Normal or abnorm cell function begins
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11
Q

Define Agonist and Antagonist

A

Agonist - meds initiate or alter cell activity,

have both affinities for the receptor as well as efficacy

Antagonist - Meds prevent agonist chems from reaching cell receptor sites (blocks response)

have only affinity for the receptors and zero efficacy

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12
Q

Where do Alpha, Beta 1, and Beta 2 meds target

A

Alpha - Constricting blood vessels

B1 - Heart

B2 - Lungs

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13
Q

Define Dose Response Curve

A

Is the graph of the relationship between the dose of a drug versus the effects that the drug has

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14
Q

Define Affinity

A

How much the drug likes the receptor site

(Ability to bind a particular
receptor site)

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15
Q

Define Threshold level

A

Dose at which wished for
change of cellular activity
begin

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16
Q

Define Therapeutic Range

A

Whats in-between effective range of dose

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17
Q

Define Efficacy

A

The ability to produce desired result

How fast does it take to work

(Ability to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic manner)

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18
Q

Define Full Agonist v Partial Agonist

A

Full - Binds to a receptor site and initiates all activity

Partial - A chemical that binds to the receptor site but does not initiate as much cellular activity or change as other agonists do.

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19
Q

Define Schedule 1 med

A

High abuse, no medicinal purpose

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20
Q

Define Schedule II meds

A

May be used by paramedics, must be locked (2-5)

High abuse, legitimate medical use

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21
Q

What are the 4 processes of med admin

A
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Bio transformation
  4. Elimination
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22
Q

What two parts make up the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Sympathetic (NorEpi)

Parasympathetic (ACh)

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23
Q

Name 7 things that happen in the Parasympathetic system

A
  1. Miosis - pupils constrict
  2. Stimulated Saliva
  3. Decreased HR
  4. Bronchoconstriction
  5. Peristalsis (stomach secretion)
  6. Bile Release
  7. Bladder contraction
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24
Q

Name 7 things that happen in the Sympathetic system

A
  1. Mydriasis - pupils dilate
  2. reduced saliva
  3. increased hr
  4. vasoconstriction
  5. reduced stomach secretion
  6. glycogen converts to glucose
  7. inhibition of bladder contraction (opposite)
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25
Q

Organophosphate poisoning causes?

A

Salivation,
Lacrimation (flow of tears),
Urination,
Diarrhea (Defecation),
GI pain,
Emesis (vomiting),
Miosis - pupil constriction

SLUDGEM

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26
Q

Name the parts of the nervous system

A

central - brain and spinal cord

peripheral - somatic and autonomic

autonomic then controls the
sympathetic & parasympathetic

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27
Q

Where are your Adrenergic Receptors

(and Alpha Beta receptors)

A

Sympathetic Nervous system -
Adrenaline and noradrenaline

Alpha and beta receptors

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28
Q

What system would you find your Cholinergic Receptors

(nicotinic and muscarinic receptors)

A

Parasympathetic nervous system -
Acetylcholine

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29
Q

Name 6 positive inotropic drugs (increase myocardial contractility)

A

Glucagon
Insulin
Amiodarone
Dopamine
Epi
Digoxin

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30
Q

Name negative inotropic drugs (decrease myocardial contractility)

A

Beta Blockers
Calcium channel blockers
Class IA and IC (antiarrhythmics)

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31
Q

Define Inotropic

A

Contract heart (heart walls contract)

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32
Q

Define Chronotropic

A

heart rate (of SA node impulses)

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33
Q

Dromotropic

A

conduction speed of the heart

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34
Q

Lusitropic

A

relax heart

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35
Q

Define Agonist

A

Penetrates receptor site, makes it work

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36
Q

Define Antagonist

A

Blocks any action from happening in receptor site

(two types non competitive and competitive)

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37
Q

Define Non-Competitive Antagonist

A

There is no competition

Unstoppable action

(opposite is competitive antagonist)

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38
Q

Define Beta 2

A

Beta 2 - agonists, bronchodilator drugs

Vasodilation

albuterol - brochodilate and relax (dilate) the airways

Relaxes peripheral resistance
Relaxes Uterine smooth muscle
Glucagon release
Glycogenolysis (muscle, liver)

