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NPTE > Therapeutic interventions > Flashcards

Therapeutic interventions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the appropriate intensity for novice to intermediate exercisers to improve strength as described by FITT-VP?

A

60-70%

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2
Q

What is the appropriate intensity for Experienced exercisers to improve strength as described by FITT-VP?

A

Gradually increases to > 80%

1 RM

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3
Q

What is the appropriate intensity for older individuals beginning exercise to improve strength as described by FITT-VP?

A

40-50%

1 RM

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4
Q

What is the appropriate intensity for sedentary individuals beginning a resistance exercise program as described by FITT-VP?

A

40-50%

1 RM

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5
Q

According to FITT-VP, what intensity is best for improving endurance?

A

< 50%

1 RM

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6
Q

According to FITT-VP, what intensity is best for older adults who want to improve power?

A

20-50%

1 RM

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7
Q

How many reps are recommended for most adults when improving strength and power?

A

8-12

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8
Q

How many reps are recommended for improving strength in those who are middle-aged and older starting a resistance program?

A

10-15

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9
Q

How many reps are recommended for improving endurance?

A

15-25

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10
Q

What are the effects of Valsalva maneuver on intrathoracic pressure, HR, return of blood to the heart, venous pressure, and cardiac workload?

A
  1. Increases intrathoracic pressure
  2. Slows HR
  3. Decreases return of blood to the heart
  4. increases venous pressure
  5. increases cardiac workload
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11
Q

When does the most rapid recovery occur after exercise?

A

Within the first minute

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12
Q

When can DOMS begin?

A

12-24 hours after vigorous exercise

Peaks at 24-48 hrs after exercise

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13
Q

How long can muscle tenderness and stiffness caused by DOMS last?

A

5-7 days

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14
Q

Does OKC or CKC exercises prepare a patient for functional WB activities?

A

CKC

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15
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Volume of air breathed each minute.

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16
Q

How do you calculate minute ventilation?

A

RR x Tidal volume

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17
Q

(true/false) Exercise can reverse any damage to pulmonary tissue

A

False

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18
Q

At altitudes of >6,000 ft, there can be a (increase/decrease) in performance with aerobic activities.

A

decrease

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19
Q

Why at altitudes of >6,000 ft (1,829 m) is there a decrease in aerobic activity performance?

A

PPO2 is reduced resulting in poor oxygenation of hemoglobin

Hypoxia at altitude can result in immediate compensatory hyperventilation and increased HR

–> Hyperventilation = decreased CO2 = increase in alkaline body fluids

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20
Q

How long does it take to acclimate to altitude starting at 7,545 ft (2,300 m)?

–> How much additional time is added when altitude increases by 1,968 ft (600m)?

A

a. 2 weeks
b. 1 week for every additional 600 m

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21
Q

What happens to plasma volume and total red blood cell count with increasing altitude?

A

Plasma Volume: Decreased

Total RBC count: Increased –> increased hemoglobin = improved oxygenation

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22
Q

VO2 max (increases/decreases) starting at 1,500 m.

A

decreases - continues to decrease by 2% for every 300 m increase.

Bottom line: decreased endurance performance

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23
Q

(true/False) training at altitude provides improvement in performance at sea level.

A

FALSE

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24
Q

(true/false) Dehydration is common when training in altitude.

A

True - air is dry and cool

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25
Q

Heat (increases/decreases) GTO sensitivity.

A

increases

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26
Q

When improving stability, those with hyperkinetic movement disorders should start with (small/large) range movements.

A

Large range

progress to small range and then holding steady

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27
Q

Are CKC or OKC exercises better for enhancing postural stabilization?

A

CKC

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28
Q

Aquatic therapy (decreases/increases) peripheral blood flow.

A

increases - counteracts effusion and edema

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29
Q

At what water temperature do most patients have difficulty maintaining core temperature?

A

77 degrees

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30
Q

What structure(s) of the body exhibit the greatest temperature change?

