Immune and GI systems Flashcards
What are the proteins to “tag” antigens?
- antibodies
- immunoglobulins
What are the primary cells of the immune system?
Lymphocytes
What are the type of lymphocytes?
T and B
What does the thymus produce?
produces mature T lymphocytes
What is the primary central gland of the immune system?
thymus
(true/false) The thymus is not fully developed until puberty.
FALSE - thymus is fully developed at birth and then reaches maximal size at puberty
What happens to the thymus as a person ages?
Decreases in size and is slowly replaced by adipose tissue.
What do the lymph nodes produce?
- lymphocytes
- monocytes
- plasma cells
What is the function of the spleen?
- Filters antigens from the blood
- produces leukocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes, and plasma cells in response to infection
- Produces RBC and WBC while in embryo
Only produces lymphocytes after birth unless severe anemia exists
During an adaptive immune response, slower acting defences are mediated by what?
lymphocytes
Definition
Classification of diseases characterized by depressed or absent immune responses.
immunodeficiency diseases
What causes primary immunodeficiency disorders?
Defect in T cells, B cells, or lymphoid tissue
definition
Classification of diagnoses characterized by immune system responses directed against the body’s normal tissues; self-destructive processes impair the body functioning
autoimmune diseases
What is HIV?
A virus that weakens the immune system and destroys cells that fight disease and infection
- CD4+ helper cells, resulting in CD4+ T lymphocytopenia (major immune system defect)
What are the stages of HIV?
Stage 1: flu-like illness within 2-4 wks after exposure/infection
stage 2 (clinical latency): asymptomatic HIV infection or chronic HIV infection that can last a decade or longer
Stage 3 (AIDS): most severe phase; mass destruction of cells resulting in the immune system not being able to fight off disease or illness
How is HIV spread?
Body fluids
Rare: during pregnancy, birth, or breastfeeding
(true/false) HIV can be transmitted through saliva, tears or sweat.
FALSE (unless blood is present)
(true/false) AIDS can be contracted through respiratory inhalation, skin contact, or human waste
FALSE
What is the regular range of CD4?
500-1200 cells/mm
What is used to diagnose AIDS?
- CD4 cell count < 200 cells/mm or if they develop opportunistic illnesses - have a high viral load and are very infectious
- presence of acute symptoms secondary to immune system deficiency (AIDS-Related Complex (ARC))
What is AIDS-related complex (ARC)?
presence of acute symptoms secondary to immune system deficiency
What are the s/s of HIV?
- flu-like symptoms that resolve within a few weeks
(true/false) Getting tested is the only way to diagnose HIV.
true
What are the s/s of AIDS?
- presence of opportunistic infections
- malignancies
- neural conditions
- deconditioning
- anxiety and depression
What opportunistic infections that are considered as AIDS-defining conditions?
- PNA
- candidiasis
- cytomegalovirus
- toxoplasmosis
What is the most common malignancy caused by AIDS?
Kaposki’s sarcoma and non-hodgkins lymphoma
What neuro conditions can be seen with AIDS?
- AIDS dementia complex
- focal encephalitis
- meningitis
- herpes zoster
(true/false) Some patients with AIDS may exhibit a brief, early, nonspecific viral HIV infection and then remain asymptomatic for years.
True
(true/false) antibiotics cure HIV infections
FALSE (no cure for HIV)
Those with HIV will progress to having ____ if not treated.
AIDS
What medication does not cure HIV but does keep those with HIV healthy for many years if taken consistently and correctly?
Antiretroviral therapies (ARTs)
Antiviral drugs reduce the amount of virus (viral load) in the system
What does a retrovirus do?
Replicates in reverse fashion (RNA code is transcribed into DNA)
What are common side affects of ARTs?
- N/V
- diarrhea
- HA
- dizziness
- fatigue
- pain
- rash
(True/false) a person experiencing an acute episode of HIV can participate in exercise testing.
FALSE - no exercise testing during acute infections
Avoid intense exercise with symptomatic individuals due to possible immune suppression occurring
What does staphylococcus aureus commonly begin as?
localized infection through skin portal
Bacterial invasion and spread is through the bloodstream or lymphatic system to almost any body location
What do staphylococcus aureus infections produce on the skin?
Pus formation and abscess
Diagnosis
- swollen, painful red bumps that can quickly progress to an abscess with pus/drainage inside
- area around abscess is warm to the touch
- fever
- possibility to produce life-threatening infections in the body
MRSA
(true/false) MRSA can be treated and reappear in the same individual
true
(true/false) Vancomycin-resistanct staphylococcus aureus (VRSA) can be a life-threatening infection
true
The following are examples of what type of infection:
- pharyngitis
- rheumatic fever
- scarlet fever
- impetigo
- necrotizing fasciitis (gangrene)
- cellulitis
- myositis
Group A streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
What population commonly experiences Group BB streptococcal infections (S. agalactiae)?
Neonatal and adults
The following are examples of what type infection:
- PNA
- otitis media
- meningitis
- endocarditis
Group 3 streptococcus (S. pneumoniae)
What are the early symptoms of lyme disease?
Within 3-30 days of tick bite
- fever
- chills
- swollen lymph nodes
- HA
- muscle and joint aching
- fatigue
- bulls-eye rash
What are the symptoms of lyme disease if left untreated?
Days to months after tick bite
- severe HA and neck stiffness
- arthritis is joint pain and swelling
- palpitations and/or irregular heartbeat (lyme endocarditis)
- inflammation of brain and spinal cord
- nerve pain
- shooting pain
- N/T in hands and feet
- palsy
- issues with short-term memory
What is it called when symptoms of lyme disease linger for months or years after treatment of an acute infection?
