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NPTE > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Who does medicare provide medical coverage to?

A
  1. individuals > 65 y/o
  2. disabled
  3. those with ESRD
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2
Q

What is Medicare’s prospective payment system based on?

A

Diagnostic-related groups (DRGs)

Places patients into disease categories or groups

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3
Q

(true/false) Medicare A covers all medical expenses of long-term or custodial care.

A

True

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4
Q

(true/false) Medicaid benefits are the same in all states

A

False

individual states determine the scope, duration, and amount of services provided

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5
Q

(true/false) preauthorization is needed for medicare and not medicaid.

A

FALSE (required for medicaid)

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6
Q

What must a person pay for medicare A?

A

Annual deductible fee

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7
Q

What must a person pay for medicare B?

A

Monthly premium

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8
Q

(true/false) With medicare, PT provided by a PT aide is reimbersable regardless of supervision

A

FALSE

Only SPTs

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9
Q

Insurance type that includes commercial insurance, fee-for-service / traditional indemnity plans, or employers who are self-insured

A

private health insurance

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10
Q

What is a HMO?

A

Form of managed care that provides a broad spectrum of health services for a preset amount of money

Allow members to seek healthcare outside of the network but at a higher or additional cost to the patient

Has a small copay for members using providers within the network

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11
Q

(true/false) With a HMO, a patient that is seeking additional care (such as PT), must have authorization through their PCP (“gatekeeper”)

A

true

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12
Q

(true/false) The numer of PT visits when a person is part of an HMO is unlimited

A

FALSE - limited number of visits

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13
Q

What are the two types of HMOs?

A
  1. **Individual practice associations (IPA) **- contract independently with the HMO and work out of their own office
  2. Prepaid Group plan (PGP) - physicians practice in a central facility
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14
Q

What is a PPO?

A

Group of providers that offer healthcare services as an entity to their employers - discount their fees to attract patients

Pts are not locked into the PPO providers but receive financial incentives to use services through that network

Preauthorization is needed before services can be provided

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15
Q

Definition:

A flat bundled reimbursement rate that is established based on the diagnosis- predetermined dollar amount:
- per diem / per day
- per visit
- per episode of service

A

Case-based rate

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16
Q

Definition:

Tax-free savings account that can be used to pay for health-related expenses and reiree health expenses

A

Health Savings Account

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17
Q

(true/false) Those who have a health savings account must have a high-deductible health plan

–> insurance product that covers catastrophic health occurrences

A

true

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18
Q

Stage of RA

  • joint pain and stiffness
  • no visible one damage on XR
  • slight swelling (primarily in fingers and toes)
  • fatigue and malaise
A

stage I

early RA

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19
Q

stage of RA

  • cartilage damage, stiffness, and decreased ROM
  • persistent symptoms
  • joint swelling that is more noticeable in the morning
A

stage II

moderate RA

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20
Q

stage of RA

  • bbone damage, cartilage loss, and joint deformity
  • progressed pain, stiffness, and loss of mobility
  • thickened knuckles
  • twisted fingers
  • higher risk of CTS
A

Stage III

severe RA

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21
Q

stage of RA

  • bony or fibrous ankylosis
  • severe pain, swelling, and stiffness
  • loss of mobility
A

stage IV

end-stage RA

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22
Q

What is the RPE for light exertion?

A

11-12

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23
Q

What is the RPE for hard exertion?

A

15-16

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24
Q

What is the RPE for vert hard exertion?

A

17-18

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25
Q

What is the RPE for extremely hard exertion?

A

19

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26
Q

What is the RPE for max exertion?

A

20

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27
Q

What is the RPE for no exertion?

A

6

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28
Q

(true/false) With dehydration, the pinch skin test (turgor) will present with no raising of the skin

A

FALSE

raised skin for >5 seconds

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29
Q

What is scheuermann disease?