A

skin

rises rapidly

subcutaneous tissue rises less rapidly and does not show a large change

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31
Q

What structure(s) of the body exhibit the least change in temperature?

A

muscles and joints

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32
Q

Regarding thermotherapy, what do structures > 3cm under the surface require?

A

shortwave diathermy or ultrasound

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33
Q

What are contraindications for use of superficial thermotherapy?

A
  1. acute/subacute traumatic and inflammatory conditions
  2. decreased circulation and sensation
  3. DVT
  4. impaired cognitive function
  5. risk of hemorrhage or edema
  6. malignant tumors
  7. irradiation to eyes or reproductive organs
  8. pregnancy (full-body heat)
  9. thrombophlebitis
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34
Q

What changes occur to the following when using general heat application?

Cardiac output
metabolic rate
muscle activity
blood flow to internal organs and resting muscles
HR
RR
BP
Stroke volume

A
  • Cardiac output: increased
  • metabolic rate: increased
  • muscle activity: decreased
  • blood flow to internal organs and resting muscles: decreased
  • HR: increased
  • RR: increased
  • BP: decreased
  • Stroke volume: decreased
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35
Q

Capillary permeability and pressure (decrease/increase) with localized heat application

A

increase

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36
Q

What precautions must you consider before using thermotherapy?

A
  • acute injury
  • edema
  • metal implants
  • open wounds
  • topical agents
  • cognitive status
  • pregnancy
  • cardiac insufficiency/impaired circulation
  • impaired thermoregulation
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37
Q

What temperature should water be when storing hot packs?

A

165-170 degrees

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38
Q

At what temperature does paraffin wax self-sterilize?

A

175-180 degrees

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39
Q

What method of heat transmission is used with hydrotherapy (whirlpool)?

A

convection

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40
Q

What temperature is most appropriate for exercising in water?

A

79-92 degrees

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41
Q

What temperature is most appropriate if a person has an open wound?

A

92-96 degrees

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42
Q

What precautions must be considered before utilizing local immersion?

A
  • decreased temperature sensation
  • decreased cognition
  • recent skin graft
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43
Q

What precautions must be considered before utilizing full body immersion for hydrotherapy (whirlpool)?

A
  • poor thermoregulation
  • impaired temperature sensation
  • cardiac medications
  • urinary incontinence
  • respiratory issues
  • fear of water
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44
Q

What are contraindications for local immersion with hydrotherapy?

A
  • maceration
  • bleeding
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45
Q

What are contraindications for full body immersion with hydrotherapy (whirlpool)?

A
  • unstable CVD
  • bowel incontinence
  • severe epilepsy
  • potential for cross contamination
  • pregnancy
  • suicidal ideations
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46
Q

What is the appropriate treatment pressure when using nonimmersion irrigating devices?

A

4-15 psi

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47
Q

What must you avoid if using non-immersion irrigation devices?

A
  • granulating tissues
  • body cavities
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48
Q

definition

erythema of the skin with wealing formations- associated with severe itching due to histamine reaction

A

cold uticaria

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49
Q

What precautions should be considered before utilizing cryotherapy?

A
  • HTN
  • poor thermal regulation
  • open wounds
  • over superficial nerves
  • cognition status
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50
Q

What changes occur to the following when using general cold application?

Cardiac output
metabolic rate
blood flow to internal organs and resting muscles
HR
RR
arterial BP
venous BP
Stroke volume

A
  • Cardiac output: increased
  • metabolic rate: decreased
  • blood flow to internal organs and resting muscles: increased
  • HR: decreased
  • RR: decreased
  • arterial BP: increased
  • venous BP: decreased
  • Stroke volume: increased
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51
Q

What are contraindications for cryotherapy?

A
  • cold sensitivity/intolerance
  • PVD
  • raynaud’s
  • paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
  • compromised circulation
  • regenerating nerves
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52
Q

What is continuous ultrasound used to achieve?

