Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NPTE > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CPP of the vertebrae?

A

Full EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the CPP of the TMJ?

A

Maximal RET (clenching teeth)

OR

Mouth maximally open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the OPP of the SC joint?

A

arm resting by the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the CPP of the SC joint?

A

Arm maximally ELEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the OPP of the AC joint?

A

arm resting by the side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the CPP of the AC joint?

A

90 degrees ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the OPP of the GH joint?

A

55 degrees ABD
30 degrees Horiz. ADD

(Scapular plane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the CPP of the GH joint?

A

maximal ABD and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the OPP of the humeroulnar joint?

A

70 degrees FLX
10 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the CPP of the humeroulnar joint?

A

Full EXT and SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the OPP of the humeroradial joint?

A

Full EXT and SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the CPP of the humeroradial joint?

A

90 degrees FLX
5 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the OPP of the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

70 degrees FLX
35 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the CPP of the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

5 degrees supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the OPP of the distal radioulnar joint?

A

10 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the CPP of the distal radioulnar joint?

A

5 degrees SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the OPP of the radiocarpal and ulnocarpal joints?

A

neutral with slight UD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the CPP of the radiocarpal and ulnocarpal joints?

A

Full EXT and RD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the OPP of the midcarpal joints?

A

neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the CPP of the midcarpal joints?

A

EXT with UD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the CPP of the MCP joints?

A

Full thumb OPP
Full finger FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the OPP of the hip?

A

30 FLX
30 ABD
slight ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the CPP of the hip?

A

Full EXT, ABD, and IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the OPP of the knee?

A

25 degrees FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the CPP of the knee?

A

Full EXT and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the AO joint?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the AA joint?

A

ROT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the lower cervical spine (C3-T2)?

A

Limited in all motions EXCEPT FLX

SB = ROT >EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the GH joint?

A

ER > ABD > IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the SC and AC joints?

A

ELEV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the humeroulnar and humeroradial joint?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the radioulnar joints?

A

PRON = SUP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the joints located in the wrist?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the midcarpal joints?

A

equal in all directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the IP joints in the hand?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the T-spine?

A

SB and ROT > EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the L-spine?

A

SB and ROT > EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the hip?

A

IR/FLX > ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the knee?

A

FLX > EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the talocrural joint?

A

PF > DF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the subtalar joint?

A

INV > EV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the midtarsal joints?

A

SUP > PRON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the 1st MTP joint?

A

EXT > FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the MTP joints 2-5?

A

FLX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the capsular pattern/restrictive pattern of the IP joints in the foot?

A

EXT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when the shoulder abductors are weakened?

A

use of Scapular stabilizers to initiate shoulder motion (Reverse Scapulothoracic rhythm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when hip abductors are weak?

A

use of Lateral trunk muscles or TFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when finger flexors are weak?

A

use of wrist extensors (Tendonesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What muscle substitutions occur when the pec major is weak?

A

use of LHOB, coracobrachialis, and anterior deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Orientation of the glenoid fossa forms true ABD at ____ degrees ANTERIOR to the frontal plane.

A

30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What portions of the clavicle at the SC joint are convex?

A

superior and inferior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What portions of the clavicle at the SC joint are concave?

A

anterior and posterior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What portion of the GH joint capsule is the least supported?

A

Inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The GH ligaments support what portions of the joint capsule?

A

anterior and inferior portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What motions does the superior GH ligament restrict?

A

ER and inferior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What motions does the middle GH ligament restrict?

A

ER and anterior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What motions does the Anterior band of the inferior GH ligament restrict?

A

ER, anterior translation, superior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What motions does the posterior band of the inferior GH ligament restrict?

A

IR and anterior translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How much elevation occurs in the GH joint?

A

The first 30 to 60 degrees of elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

At approx. 75 degrees of elevation in the UE, what occurs at the GH joint to prevent compression of the greater tubercle on the acromion?

A

ER

(“Conjunct ROT”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How are the trochlea and trochlear notch at the humeroulnar joint placed?

A

anteriorly at a 45 degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the radius at the humeroradial joint?

A

capitulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna at the humeroulnar joint?