A

Kyphosis of the spine that develops in early adolesence

juvenile kyphosis, juvenile discogenic disease

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30
Q

Describe bigemity

A

every second beat is a PVC

trigemity: every third beat is a PVC (wide QRS)

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31
Q

diagnosis

  • irregular vertebral end plates
  • anterior wedging of 3+ consecutive vertebrae that measures > 5 degrees
  • painful EXT and ROT
  • lordosis and kyphosis
  • hunchback appearance
  • disc space narrowing
A

scheuermann’s disease

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32
Q

(true/false) EXT acitivities should be avoided in those with osteoporosis

A

FALSE

FLX should be avoided due to increased risk of vertebral compression fx

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33
Q

definition

inability to localize a sensation

A

atopognosia

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34
Q

definition

loss of all pain

A

analgesia

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35
Q

definition

rhythmic oscillations of the head

A

titubation

commonly seen with cerebellar pathology

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36
Q

Those with cerebellar pathology will have (increased/decreased) DTRs and tone

A

decreased

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37
Q

What is pendular nystagmus a symptom of?

A

central vestibular pathology

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38
Q

General outline for low-rate TENS.

Pulse freq:
Pulse duration:

A

frequency: 2-10 pps
duration: 200-300 microseconds

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39
Q

General outline for high-rate TENS.

pulse freq:
pulse duration

A

frequency: 100-150 pps
duration: 50-80 microseconds

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40
Q

What is the cullen sign? What diagnosis does it rule in?

A

Blue discoloration of the periumbilical area

Indicates acute pancreatitis

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41
Q

What is the Grey Turner’s sign? What diagnosis does it rule in?

A

red-brown coloring of the abdomen

indicates hemorrhagic pancreatitis

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42
Q

What gait deviation can a lesion of the superior gluteal nerve cause?

A

ipsilateral trunk lean

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43
Q

What gait deviation can a lesion of the inferior gluteal nerve cause?

A

posterior thrust of the trunk at initial contact

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44
Q

What is Blumberg’s sign? What does it indicate?

A

Rebound tenderness indicating appendicitis

45
Q

What is the pinch an inch test for appendicitis?

A

Pinch a fold of skin over McBurney’s point and look for pain

46
Q

What happens to the piriformis at 120 degrees of FLX

A

Switches actions

becomes a IR and ABD

47
Q

What causes cushing’s disease?

A

tumor on the pituitary gland causing an increased level of ACTH and cortisol to bbe released from the adrenal gland

48
Q

What drug class is candesartan from?

A

angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB)

regulates HTN, HF, and A-fib

Side effects: hypotension and increased potassium

49
Q

What is telangiectasia?

A

Spider web-like skin condition

50
Q

What is the presentation of homonymous hemianopsia with a R CVA?

A

Left homonymous hemianopsia with the image displayed on the right side of visual field

51
Q

What are meissner’s corpuscles used for?

A

discriminative touch and movement of objects over the skin

52
Q

What are ruffini endings used for?

A

joint position

53
Q

What are krause’s end bulbs used for?

A

touch and pressure

54
Q

What are pacinian corpuscles used for?

A

deep touch and vibration

55
Q

What type of cough will be present with an aortic aneurysm?

A

Brassy

56
Q

What is the correct exsc prescription for inspiratory muscle training?

A

minimum 4-5 x/wk with 30% max inspiratory pressure measured at FRC
2x15 min/day

57
Q

What structures are affected by horner’s syndrome?

A
  • descending sympathetic tracts
  • CN IX
  • CN X
  • spinothalamic tract
58
Q

What is the triad for horner’s syndrome?

A

miosis (constricted pupils), ptosis, decreased sweating

59
Q

What causes locked-in syndrome?

A

complete block of the basilar artery

causes tetraplegia and coma with NO impact to cognition

60
Q

What movements must you avoid with anterior THA?

A

FABER

Also transfer to sound side

61
Q

Describe homan’s sign

A

passive DF with knee EXT

(+) discomfort

62
Q

What is homan’s sign used to identify?

A

DVT

63
Q

What is Cozens test? What is it used for?

A

Resisted wrist EXT

lateral epicondylitis

64
Q

What are the aggs of spondylolisthesis?

A

repetitive EXT and standing/bending to lift objects

65
Q

What alleviates pain caused by spondylisthesis?

A

sitting

66
Q

(true/false) A side effect of TB medication is red-orange discoloration of body fluid

A

true

67
Q

What movements are limited with avascular necrosis of the hip?