A

thermal effects

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53
Q

(true/false) With US, the intensity is not uniformly distributed over the surface of the transducer

A

true

Why?
The energy is mechanically blocked by the adhesive bonding of the crystals within the transducer head and the pressure waves interfere with eachother as they radiate to different areas of the crystal

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54
Q

definition

The total power (Watts) divided by the area of the transducer head

A

spatial avg. intensity

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55
Q

definition

The ratio of spatial peak intensity to spatial avg. intensity.

A

beam nonuniformity ratio (BNR)

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55
Q

The higher the BNR, the (less/more) uniform the energy distribution is and the (less/more) risk of tissue damage occurring.

A

Higher BNR =
more uniformed energy
less risk of tissue damage

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56
Q

What is the ideal ratio of BNR?

A

between 2:1 and 6:1

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57
Q

When is pulsed US applied?

A

When non-thermal effects are desired

ex: treatment of acute soft tissue injuries

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58
Q

definition

The fraction of time the US energy is on over one pulse period (time on + time off)

A

duty cycle

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59
Q

What duty cycle is considered as pulsed US?

A

20-50%

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60
Q

definition

reduction of acoustal energy as it passes through soft tissue.

  • affected by refraction, absorption, and reflection
A

attenuation

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61
Q

What US frequency causes greater heat production in superficial layers (1-2.5 cm deep)?

A

3 MHz

Why?
Greater attenuation (scattering) of sound waves within the superficial tissue

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62
Q

What US frequency causes greater heat production in deeper layers (3-6 cm deep)?

A

1 MHz

Why?
Less attenuation (scattering) of the sound waves within the tissues causing more energy to penetrate deeper into the tissues

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63
Q

What is the intensity of the following US frequency?

1 MHz

A

1.5 - 2.0 W/cm2

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64
Q

What is the intensity of the following US frequency?

3 MHz

A

0.5 - 1.0 W/cm2

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65
Q

definition

movement of fluids along the boundaries of cell membranes resulting from mechanical pressure waves

A

acoustic streaming

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66
Q

What precautions should be considered before using US?

A
  • breast implants
  • acute inflammation
  • open epiphyses
  • healing fractures
  • over joint cement or plastic components
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67
Q

What are the contraindications for ultrasound?

A
  • cardiac pacemakers
  • impaired circulation and sensation
  • malignant tumors, thrombophlebitis, or myositis ossificans
  • over reproductive organs and heart
  • over the abdomen, low back and uterus during pregnancy
  • recently irradiated tissue
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68
Q

(Low/high) intensities of US should be considered with acute conditions

A

low intensities

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69
Q

(Low/high) intensities of US should be considered with chronic conditions

A

high intensity

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70
Q

What is the regular treatment time for US?

A

3-10 minutes

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71
Q

definition

The use of US to drive medications through the skin into deeper tissues

A

phonophoresis

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72
Q

For joint distraction in the lumbar region, a force of ___% of the patient’s body weight is required to cause separation

A

50%

Do not exceed

NOTE:
for initial treatment, lower traction force is recommended to decrease reactive muscle spasm and determine patient tolerance

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73
Q

For joint distraction in the cervical region, a force of ___% of the patient’s body weight is required to cause separation

A

7%

do not exceed

NOTE:
for initial treatment, lower traction force is recommended to decrease reactive muscle spasm and determine patient tolerance

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74
Q

What traction force is sufficient to receive the effects of soft-tissue stretching in the lumbar region?

A

25% of body weight

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75
Q

What traction force is sufficient to receive the effects of soft-tissue stretching in the cervical region?

A

12-15 pounds

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76
Q

(true/false) traction can be isolated to a particular joint segment

A

false

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77
Q

What are the contraindications to using intermittent mechanical compression?