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39
Q

What system are Adrenergic Receptors part of

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

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40
Q

Define Alpha 1

A

Vasoconstriction

Raise bp
Mydriasis
increase peripheral reistance (blood flow)
Closure bladder

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41
Q

Define Beta 1

A

Heart rate goes up

Lipolysis goes up

Myocardial contractility goes up

Renin goes up

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42
Q

Name the 4 Adrenergic Receptors

A

Alpha 1 - vasoconstrict
Alpha 2 - inhibits

Beta 1 - heart rate up
Beta 2 - vasodilates

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43
Q

What is the main Nero-transmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system?

name 4 actions when stimulated

A

Acetylcholine

decrease hr
increased salivation
dilation of blood vessels
smooth muscle contraction

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44
Q

Mechanism of action, when a medicine is administered is also known as?

Pharmaco________

A

Pharmacodynamics

What the drug does to the body

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45
Q

What are the 4 processes of pharmacodynamics?

A
  1. absorption
  2. distribution
  3. metabolism - biotransformation
  4. elimination
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46
Q

What 2 (failing) body functions causes poor
pharmacodynamics?

A

kidney issues
liver failure

extends the process

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47
Q

What two types of medications bind with receptor sites

A

agonist - initiates or alters the cellular activity

antagonist - prevents chemicals from reaching cell receptors

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48
Q

What is the difference between a generic name and a brand name?

A

generic is by the manufacturer

the brand is created for marketing

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49
Q

Differences between affinity and efficacy?

A

affinity - is the ability (strength) of a chemical to bind to the receptor site

efficacy - ability of drug-bound receptor to produce a response.

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50
Q

You see a minor improvement from a Neb treatment what is this considered

A

Threshold level - the dose at which cellular activity begins

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51
Q

Define Medication Tolerance?

A

A decrease in efficacy when a drug is taken repeatedly

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52
Q

As soon as a medication is administered the body begins?

A

Removing it

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53
Q

Duration and Effectiveness of a drug is determined by?

A

Dose
Route
and Clinical Status of Patient

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54
Q

What is the chief neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Nor Epinepherine

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55
Q

Most biotransformation occurs where?

A

The Liver

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56
Q

What type of med would you give to
asthma patient - has sob, bronchoconstriction, mucus, and bronchospasm.

A

Bronchodilator

BETA 2 Agonist (anticholinergic)

Ex. Atrovent 500mcg, Albuterol 2.5mg

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57
Q

The patient is having muscarinic and nicotonic overactivation due to organophosphate poisoning (SLUDGEM) What do you give?

A

Anticholinergic

Atropine - blocks muscle response to ACH acetylcholine (drying them out)

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58
Q

Dr wants to prescribe metoprolol for hypertension, what type of med is this?

A

Beta Blocker - LOL

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59
Q

What type of cardiac med has a negative dromotropic effect and what class is it?

A

calcium channel blocker

Diltiazem, Verapamil and PINES (ex. Amlodipine) usually bp related

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of EPI?

A

vaso constriction

stimulating beta 1 and beta 2 and alpha agonist

used for asthma and cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis

if a respiratory arrest is coming give epi first

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61
Q

Name some Diuretics and Ace Inhibitors

A

Lasix - diuretic

Lisinopril, Captopril PRIL - Ace inhibitors

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62
Q

What is a good way to remember calcium channel blockers

A

C - contractility

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63
Q

What kind of Medication is Narcan?

A

opioid - antagonist

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64
Q

What type of drug is Atrovent

A

Ipratropium bromide

Parasympatholytic
Antagonizes (blocks) muscarinic receptors

Anticholinergic bronchodilator

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65
Q

What type of drug is Albuterol

A

Beta 2 agonist

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66
Q

What type of drug is Terbutaline

A

Selective Beta 2 agonist

for bronchial asthma

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67
Q

What type of drug is Dexamethasone

A

Corticosteroid

for anaphylaxis, asthma, COPD

decreases airway inflammation

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68
Q

What’s the generic name of Lasix

A

Furosemide

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69
Q

What type of drug is MetroproLOL

A

Beta-blocker

selectively antagonizes B-1

for A-flutter, A-Fib, HTN, PSVT

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70
Q

Diltiazem is what type of drug

A

Calcium channel blocker

also known as (Cardizem)
slows HR

negative dromatropic medication

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71
Q

Ace-Inhibitors prevent what action?