A

trochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The ulna (PRON/SUP) with elbow EXT

A

pronates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The ulna (PRON/SUP) with elbow FLX

A

supinates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The proximal ulna glides (medially/laterally) during elbow extension

A

medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The proximal ulna glides (medially/laterally) during elbow FLX

A

laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The 1st metacarpal is concave in what directions?

A

medial/lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The 1st metacarpal is convex in what directions?

A

anterior/posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What does the extensor hood in the hand provide?

A

Assistance with EXT of the IP joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What portion of the hand does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

hypothenar region
1/2 of 4th digit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What portion of the hand does the median nerve innervate?

A

remainder of palmar surface not innervated by the ulnar nerve
+
dorsal portions of 2nd, 3rd, and distal 1/2 of 4th digit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

During FLX/EXT at the 1st CMC joint, the first metacarpal is (concave/convext), moving on (concave/convex)

A

concave moving on convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

During ABD/ADD at the 1st CMC joint, the first metacarpal is (concave/convex), moving on (concave/convex)

A

convex moving on concave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

During FLX and ABD at the 1st CMC joint, the 1st metacarpal rotates (radially/ulnarly) on the trapezium

A

ulnarly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

During EXT and ADD at the 1st CMC joint, the 1st metacarpal rotates (radially/ulnarly) on the trapezium

A

radially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

During wrist FLX, which way does the scaphoid/lunate glide in relation to the radius?

A

dorsally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

During wrist EXT, which way does the scaphoid/lunate glide in relation to the radius?

A

anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

During RD, which way does the proximal row of carpals glide?

A

ulnarly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

During UD, which way does the proximal row of carpals glide?

A

radially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the depression on the femoral head called?

A

fovea capitis femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is the femoral head oriented?

A

Superior, medial, anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

At the hip joint, articular cartilage covers the while femoral head except for where?

A

fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the normal angle of inclination at the hip?

A

115-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

definition: Angle of inclination > 125 at the hip

A

coxa valga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

definition: angle of inclination <115 at the hip

A

coxa vara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The femoral neck is angled ___ degrees ANTERIORLY to form the anterior antetorsion angle

A

10-15 degrees anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the orientation of the acetabulum?

A

lateral, inferior, anterior

89
Q

(true/false) the acetabulum is fully covered by cartilage

A

FALSE - horseshoe shaped cartilage and has a fat pad for shock absorption

90
Q

What portion of the labrum in the hip is thickest?

91
Q

Where does the iliofemoral ligament (Y Ligament) attach?

A

AIIS to intertrochanteric line (Medial to distal edge; lateral to proximal edge)

92
Q

What movements does the iliofemoral ligament resist?

A

EXT and ER

93
Q

What movements does the pubofemoral ligament resist?

94
Q

Where does the ischiofemoral ligament connect?

A

ischium/posterior acetabulum to the greater trochanter

95
Q

What movements does the ischiofemoral ligament resist?

A

EXT and IR

96
Q

The MCL runs in the same direction as what other ligament found in the knee complex?

97
Q

The meniscofemoral ligament runs with what other ligament?

A

PCL

–> has common attachment site at the medial femoral condyle

98
Q

The oblique popliteal ligament inserts into the expansion of what muscular tendon?

A

semimembranosus

99
Q

What forms the floor of the popliteal fossa and is in contact with the popliteal anterior artery?

A

oblique popliteal ligament

100
Q

What ligament in the knee is a Y-shape?

A

Arcuate popliteal ligament

101
Q

What does the arcuate popliteal ligament provide?

A

strengthens the posterolateral capsule

102
Q

What does the transverse ligament of the knee provide?

A

connects the menisci anteriorly

103
Q

What does the meniscopatellar ligament do?

A

pulls the menisci forward with EXT

104
Q

What does the alar fold in the knee do?

A

Keeps the patella in contact with the femur

105
Q

What shape is the medial meniscus?

106
Q

Is the medial or lateral meniscus smaller?

107
Q

What is the shape of the lateral meniscus?

108
Q

What separates the LCL and the lateral meniscus?