A
  • acute inflammation
  • trauma
  • Fx
  • acute DVT
  • thrombophlebbitis
  • obstructed lymph or venous return
  • arterial insufficiency and/or revascularization
  • acute pulmonary edema
  • cancer
  • impaired sensation
  • infection
  • ABI < 0.6
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78
Q

What is the optimal inflation-deflation ratio for intermittent mechanical compression?

A

3:1

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79
Q

What is the optimal inflation-deflation ratio for shaping a residual limb when using intermittent mechanical compression?

A

4:1

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79
Q

What on/off cycle of intermittent mechanical compression should be used for edema?

A

On: 45-90 seconds
Off: 15-30 seconds

3:1

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80
Q

What determines the setting of intermittent mechanical compression?

A

Patient’s BP

  • some say do not exceed DBP
  • some say to fall between the systolic and diastolic values
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81
Q

What type of current is russian and IFC while using E-stim?

A

Polyphasic

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82
Q

definition

E-stim mode that has intermittent cessation for >1 second during treatment

A

interrupted

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83
Q

definition

E-stim mode that has a gradual increase and decrease in the current intensity over a period of time

A

surge

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84
Q

definition

E-stim mode that has a time of period with gradual rise of the current intensity and maintained for a given amount of time … then abruptly or graduallly declines in intensity

A

ramped

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85
Q

(true/false) both continuous and pulsed waveforms can be used for healing

A

true

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86
Q

What E-stim parameters has the greatest amount of evidence for facilitating tissue healing?

A

High voltage pulsed monophasic current

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87
Q

What precautions should be considered with use of E-stim?

A
  • CVD
  • impaired sensation
  • malignancies
  • iontophoresis
  • hypotension / hypertension
  • bleeding disorders
  • menstrating uterus
  • pregnancy (during labor and delivery)
  • skin irritation
  • open wounds
88
Q

What are the contraindications for E-stim?

A
  • electronic devices (pacemakers, insulin pumps, etc)
  • unstable arrythmias
  • epilepsy/Sz disorders
  • over carotid sinus, eyes, phrenic nerve, urinary bladder stimulator, pharyngeal/laryngeal muscles
  • over abdomen or low back during pregnancy
  • infection
  • uncontrolled bleeding
  • superficial metal implants
  • thrombosis
89
Q

(true/false) electrodes that are too small can cause skin irritation and/or burns

A

true

Same with those that have uneven contact and/or have self-adhesive that no longer sticks

90
Q

(smaller/larger) electrodes produce a high current density and therefore a strong stimulus

A

smaller

Note:
With larger electrodes, the same intensity is perceived as less intense due to a decreased current density

91
Q

What modality is designed specifically to provide afferent stimulation for pain management?

A

TENS

92
Q

(true/false) high rate TENS can be applied during the chronic phase of pain but not the acute phase

A

FALSE

Can be applied during both acute and chronic phases of pain

93
Q

Does high rate TENS have a temporary or long-lasting duration of pain relief?

A

temporary

94
Q

Strong low rate TENS can be applied during what phases of pain?

Acupuncture-like TENS

A

chronic

95
Q

What TENS setting is used to provide rapid-onset, short-term pain relief during painful procedures?

ex: debridement, deep friction massage, etc)

A

Brief intense TENS

96
Q

description

electronic instrument used to measure motor unit action potentials generated my active muscles

  • signals are detected, amplified, and converted into audiovisual signals that are used to reinforce voluntary control
A

EMG biofeedback

97
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for pain reduction? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A
  1. lidocaine (positive)
  2. xylocaine (positive)
  3. salicylate (Negative)
98
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for calcium deposits and myositis ossificans? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

acetate / acetic acid (negative)

99
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for wound healing and dermal ulcers? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

Zinc / zinc oxide (positive)

100
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for edema reduction? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

hyaluronidase / wydase (positive)

101
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for fungal infections? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

copper / copper sulfate (positive)

102
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for hyperhidrosis? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

Water (postive and negative)

103
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for muscle spasms? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A
  • calcium / calcium chloride (positive)
  • magnesium / magnesium sulfate (positive)
104
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for MSK inflammatory conditions? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A
  • dexamethasone (negative)
  • hydrocortisone (positive)
105
Q

When using iontophoresis, what ion(s) are commonly used for scars and adhesive capsulitis? Are each of them of positive or negative polarity?