A

Blocks the action of converting angiotensinogen 1 to angiotensinogen II

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme - ACE

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72
Q

What are some common Ace-Inhibitors

A

Captopril, Lisinopril, PRIL

Cardiovascular Medication

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73
Q

What type of drug is Atropine

A

Anticholinergic - blocks muscarinic responses

Parasympathetic antagonist - for bradycardia, and excess mucous and fluid

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

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74
Q

What is a sympathomimetic?

A

It’s a synthetic chemical that mimics acetylcholine

ex. Epi (imitates what the body does)

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75
Q

What are the master neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline) - stim A, B1, B2

and

Norepinephrine (Levophed) - stim A, B1

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76
Q

What does Nitroglycerin do?

A

Dilates veins and coronary arteries, relief of CP and decrease in BP

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77
Q

What do you use Lasix for

A

Diuretic for CHF, Pulmonary Edema

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78
Q

What effect does Aspirin have

A

It is an anti-platelet

prevents platelets from clumping together and forming emboli

for CP, fever, headache, Acute myocardial infarction

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79
Q

What effect does Plavix (clopidogrel) have

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

for coronary syndrome, CP

substitute for aspirin if unable to take aspirin

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80
Q

What is the dosage amount for Narcan?

A

2mg IN, equally between nares to a max of 1mL per nare. Repeat as necessary to maintain respiratory activity

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81
Q

Define Isotonic Solution
Hypertonic, Hypotonic

A

Isotonic - is neutral solution

Hypertonic - alot of electrolytes within that solution getting the h20 out, taking water out of cell

Hypotonic - too much water in the cell

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82
Q

Define Diffusion

A

diffusion is the movement of a molecule from a high concentration to a low concentration

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83
Q

What does insulin do

A

Carrier for glucose to cross the membrane

Type 1 - can’t produce insulin, insulin dependant

Type 2- Higher bgl, non effective insulin made

bgl, glucose inside of the blood

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84
Q

When a medication binds to a receptor site what 4 things could happen

A

Channels of ion passage open or close - cal channel blocker, glucose (insulin)

Biochemical messenger activates - SSRI

Normal Cell function is prevented - cyanide

Normal or Abnormal cell function begins - epi

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85
Q

What is bioavailability

A

The amount of med available after delivery

IV is 100%, IN is close to 100%

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86
Q

The barrier preventing molecules from reaching tissues

A

blood brain barrier

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87
Q

What do ace inhibitor drugs usually end with

A

PRIL (lisinopril)

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88
Q

What do beta blocker drugs usually end with

A

LOL (atenolol, carvedilol)

89
Q

What is the Autonomic Nervous System made of

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

90
Q

Define word ending “lytic”

A

stops an action, blocking

91
Q

Define word “mimetic”

A

to imitate

92
Q

What two words are associated with Sympatho

A

adrenergic, adrenaline

93
Q

What word is associated with parasympatho

A

cholinergic

94
Q

Where is codine in the “schedule of drugs”

A

codine fits into different spots based on the dose amount

95
Q

What drug is both a nonagonist and antagonist

A

activated charcol

96
Q

Name 3 agonist drugs

A

Epi, Albuterol, fentanyl

97
Q

Name 2 antagonist drugs

A

calcium channel blockers, beta blockers

98
Q

What do ace inhibitors do?

A

blocks the conversion from angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 in the lungs

99
Q

Name 2 calcium channel blockers

A

cardizem aka diltiazem

verapimill

100
Q

Define Pharmacodynamics

A

the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action

‘what the DRUG does to the body’

101
Q

5 things needed to be documented for IV

A

needle gauge/size
IV attempts/success/fails
the site
type of fluid
rate of the fluid

102
Q

Name 7 local reactions and symptoms IV

A

infiltration - edema, pain around site

occlusion - blood going up iv

vein irritation - itching, sting, redness

Thrombophlebitis - pain along the vein, red, edema

Hematoma - blood pooling, pain

Nerve, tendon - severe shooting pain

arterial puncture - bright red, pulsating blood

103
Q

After accidental arterial cannulation what should you do?