A

popliteus muscle tendon

109
Q

The menisci follow the (tibia/femur) during IR/ER

110
Q

The medial meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during FLX

A

posteriorly

–> due to semimembranosus and ACL

111
Q

The medial meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during EXT

A

anteriorly

–> due to meniscopatellar ligament

112
Q

The lateral meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during FLX

A

posteriorly

–> due to popliteus

113
Q

The lateral meniscus is pulled (anteriorly/posteriorly) during EXT

A

anteriorly

–> due to meniscopatellar ligament and meniscofemoral ligament

114
Q

During knee FLX, the medial femoral condyle has pure rolling during the first __-__ degrees.

115
Q

During FLX, the lateral femoral condyle has pure rolling during the first __ degrees.

116
Q

During FLX, the femoral condyles roll (anteriorly/posteriorly)

A

posteriorly

–> ACL is taut allowing condyles to glide posteriorly

117
Q

During EXT, the femoral condyles roll (anteriorly/posteriorly)

A

anteriorly

–> PCL is taut allowing condyles to glide anteriorly

118
Q

What is the screw-home mechanism?

A

The extra 5 degrees of tibial ER during terminal knee EXT

119
Q

What bone is key to the lateral arch of the foot? Why?

A

cuboid

–> The makes the saddle shape deeper when articulating with the inferior surface of the calcaneus

120
Q

What metatarsal is the largest and strongest?

121
Q

Which metatarsal(s) articulate to the cuboid?

A

4th and 5th

122
Q

The ligaments at the talocrural joint are thicker ____.

123
Q

What are the medial collateral ligaments of the talocrural joint?

A

“Deltoid ligament”

  1. deep anterior talotibial
  2. superficial posterior talotibial
  3. deep posterior talotibial
  4. tibiocalcaneonavicular
124
Q

What are the lateral collateral ligaments of the talocrural joint?

A
  1. anterior talofibular
  2. posterior talofibular
  3. calcaneofibular
125
Q

What ligament is called the spring ligament?

A

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

126
Q

The plantar fascia becomes taut with what movement?

A

DF of MTP joints

–> ex: during push-off phase

(“windlass effect”)

127
Q

What does the tightening of the plantar fascia cause?

A
  • SUP of calcaneus
  • INV of subtalar joint
128
Q

During DF –> PF, the talus rotates (medially/laterally)

129
Q

Slight side-slide gliding and ABD/ADD are permitted when the foot is in (PF/DF) at the talocrural joint

130
Q

Where are uncinate joints located in the spine?

131
Q

What do uncinate joints limit?

A

Lateral Cx movement

132
Q

The surface of superior and inferior processes are (flat/curved) in cervical and thoracic regions.

133
Q

The surface of superior and inferior processes are (flat/curved) in the lumbar region.

A

can be flat or curved

134
Q

What kind of joint is the SIJ?

A

Syndesmosis (diarthrosis)

135
Q

The annulus fibrosis is ___% water.

136
Q

The Nucleus pulposis is __% water.

137
Q

What makes of 20-33% of the vertebral column’s height?

A

Nucleus pulposis

138
Q

What portion of the annulus fibrosis is innervated?

139
Q

(true/false) The nucleus pulposis has blood and nerve supply.

140
Q

What does the alar ligament limit?

A
  1. FLX
  2. contralateral SB
  3. contralateral ROT
141
Q

What does the anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) do?

A

Reinforces the anterolateral portion of the vertebral column.

142
Q

What does the alar ligament connect?

A

Dens to occipital condyles

143
Q

Where does the ALL and PLL run?

A

C2 to sacrum

144
Q

What does the PLL do?

A

limits FLX and reinforces the posterior aspect of the vertebral column.

145
Q

What is the extension of the PLL once it goes above C2?

A

Tectorial membrane

146
Q

What does the tectorial membrane limit?

147
Q

What muscles are tested with inspiration?

A
  1. diaphragm
  2. levator costarum
  3. external intercostals
  4. anterior internal intercostals
148
Q

What muscles are tested with forced expiration?

A
  1. internal obliques
  2. transverse abdominis
  3. external obliques
  4. posterior internal intercostals
  5. rectus abdominis
149
Q

What movement tests the psoas minor?