A

iodine (negative)

106
Q

When performing isometric exercise, what must you consider in those with vascular and/or cardiac disease?

A

Avoidance of valsalva maneuver due to risk of causing sharp rise in BP

107
Q

Describe isometric exercise.

A

static contraction at a point within the ROM

108
Q

Describe isotonic exercise.

A

contraction throughout with ROM with the same resistance
*variable speed of movement

109
Q

Describe isokinetic exercise.

A

Contraction varies throughout the ROM at a constant speed
*resistance varies

110
Q

Aerobic exercise is performed at a target HR for at least ___ mintutes.

A

20 minutes

111
Q

What changes occur to the following as a result of aerobic exercise training?

a. resting and submaximal HR

b. systolic and diastolic BP at rest

c. cardiac output during exercise

d. stroke volume during exercise

A

a. decreased

b. decreased

c. increased

d. increased

112
Q

What changes occur to the following as a result of aerobic exercise training?

a. Tidal volume

b. Ventilation rate during submaximal exercise

c. oxygen extraction from the blood

A

a. increased

b. decreased

c. increased

113
Q

What is Karvonen’s formula used for?

A

calculation of target HR

(HR max - RHR) x percent of desired training intensity + RHR

114
Q

What occurs to the following during aquatic therapy/exercise?

a. stroke volume

b. cardiac output

c. HR

d. inspiratory reserve volume

e. FVC

A

a. increased

b. increased

c. decreased or same

d. decreased

e. decreased

115
Q

Why should a target HR be established while in the pool?

A

due to lower HR during deep-water exercise compared to exercises on land

116
Q

Aging sedentary individuals have ___x the rate of decline in VO2 max

A

2x

117
Q

Age predicted HR max (increases/decreases) with age.

A

decreases

118
Q

Cardiac output may decline with aging due to what?

A

increase in SV

119
Q

When performing isotonic exercise, what should be considered for selected resistance?

A

Selected resistance should not be greater than that of the weakest joint position

120
Q

What vascular change occurs with the use of a cold pack for greater than 20 minutes?

A

Vasodilation

Initially vasoconstriction until time exceeds 20 minutes

121
Q

What are the contraindications for contract-relax stretching?

A
  • acute muscle spasm
  • joint instability/hypermobility
  • acute muscle strain or joint sprain
  • inflammation or joint effusion
  • unhealed Fx
  • osteoporosis
  • excessive pain
122
Q

What are the two types of mobilization techniques?

A
  1. oscillation
  2. sustained
123
Q

Describe the grades of oscillation.

A

1: small amplitude at beginning of end range

2: larger amplitude oscillations into mid-range at a joint

3: large oscillations performed through the availale range of a joint and into tissue resistance

4: small amplitude oscillations performed into tissue resistance

124
Q

What are oscillatory grades 1 and 2 used for?

A
  • joint mobility
  • pain relief
125
Q

What grade of oscillation is indicated for those with subacute joint inflammation and/or sprain?

A

Grades 1 and 2

126
Q

What are oscillation grades 3 and 4 used for?

A
  • joint mobility
  • impingement
127
Q

If the fixed joint surface is concave and the mobilized surface is convex, what direction will mobilization be in compared to direction of limitation?

A

opposite

ex: GH joint abduction requires inferior glide

128
Q

If the fixed joint surface is convex and the mobilized surface is concave, what direction will mobilization be in compared to direction of limitation?