A

stop, place dressing for 5 mins

104
Q

Avoid SQ in shock because

A

severe vasoconstriction, delayed absorption

105
Q

Whats the fastest IO site

A

1 Sternum,

then #2 humerus, #3 tibia

106
Q

IO complication vs Contraindication

A

complication - is a known problem that may result

contra - is a known reason NOT to perform procedure

107
Q

4 reasons not to do IO

A
  1. no access
  2. brittle bones
  3. joint replacement
  4. prosthetic limb
108
Q

5 Parenteral routes of med

A

Intradermal
SQ
IM
IV/IO
Percutaneous - sL, bucal

109
Q

3 Enteral routes of med

A

routes invloving the GI tract

oral
OG/NG Tube
rectal

110
Q

Whats the fastest and slowest med admin routes

A

fastest is IV and IO

slowest is topical

111
Q

Big pinch for med admin

A

IM - to stabilize

112
Q

Little pinch for med admin

A

SQ - some tissue away from muscle

113
Q

Define Bolus

A

All at once

114
Q

Which color needle is the biggest

A

Do NOT rely on color coding

115
Q

What is a 3-way stopcock for?

A

used to draw up small doses of meds

note: inline is off

116
Q

Stimulation of the Alpha 1 receptor causes

A

causes vasoconstriction

117
Q

Stimulation of the Alpha 2 receptor causes

A

causes smooth muscle contraction, inhibition of insulin

118
Q

Stimulation of the Beta 1 receptor causes

A

found in the heart
causes increase in HR
strength of contraction (inotropy)
(and kidneys, release renin)

increased inotropy

119
Q

Stimulation of Beta 2 receptor causes

A

Lungs to bronchodilation
relaxation of the intestines, bladder
also found in the heart

120
Q

Stimulation of Beta 3

A

found in fat cells,

promotes lipolysis and heat production in fat

121
Q

Define Catecholamines

A

Epinephrine and Norepi
are examples of them

substances that function as neurotransmitters.

122
Q

What are 6 factors we cant control as far as med admin

A

age
weight
environment
genetics
pregnancy
psychosocial

123
Q

Define Pharmacokinetics

A

‘what the BODY does to the drug’

124
Q

What are receptor sites

A

pieces of either proteins or cell membrane that allows the drug to attach

125
Q

Define agonist

A

it attaches and causes the reaction of the receptor

126
Q

Define antagonist

A

attaches to the receptor site, BUT blocks something that causes action (can get knocked off)

127
Q

What does ace stand for

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

for bp

128
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

Decreases automaticity of the cardiac conduction system

makes it harder to reach action potential and pass the message on

slows down the heart, lowers bp

(cardizem, verapimil, diltiazem)

129
Q

Explain Zero Order Elimination

A

a fixed amount of a substance is removed during a certain period, regardless of the total amount in the body.

(alcohol is an example)

130
Q

What processes fall under phramacokinetics

A

half life and zero order elimnation

131
Q

Explain first order elimination

A

The rate of elimination is directly influenced by the plasma levels of the substance. In essence, the more substance in the plasma, the more the body works to eliminate the substance.

(is half life)

132
Q

Explain Half Life Elemination

A

The half-life of a medication is the time needed in an average
person for metabolism or elimination of 50% of the substance in the plasma.

A medication half-life pertains only to the quantity of medication within the body, not necessarily to the clinical effects of the medication.

133
Q

What does the liver do to drugs

A

Eliminates or Biotransforms (changing)

134
Q

What do the kidneys do to most drugs

A

Eliminates (or secretes)

135
Q

What does Enterally mean

A

Drug taken through GI tract

136
Q

When a drug comes out of the liver (after biotransformation) you want it be

A

an active metabolite

137
Q

What causes cell to shrink

A

Hypertonic, because of the fluid shift

138
Q

What is the system the liver uses to process drugs

A

P450

139
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is acetylcholine?

A

it is the chief neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system, the part of the autonomic nervous system

140
Q

What is the brand name for albuterol

A

proventil

141
Q

Define analgesic

A

(a drug) acting to relieve pain

analgesia The state of being insensible to pain while still conscious.