10% of cases
Post-lyme disease syndrome (PLDS)
What is the cause of PLDS?
unknown- individuals are asymptomatic in the absence of clinically detectable infection
What are symptoms of PLDS?
- MSK pain
- fatigue
- impaired cognition
- difficulty sleeping
- unexplained numbness
(true/false) An extended course of antibiotics has been proven beneficial for treatment of PLDS.
false
treatment is symptomatic-based (analgesics, antidepressants, and psychotherapy) and most patients recover with time
Diagnosis
- rash with the site of bite being black or crusted
- caused by a tick
- fever and chills
- muscle aches
- confusion
- N/V
- neuro changes
Rocky mountain spotted fever
What are possible complications of rocky mountain spotted fever?
- encephalitis
- inflammation of heart and lungs
- heart failure
- kidney failure
- serious infection in fingers in toes (possible amputation)
- death (if untreated)
Complications of rocky mountain spotted fever can be avoided if treatment is started within ___ days of developing symptoms
5 days
(true/false) MRSA can be contracted via indirect and direct contact to infected person
true
Plasma makes up ___% of of total blood volume
55%
91% water, 7% protein, 2-3% other small molecules
What are the plasma proteins?
- albumin
- globulins
- fibrinogen
What is plasma without the clotting factors?
serum
RBCs make up ___% of the total blood volume
45%
What is the function of erythropoietin?
hormone that regulates RBC production
How long do most RBCs last?
120 days
(true/false) RBC count varies with age, activity, and environmental conditions
true
Leukocytes make up __% of total blood volume
1%
What is the function of leukocytes (WBCs)?
function in immune responses as phagocytes of bacteria, fungi, toxic proteins, and viruses
Where are leukocytes produced?
bone marrow
Along with RBCs
What are the 5 types of leukocytes?
- lymphocytes
- monocytes (agranulocytes)
- neutrophils
- basophils
- eosinophils (granulocytes)
definition
The normal function and generation of blood cells in bone marrow
hematopoiesis
What regulates production, differentiation, and function of blood cells?
Cytokines and growth factors acting on blood-forming cells
What is ESR?
Rate of RBCs to clot
What is indicated when ESR is elevated?
presence of inflammation
What are the normal values of ESR?
Male: <15 mm/hr
Female: <20 mm/hr
What is hemostasis?
Termination of blood flow by mechanical or chemical processes
What are examples of hemostasis?
- vasospasm
- platelet aggregation
- thrombin and fibrin synthesis
What does blood clotting require?
- platelets (produced in bone marrow)
- Von Willebbrand’s factor (produced by endothelium of BVs)
- clotting factors from the liver using vitamin K
What is fibrinolysis?
clot dissolution that prevents excess clot formation
Atherosclerosis, DM, elevated blood lipids, and cholestrol have a (decreased/increased) platelet function.
increased platelet function
(true/false) A person with a hypocoagulopathy disorder has no limitations for exercise.
FALSE: strenuous exercise contraindicated due to risk of increased hemorrhage
Diagnosis
Condition of inadequate blood flow to the body tissues that is associated with hypotension, inadequate cardiac output, and changes in peripheral blood flow resistance
shock
What causes hypovolemic shock?
Hemorrhage, vomiting, or diarrhea
What is progressive shock associated with?
- restlessness and anxiety
- weakness
- lethargy
- pallor with cool and moist skin
- decreased body temperature
diagnosis
- fatigue and weakness with minimal exertion
- DOE
- pallor or yellow skin of the face, hands, nails, or lips
- tachycardia
- bleeding gums, mucus membranes, or skin w/o trauma
- possible hypoxic damage to the liver and kidney
- possible heart failure
anemia
(true/false) patients with anemia have a normal exercise tolerance.
FALSE- decreased tolerance
Use RPE scale and closely monitor vital signs
diagnosis
Group of inherited, autosomal recessive RBC disorders; Hgb and the size and shape of RBCs are abnormal
sickle cell disease
Types: HbSS, HbSC, HbS, beta thalassemia, HgSD, HbSE, HbSO
What shape are the RBCs when sickle-cell disease is present?
crescent
diagnosis
Hgb is released from the abnormal RBCs into the plasma resulting in decreased oxygen delivery into the tissues
- results from bone marrow aplasia, hemolysis, folate deficiency, splenic involvement
Chronic hemolyic anemia (sickle cell anemia)
What are the s/s of sickle cell crisis?
- pain caused by clots in joints, organs, and/or bone
- acute abdominal pain from visceral hypoxia
- swelling in the hands and feet
- persistent HA
- dizziness
- convulsions
- coma
- nystagmus
- chest pain
- dyspnea
- coughing
- tachypnea
definition
rapid drop in hemoglobin levels
anemic crisis
definition
characterized by severe anemia associated with acute viral, bacterial, or fungal infection. Results in an increased risk of infection
aplastic crisis
What is the MOI of hydrooxyurea?
stimulates Hgb production
(heat/cold) therapy is contraindicated with sickle cell anemia.
Cold therapy is contraindicated due to vasoconstriction and sickling
What intensity of exercise is most appropriate for a person with sickle cell disease?
low to moderate level exercise
High intensity exercise leads to dehydration and may increase the risk of sickle cell crisis
What is hemophilia?
bleeding disorders inherited as a sex-linked recessive disorder
Who is commonly diagnosed with hemophilia?
affects males
females are carriers
What is the most common clotting factor deficiency?
Clotting factor VIII eficiency (hemophilia A)
What is another name for hemophilia B?
Christmas disease/clotting factor ix deficiency