A

Same direction

Increase knee EXT with an anterior glide

129
Q

In the cervical spine, SB and ROT occur in the (same/opposite) direction

A

same

130
Q

If the spine segments are in full FLX/EXT with the facets locked, ROT and SB will occur in the (same/opposite) direction

A

same direction

131
Q

If lumbar or thoracic segments are in neutral and not locked, ROT and SB are (opposite/same)

A

opposite

132
Q

(true/false) if motion in any plane is introduced within a spinal segment, motion in the other planes will increase.

A

false - they will be reduced

133
Q

On average, how long are functional capacity evaluations for industrial rehab?

A

4-6 hours

134
Q

If a person is standing for a long time, what can they do to decompress the lumbar spine and take pressure off of the low back?

A

alternate placing a foot onto a low stool/ledge

135
Q

When a person has a flaccid bladder, what maneuver can be utilized to assist with emptying the bladder?

A

valsalva maneuver

136
Q

What head position is recommended for those with altered airway protection and are at a higher risk of aspiration?

A

Chin tuck

137
Q

For initial treatment of ankylosing spondylitis, what should you promote in the early stages of the diagnosis?

A

Posture and EXT

as the disease progresses, excessive postural FLX will develop

138
Q

(true/false) Strengthening exercises for those with duchenne’s will further deterioration

A

true

139
Q

What are common signs of respiratory distress?

A
  • dyspnea
  • SOBB
  • cramping of calf muscles
140
Q

What occurs to the following ABG values when COPD is present?

PaO2
PaCO2
pH

A

PaO2: decreased
PaCO2: increased
pH: decreased

141
Q

What CN is responsible for pupillary response?

A

CN III

142
Q

What positioning of the hand will make the trapezium more prominent to palpate?

A

Opposition and UD

143
Q

During gait, when do the DF muscles terminate their action?

A

End of loading response

144
Q

What muscle is commonly used for Median nerve conduction velocity testing?

A

ABD pollicis brevis

145
Q

(true/false) Cardiac denervation syndrome is a long term complication of T1DM.

A

True

146
Q

Cardiac denervation syndrome is a long term complication of T1DM… how will this effect HR during rest and activity?

A

Fixed HR that is unresponsive to exercise and rest.

147
Q

When performing bicycle crunches, what muscles are contracting in the abdomen?

A

Ipsilateral internal oblique
Contralateral external oblique

148
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

increase in RBC and Hgb production

Results in increased blood viscosity and blood volume = increased SBP

149
Q

When testing CN X, what response of the uvula will you see if a lesion is present?

A

Deviation to the OPPOSITE side of the lesion

150
Q

What CN maintains the gag reflex?

A

CN X

151
Q

What does S3 sound indicate?

A

CHF

152
Q

What does S4 sound indicate?

A

MI or HTN

153
Q

What is otitis media?

A

Infection of the middle ear resulting in fever and pain

154
Q

Why do those with congestive HF have difficulty when in supine?

A

fluid will move into the atrium and lungs from the extremities

155
Q

The subscapularis prevents ___ translation of the humeral head

A
156
Q

If the subscapularis is torn, what would happen to overhead activity?

A

Overhead activity will become difficult due to a weakened hold over the LHOB

157
Q

In which direction will the vertebrae rotate to when scoliosis is present?

A

Towards the convex

158
Q

In which direction will the spinous processes deviate to when scoliosis is present?

A

concave side

159
Q

Anorexia and diarrhea are (earlier/later) manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

later

160
Q

Meconium ileus and acute bronchitis are (early/late) manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A

early

161
Q

Where wound paresthesia be when anterior compartment syndrome of the LE is present?

A

1st and 2nd toes due to compression of the deep peroneal nerve

will result in weak DF

162
Q

What heart condition can occur in later stages of COPD?

A

Cor pulmonale

163
Q

What will occur to the thorax when COPD is present? Why?

A

kyphosis and barrel chest (increased AP diameter) due to hyperinflation and loss of elastic recoil

164
Q

Perceptual deficits/neglect are attributed to what kind of brain lesion?