A

FABIR

68
Q

(true/false) Maternal RR during pregnancy adapts to mild exercise and increases proportionately with moderate and high intensity exercise

A

False: RR adapts to mild exercise but will NOT increase proportionately with moderate or high intensity exercise

69
Q

Maternal hematocrit (increases/decreases) during pregnancy.

A

decreases

will increase with vigorous exercise

70
Q

What will occur with maternal cardiac reserve during exercise while pregnant?

A

will decrease

71
Q

What will occur with maternal CO and SV during steady state exercise while pregnant?

A

increase

72
Q

What are calcium channel blockers commonly used for?

A

arrythmias

73
Q

diagnosis

  • net-like pattern on XR
  • dry cough
  • fatigue
  • weakness
  • SOB
  • weight loss and decreased appetite
A

pulmonary fibrosis

74
Q

How long does normal bone healing occur in children?

A

4-8 wks

75
Q

How long does normal bone healing occur in adults?

A

10-18 wks

76
Q

What degree of burn is most likely to develop a keloid scar?

A

deep-partial thickness

77
Q

Atelectasis pulls the trachea to the (Same/opposite) side

A

same

78
Q

Pneumothorax pushes the trachea to the (same/opposite) side

A

opposite

79
Q

What nerve injury causes the hand of benediction?

A

median nerve

2nd and 3rd digits are stuck in EXT

80
Q

What is milroy’s disease?

A

genetic condition that affects the lymphatic system and causes fluid build up in the body resulting in swelling

Type I hereditary lymphedema, congenital familial lymphedema

81
Q

For a pt with a meniscus tear, do not perform FLX > ___ degrees for the first 4 weeks

A

> 45

82
Q

A persistent _____ reflex will interfere with the crawling milestone of an infant

A

STNR

83
Q

A persistent ____ reflex will interfere with hand-mouth activities and predisposes the child to developing scoliosis

A

ATNR

84
Q

A persistent ____ reflex will interfere with rolling activities in an infant?

A

Tonic labyrinthine

85
Q

Type of posture

  • pelvis shifts anteriorly causing the hips and knees to be hyperEXT causing a flat back
  • favored leg tends to be longer in standing
  • elongated neck flexors
A

swayback

86
Q

diagnosis

  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • cyanosis
  • decreased CO
  • peripheral vasodilation
A

neurogenic shock

can be mistaken as autonomic dysreflexia (increased BP and tachycardia)

87
Q

What is V-tach?

A

3+ consecutive PVCs

emergency

88
Q

Terminate exercise if there is more than ____ PVCs within one minute

A

6+

89
Q

Describe the stork test and what it is used for.

A

Pt stands on ipsilateral leg resulting in pain within the lumbar region

Identifies possible pars interarticularis Fx (spondylothesis)

90
Q

Chronic pedal edema is an important symptom to identify with what type of insufficiency?

A

chronic venous insufficiency

91
Q

What are side effects of thiazides?

A
  • frequent urination
  • cramps
  • weakness
  • nausea
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypokalemia
  • postural hypotension
  • flat or inverted T waves
92
Q

What structure regulates the stimulation of the SNS?

A

hypothalamus

93
Q

What is aldosterone used for?

A

regulation of fluid balance and BP

94
Q

What acute changes occur after aerobic exercise?

SV
CO
minute ventilation
total peripheral resistance

A

increased
increased
increased
decreased

95
Q

central cord syndrome has greater (motor/sensory) deficits

A

motor > sensory

96
Q

central cord syndrome has more (LE/UE) neuro involvement

A

UE

97
Q

paralysis agitans

A

PD

98
Q

uncoordinated goal-directed action

A

dysmetria

99
Q

March Fx

A

metatarsal stress FX

100
Q

Peroneal nerve palsy

A

drop foot

101
Q

radial nerve palsy

A

wrist drop

102
Q

acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy

A

GBS

103
Q

iliopsoas muscle test

A

thomas test

104
Q

Paratendonitis of APL and EPB

A

de quervain’s

105
Q

Bamboo spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis

106
Q

Marie strumpell disease

A

ankylosing spondylitis

107
Q

Crutch palsy

A

radial nerve compression

108
Q

athletic pubalgia

A

sports hernia

109
Q

FDP tendon rupture

A

jersey finger

NPTE (20 decks)

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