142
Q

What system is are anticholinergic found

A

the nervous system

Anticholinergics are agents that decrease or block the actions of acetylcholine on its parasympathetic nervous system receptors on smooth muscle cells, glands and the central nervous system

143
Q

midazalam a generic name or brand name?

A

generic name

brand name - versed

used for pre-anesthesia sedation and for procedural sedation for children and adults

144
Q

What system do antihistamines come from

A

The immune system

145
Q

What is cross tolerance

A

occurs when developing a tolerance for one substance leads to tolerance of another. Most cases of cross-tolerance occur with drugs in the same class that affects similar areas of the body.

146
Q

Define Synergism

A

Two medications with a similar effect combine to produce an effect greater than the sum of the medications’ effects.

147
Q

Define Potentiation

A

The effect of one medication is greatly enhanced by the presence of another medication, which does not have the ability to produce the same effect.

148
Q

Define Neutralization

A

Two medications bind together in the body, creating an inactive substance.

149
Q

Endogenous vs Exogenous

A

Endo - with the body

Exo - outside of the body

150
Q

alpha 1 is a receptor site specific to what part of the nervous system

A

adrenergic - sympathetic

151
Q

define efficacy

A

how well it works,

The ability to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as efficacy

affinity doesn’t mean it will have efficacy

152
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

They are designed to target specific substances present in the cell walls of a particular bacterium or fungus.

they work without affecting receptor sites

153
Q

Opioids are what time of chemicals?

A

Exogenous - made from chemicals Originating outside the organism (body).

154
Q

Limit of drugs where there is not longer an increased effect

A

Maximum range

155
Q

Define Tachyphylaxis

A

Repeated doses of medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, making the medication virtually ineffective.

156
Q

Define Parenteral

A

means “outside of the digestive tract.”

157
Q

What type of drug is atropine?

A

Atropine is a clinically relevant anticholinergic drug, which blocks inhibitory effects of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine on heart rate leading to tachycardia.

158
Q

What type of drug is Naloxone

A

It is an opioid (narcotic) antagonist—meaning that it binds to opioid receptors and can reverse and block the effects of other opioids

159
Q

What class of drug is used to reduce inflammation

A

corticod steroids

160
Q

What drug helps against bronchoconstriction

A

albuterol

161
Q

60 drops = how much fluid

A

1 mL

162
Q

Action for local complications

Action for systemic complications

A

local - pull IV line, do a new one

systemic - leave line in place, needs a fluid change

163
Q

What are the two major systems within the Nervous System

A

Central - brain and spinal

Peripheral - somatic and autonomic

(autonomic has the symp and parasymp)

164
Q

What are the two Neurotransmitters of the Sympathetic System?

A

Norepi and Epi

165
Q

What is the Receptor of the Sympathetic System

and its 4 Sub receptors

A

Adrenergic

A1 - in blood vessels - vasoconstrict
A2 - gatekeeper
B1 - heart - contractility ino, HR chrono, conduct drono
B2 - lungs - bronchodilation

166
Q

B2 agonist would cause

A

bronchodilation

167
Q

What is the neurotransmitter

and receptor of the Parasympathetic System

and subreceptors

A

NTM - Acetylcholine

Receptor - Cholinergic

sub - nicotinic muscurinic

168
Q

A beta antagonist can also be called a

A

parasympatholytic

169
Q

a beta blocker is aka

A

beta antagonist

170
Q

When a med has Anti or Blocker its a type of?

A

Antagonist

171
Q

Lams and Pams

A

are benzodiazpiens

172
Q

Brand Name for Ondansetron

A

Zofran

173
Q

Brand Name for Diltiazem

A

Cardizem

174
Q

Brand Name for Midazolam

A

Versed

175
Q

Brand Name for Furosemide

A

Lasix

176
Q

Statin (is known for)

A

Lowers Cholesterol

177
Q

Zepam (Zolam) (Pam)

A

Benzodiazepine

178
Q

Dipine / mil (is known for)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker

179
Q

Thazide (semide)

A

Diuretic

180
Q

Sone (solone)