A

Parietal lobe lesion in the non-dominant hemisphere

commonly R hemisphere

165
Q

What will an increase in fatigue result in on an EMG?

A

increase in EMG signal due to more neural activity being required to maintain the same level of force production

166
Q

What direction will the clavicle at the SC joint slide during elevation?

A

Inferiorly

Superior dislocation will cause the inability to elevate the scapula

167
Q

Where is pain from IBS found?

A

LLQ

168
Q

Where will pain from diverticulitis be experienced?

A

LLQ

169
Q

Where will pain from crohn’s disease be experienced?

A

RLQ

170
Q

(true/false) Cold therapy can be used to reduce tone/spasticity

A

true

slows nerve conduction velocity and decreases muscle spindle activity for temporary results

171
Q

What muscles are tightened causing posterior innominate ROT?

A

hip extensors

Isometric contraction of the iliopsoas and stretching of the hip extensors are used for treatment

172
Q

What infarction of the MCA results in homonymous hemianopsia and fluent aphasia?

A

Inferior division of MCA

173
Q

What infarction of the MCA results in broca’s aphasia?

A

superior division of MCA

174
Q

What does left MCA stem occlusion result in?

A
  • homonymous hemianopsia
  • hemiparesis
  • global aphasia
175
Q

GBS is a (LMN/UMN) disorder

A

LMN

176
Q

MS is a (LMN/UMN) disorder

A

UMN

177
Q

What direction does the trachea shift to as the result of asymmetrical intrathoracic pressure or lung volumes?

A

Shifts away

Same result will occur with the mediastinum when a hemothorax is present

178
Q

If a hematocrit value is <25%, what activity is allowed to be performed?

A

ADLs only

179
Q

(true/false) Bursitis only causes pain during activity

A

false

causes pain at rest

180
Q

What position of the LE precipitates ITB syndrome pain?

A

30 degrees knee FLX

will be over the lateral condyle

181
Q

What is the normal range of INR?

A

0.9 - 1.1

182
Q

What criteria are required for metabolic syndrome dx?

A

3+ of the following:

Waist:
> 40 inches (M)
>35 inches (F)

Triglycerides > 150

Elevated BP (> 130/85)

Fasting blood glucose > 100

HDL:
< 40 (M)
< 50 (F)

183
Q

What are the ACSM guidelines for obese patients?

A

Moderate intensity (40-60%)
> 5 days/wk
30-60 mins/day

184
Q

What position should be avoided during third trimester of pregnancy?

A

supine

185
Q

What movements increase pain caused by spondylisthesis?

A
  1. EXT
  2. ipsilateral SB
  3. contralateral ROT
186
Q

What movements increase pain caused by facet arthropathy?

A
  1. EXT
  2. ipsilateral ROT

no sensory/motor changes occur

187
Q

To prevent pressure ulcers, how would you position the pt when side-lying?

A

30-45 degrees

do not raise HOB above 30 degrees when supine

188
Q

What are the time limits for position change to prevent pressure wounds?

A

In bed: 2 hours
Seated: 1 hour

IF the person can move themselves: 15 mins

189
Q

What is Bakody’s test?

A

Pt actively elevates the arm through ABD and rests the hand or forearm on the top of the head.

Used to test for radicular symptoms (primarily c4/c5) - relief would indicate possible cervical extradural compression, epidural vein compression, or nerve root compression

–> ABD decreases the length of the neurological pathway and decreases the pressure on the lower nerve roots

–> TOS commonly has a negative result

190
Q

Where is pain precipitated if the pt has an iliac artery occlusion?

A
  • buttock
  • hip
  • thigh

will have absent or decreased femoral and/or distal pulses

191
Q

s/s

  • malaise
  • fatigue
  • lethargy
  • prolonged/recurrent fever
  • irritability
  • growth restriction or failure to thrive
  • SOB and/or reduced activity tolerance
  • dizziness
  • palpitations
  • bleeded diathesis
  • epistaxis
  • bleeding gums
  • easy bruising
  • bone or joint pain
  • constipation
  • prolonged cough
  • HA
  • N/V
A

Pediatric leukemia

192
Q

What muscle must a person with a T6 SCI use to clear the buttocks from the surface they’re leaving when performing a transfer?