150
Q

What muscles are tested with spine ROT?

A
  1. intertransversarii
  2. obliques
  3. transversospinalis
151
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum attach to?

A

The lamina of each vertebra below C2

152
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum limit?

153
Q

Costotransverse ligaments support the costotransverse joint capsules of what ribs?

154
Q

What does the sacrotuberous ligament limit?

A

anterior ROT and superior translation of the sacrum

155
Q

What does the posterior interosseous ligament limit?

A

motions in all directions

156
Q

What rami form the cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexus?

A

ventral rami

157
Q

SB and ROT occur in the (same/different) direction from C2-C7 regardless of whether the spine is in neutral or not.

A

same direction

158
Q

Describe lumbopelvic rhythm with flexion.

A

During spinal flexion, the spine goes through 60-70 degrees of motion and then the pelvis will anteriorly rotate to allow more movement.

–> FLX of the hips will eventually follow

159
Q

Describe lumbopelvic rhythm with extension.

A

During EXT, the hips will extend, the pelvis rotates posteriorly, and then the spine begins to extend

160
Q

definition: describes a movement that involves FLX of the sacrum and posterior ROT of the ilium

161
Q

definition: describes a movement that involves EXT of the sacrum and anterior ROT of the ilium

A

counternutation

162
Q

What is required to achieve power grip?

A

Wrist EXT, UD, finger FLX

163
Q

What nerve injury will affect power grip?

A

Ulnar nerve

164
Q

What nerve injury will affect precision grip?

A

Median nerve

165
Q

What does the coracoclavicular ligament do?

A

prevents upward translation of the humerus

166
Q

What does the coracohumeral ligament do?

A

regulates inferior translation and ER of the humerus

167
Q

What functional changes does radial nerve injury result in?

A

Affects the ability to maintain the functional wrist position and release an object

168
Q

What positioning of the LE does excessive anteversion cause?

> 15 degrees

A

IR

can lead to a toe-in gait pattern

The opposite effects will occur with retroversion (< 15 degrees)

169
Q

In CKC exsc, the iliopsoas tilts the pelvis (anteriorly/posteriorly) and (increases/decreases) lordosis

A

anteriorly ; increases

170
Q

What muscle group stabilizes the pelvis during unilateral stance and prevents the contralateral LE from dropping?

A

ABD muscles

171
Q

What do the adductor muscles provide during gait?

A

Assist in EXT and ROT of the femur during swing phase

172
Q

What muscle does the sciatic nerve run under?

A

piriformis

Occasionally splits or passes over the muscle

173
Q

(true/false) HS can be involved in sciatic nerve compression.

174
Q

During CKC activities, the femur locks with (IR/ER)

175
Q

During OKC activities the tibia locks the knee by moving (medially/laterally)

176
Q

What movements unlock the knee?

A

ER of femur
IR of tibia

177
Q

What direction do the menisci move to with knee EXT?

A

anteriorly

178
Q

What direction do the menisci move to with knee FLX?

A

posteriorly

179
Q

Poor activation or strength of what muscle can result in PFPS?

A

VMO

Other causes: tight ITB or lateral retinaculum

180
Q

What movement does the biceps femoris cause at the knee?

A

ER of the tibia

Conrol hip FLX and knee EXT during CKC activities

181
Q

The fibula moves in what direction during DF?

182
Q

What does OKC pronation at the rearfoot consist of?

A

Eversion, DF, and ABD of the calcaneus

183
Q

What does OKC supination at the rearfoot consist of?

A

Inversion, PF, and ADD of the calcaneus

184
Q

In what direction does the talus glide on the tibia during DF?

A

posteriorly

185
Q

In what direction does the talus glide on the tibia during PF?

A

anteriorly

186
Q

Subtalar pronation causes tibial ____.

187
Q

Subtalar supination causes tibial ____.

188
Q

During WB, supination of the subtalar joint consists of what movements?

A

Calcaneal inversion with PF
Talar ABD on the calcaneus

189
Q

During WB, pronation of the subtalar joint consists of what movements?

A

Calcaneal eversion with PF
Talar ADD on the calcaneus

190
Q

During Midstance, the posterior tibbialis, FDL, and FHL control what motion?