A

Steroid

181
Q

What type of drug is Naloxone

A

Opioid Antagonist

182
Q

What type of drug is fentanyl or morphine

A

opioid agonist

183
Q

What type of drug is Atropine

A
184
Q

What type of drug is Midazolam

A

Benzodiazepine

185
Q

What type of drug is ASA (aspirin)

A

Anti-platelet

186
Q

What type of drug is Ondansetron

A

antagonist

187
Q

What type of drug is Furosemide

A

diuretic

188
Q

What type of drug is EPI 1:1,000

A

Alpha/Beta Adrenergic Agonist

189
Q

What type of drug is Diphenhydramine

A

antihistamine

190
Q

What type of drug is Albuterol

A

Adrenergic Bronchodilator

191
Q

What med should you administer 1st for Anaphylaxis?

what route

what is the max

A

EPI (anaphylaxis 1 to 1:000)

consentration 1mg to 1mL

note: 1 to 10,000 is cardiac epi 1mg to 10mL

IM

(max IM 5 mL)

192
Q

PR means (what kind of route)

A

per rectal (parenteral route)

193
Q

Max dose for SQ

A

3mL

194
Q

T/F parenteral is more predictable rate than enteral

A

True

because high therapeutic concentrations are achieved reliably and rapidly. IV IM

oral doesn’t absorb all of it
ET tube is highly unpredictable

195
Q

What degree angle is IM and SQ

A

IM is 90 degrees

SQ is 45 degrees

196
Q

60 drop set is a

A

micro drip

197
Q

why is an anaphylactic patient pale

A

they are not perfusing well

198
Q

When BETA 1 receptor is stimulated what happens

A

Increased HR
contractility
and Conductivity

199
Q

What is the difference between an absolute contraindication and a relative contraindication

A

absolute - effect is not good enough to give drug

relative - could be bad but it is worth giving drug

200
Q

T/F alpha 1 agonist and
alpha 1 adrenergic agonist are the same

A

True

201
Q

Name an anti-emetic

A

Zofran - ondansetron

for nausea vomiting

(anti emesis)

202
Q

Mechanism of Action is also known as Pharmaco_______

A

MOA = dynamics (what the drug does to the body)

203
Q

Pregnancy classifications

A

A B C D X

for Risk reward

(a safest, X is the worst)

204
Q

What class of med would you give for pain (9 out of 10)

A

Opioid Agonist

schedule 2

205
Q

After a fall, pain what receptors are being stimulated

A

sympathetic,

A1 B1 B2

Positive Ino, chrono, dromo

206
Q

Where does elimination occur in the body

A

The kidneys

207
Q

How is Hep A Transmitted

A

Fecal/Oral

208
Q

Hep B is transmitted by

A

Blood, Semen, or Bodily Fluids

209
Q

What are the other 5 R’s

A

Document
Assess
Refuse
Evaluation
Education

DAREE

210
Q

When getting blood samples for hospital whats the order

A

Red
Blue
Green
Lavender

Red Blood Gives Lives

211
Q

What type of drug is Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Anticoagulant (not bloodthinner per say)

212
Q

Define (med) Addition or Summation

A

Two meds with similar effect combine to produce an effect equal to sum

1+1=2

(note: synergism is greater effect)

213
Q

What schedule is Diazepam and Lorazepam

A

Schedule IV (4)

214
Q

What schedule is Fentanyl

A

Schedule II

215
Q

What are some needle sizes for

Intradermal IV
SQ
IM

A

IV - 25-27g and 3/8 to 1”

SQ - 24-26g and 1/2 to 1”

IM - 21g and 1-2”

216
Q

Define Osmosis

A

Movement of solvent across semipermeable membrane from high to low solvent concentration (ONLY SOLVENT MOVES)

217
Q

Define Diffusion

A

Movement of molecules from high concentration to low concentration

(BOTH solvent AND Solute move)

218
Q

GCS Pnumonics

A

MVE 456

Eye - SPON, HELLO, PAIN, NONE

Voice - VOICE

Motor - OLD BEN

Voiceless
Oooh (Incoherent)
Inapropreat
Confussed
Elegant

Obeys
Localizes
Draw away (Decerb)
Bends (Decore)
Extends
None

Paramedic (24 decks)

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