A

Lats

QL, erector spinae, and internal oblique are not innervated

193
Q

Why are metal implants not an absolute contraindication for use of US?

A
  1. metal is not rapidly heated by US
  2. hardware is not affected
194
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Pain in the L shoulder when pressure is placed in the upper abdomen

caused by free air or blood in the abdominal cavity

195
Q

To ambulate for functional mobility, a spinal lesion must be at the ___ segment or lower

A

L3 or lower

196
Q

What causes a greater Q-angle?

A
  1. anteversion
  2. wide pelvis
  3. coxa vara
  4. genu valgum
  5. laterally displaced tibial tuberosity
197
Q

What muscles stabilize the longitudinal arch of the foot?

A

Tiialis posterior and fibularis longus

198
Q

What activity will be most difficult for a person with adhesive capsulitis?

A

Combing hair

199
Q

(true/false) TMJ hypomobility causes pain

A

false

200
Q

(true/false) TMJ synovitis has decreased mouth opening with mandibular deviation

A

false

201
Q

(true/false) TMJ capsulitis has decreased mouth opening with mandibular deviation

A

True

202
Q

Diagnosis

Chronic facial skin disorder that causes episodic redness of the cheeks, nose, chin, and forehead

A

Rosacea

Migraines accompany this dx.

SLE does NOT have migraine involvement

203
Q

What strengthening is emphasized for knee control after PCL reconstruction? Why?

A

Quadriceps strengthening due to the action of dynamic restraint to posterior tibial translation

strengthening of HS will increase posterior tibial translation - avoid

204
Q

What CN can cause hyperacusis if damaged?

Sound disorder that makes sounds unbearably loud

A

CN VII

205
Q

What CN controls submandibular and sublingual glands?

A

CN VII

will result in dry mouth/eyes if damaged

206
Q

What LE compensations are used for retroversion?

A

tibial IR
subtalar PRON

207
Q

(true/false) Greater trochanteric syndrome has neural involvement

A

False

Pain from buttock down to knee

208
Q

Diagnosis

Tissue attachments that limit the movement of the spinal cord and result in an abnormal stretching of the spinal cord

A

tethered cord

209
Q

s/s

  • back pain worsened by activity
  • LE pain and weakness
  • LE N/T
  • deterioration of gait
  • spine tenderness
  • scoliosis
  • B/B dysfunction
A

tethered cord

210
Q

What duration of capillary refill is indicative of arterial disease?

A

> 15 seconds

211
Q

What duration of capillary refill is indicative of venous disease?

A

< 15 seconds

212
Q

(true/false) Those with a C7 spinal lesion will benefit from glossopharyngeal breathing

A

FALSE

diaphragm is fully innervated

213
Q

Nocturnal pain and positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist is indicative of what diagnosis?

A

CTS

214
Q

What is Wartenberg’s syndrome?

A

entrapment of superficial branch of the radial nerve

only sensory deficits

215
Q

What is warranted if a pt has an active occlusion of an artery?

A

Bed rest

216
Q

What is thrombophlebitis?

A

clot formation and inflammation within a vein

217
Q

What is the optimal positioning of a CVA patient while in bed?

A
  1. protracted pelvis
  2. slight hip ABD and FLX
  3. slight knee FLX
  4. neutral ankle
218
Q

What movement/exercise is not advised post ACL repair?

A

OKC terminal knee EXT

will cause increased tibial translation and stress on the graft

219
Q

What deformity is caused by contracture of the soleus?

A

knee hyperEXT

compensates for lack of FWD tibial displacement during gait/stance phase

NPTE (20 decks)

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