A

FWD motion of the tibia

191
Q

What are the motor features of median nerve paralysis?

A
  • loss of PRON
  • loss of thumb OPP, FLX, and ABD
192
Q

What are the motor features of radial nerve paralysis?

A

Loss of elbow, wrist, finger, and thumb EXT

193
Q

What are the motor features of musculocutaneous nerve paralysis?

A
  • loss of forearm FLX when supinated
  • weakened SUP
194
Q

What are the motor features of ulnar nerve paralysis?

A
  • loss of UD
  • weak wrist and finger FLX (4th and 5th digits)
  • loss of thumb ADD
  • loss of most intrinsic muscles (results in claw hand)
195
Q

What are the features of sciatic nerve paralysis?

A
  • loss of knee FLX
  • weak hip ABD
  • loss of all motor function distal to the knee
196
Q

What are the features of femoral nerve paralysis?

A

loss of hip FLX and knee FLX

197
Q

What are the features of tibial nerve paralysis?

A

loss of PF and knee FLX

198
Q

What are the features of superficial peroneal nerve parlysis?

A

loss of Eversion

199
Q

What are the features of deep peroneal nerve paralysis?

A
  • loss of DF
  • weakness of dorsal foot intrinsics
200
Q

Describe coxa vara.

A

Femoral neck shaft is angled inward (angle of inclination < 125 degrees)

201
Q

Describe coxa valga.

A

Femoral neck shaft is angled outward (angle of inclination > 125 degrees)

202
Q

Describe valgus heel.

A

Rearfoot is deviated outward resulting in pronated feet

203
Q

What MMT grading is described below?

Can move in full ROM with no gravity

A

poor (2/5)

204
Q

What MMT grading is described below?

can only move into the testing position against gravity and hold

A

fair (3/5)

205
Q

What MMT grading is described below?

can move against gravity in a small ROM

A

poor+

(2+/5)

206
Q

What test should be performed prior to any manual treatment of the cervical spine and repeated as ROM increases?

A

Vertebral artery test

Full EXT and ROT to one side and hold the position for 10 seconds

(+) tinnitus, dizziness, nausea, throbbing, confusion, unusual sensation, pupillary constriction/dilation

  • notify PCP if (+) and avoid mobilization and cervical spine movments at the ranges that produce symptoms
207
Q

What are the movements performed by the superficial layer of intrinsic back muscles?

splenius capitis and splenius cervicis

A

When acting alone: ipsilateral SB and ROT of the head and neck

When acting as a unit: EXT of the head and neck

208
Q

What are the movements performed by the intermediate layer of intrinsic back muscles?

Erector spinae

A
  1. Bilateral EXT (also allows for eccentric FLX)
  2. ipsilateral SB
209
Q

What are the movements performed by the deep layer of intrinsic back muscles?

semispinalis, multifidus, and rotatores

A
  1. Bilateral EXT
  2. ipsilateral SB
  3. Contralateral ROT
210
Q

What are the movements of the iliopsoas?

A

hip FLX and ER

211
Q

Improper closure of the mandible can cause microtrauma and strained structures. A result of this could be dislocation _____ and ____ with altered surface loading

A

Anterior and medial dislocation

212
Q

Describe the arthrokinematics of the mouth opening

A

Disc and mandible translate anteriorly

213
Q

What is the common direction of TMJ dislocation?

A

Anterior

yawning or large bites can cause this

214
Q

Contraction of the ______ may cause the mandibular head to dislocate anteriorly on the articular tubercle- mouth remains stuck in an opened position.

A

lateral pterygoid

214
Q

Describe mandibular depression.

A
  1. condylar ROT
  2. head of mandible and articular disc glide anteriorly until the condylar head is inferior to the articular tubercle
215
Q

What amount of mouth opening is required for functional opening.

216
Q

Describe protrusion of the TMJ.

A

anterior movement of the mandible with bilateral anterior condylar translation

217
Q

Describe lateral excursion of the TMJ.

A

mandible moves laterally with anterior translation of the contralateral side and spinning of the ipsilateral joint

NPTE (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions