Molecular Basis of Inheritance (last 10 yeas) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs? (2022)

a. 6.6 × 106 bp
b. 3.3 × 109 bp
c. 6.6 × 109 bp
d. 3.3 × 106 bp

A

b. 3.3 × 109 bp

NCERT
DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.

The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides
(or a pair of nucleotide referred to as base pairs) present in it.

This also is the characteristic of an organism.

For example, a bacteriophage known as φ ×174 has 5386 nucleotides,
Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 base pairs (bp), Escherichia coli has 4.6 × 106 bp, and

haploid content of human DNA is 3.3 × 109 bp.

.

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2
Q
  1. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements (2022)

A. Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
B. Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
C. Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
D. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
E. A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
a. A, C and E only
b. B, D and E only
c. A, C and D only
d. B and E only

A

c. A, C and D only

NCERT
A. Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
C. Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
D. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

NCERT
A. Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins. In a typical nucleus, some
region of chromatin are loosely packed (and stains light) and are referred to as euchromatin

B. Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally active chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is inactive

C. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome

D. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine.

E. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix

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3
Q
  1. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (2021)

Insert the image

a. (A)-Translation;(B)-Replication; (C)-Transcription;(D)- Transduction

b. (A)-Replication;(B)-Transcription; (C)-Translation; (D)-Protein

c. (A)-Transduction;(B)-Translation; (C)-Replication; (D)-Protein

d. (A)-Replication;(B)-Transcription (C)-Transduction;(D)-Protein

A

b. (A)-Replication;(B)-Transcription; (C)-Translation; (D)-Protein

NCERT
Very soon, Francis Crick proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology, which states that the genetic information flows from DNA arrow RNA arrow Protein.

Add the image

.

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4
Q
  1. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it? (2021)

a. T : 20; G : 20; C : 30
b. T : 30; G : 20; C : 20
c. T : 20; G : 25; C : 25
d. T : 20; G : 30; C : 20

A

b. T : 30; G : 20; C : 20

NCERT
Observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a double stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one.

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5
Q
  1. Which one of the following statement about histones is wrong? (2021)

a. The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
b. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.
c. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
d. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.

A

a. The pH of histones is slightly acidic.

NCERT
a. In eukaryotes, this organization is much more complex. There is a set of positively charged, basic
proteins called histones.

b. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and arginine.

c. A protein acquires charge depending upon the abundance of amino acids
residues with charged side chains. Both the amino acid residues carry positive charges
in their side chains.

d. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct? (2020)

a. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
b. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
c. Adenine does not pair with thymine.
d. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.

A

d. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.

NCERT
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine from opposite strand and vice-versa.
Similarly, Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds.

The rule is that Adenine pairs with Thymine through two H-bonds, and Guanine with
Cytosine through three H-bonds. This makes one strand complementary to the other

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7
Q
  1. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately: (2020)

a. 2.5 meters
b. 2.2 meters
c. 2.7 meters
d. 2.0 meters

A

b. 2.2 meters

NCERT
Taken the distance between two consecutive base pairs as 0.34 nm (0.34×10–9 m), if the length of DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is calculated

(simply by multiplying the total number of bp with distance between two consecutive bp, that is,
6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10-9m/bp), it comes out to be approximately 2.2 metres

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8
Q
  1. In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of: (2020-Covid)

a. 3’C pentose sugar
b. 5’C pentose sugar
c. 1’C pentose sugar
d. 2’C pentose sugar

A

c. 1’C pentose sugar

NCERT
A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1’ C pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic
linkage to form a nucleoside, such as adenosine or deoxyadenosine,
guanosine or deoxyguanosine, cytidine or deoxycytidine and uridine or deoxythymidine.

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9
Q
  1. E. Coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and completes the process of replication within 18 minutes; then the average rate of polymerization is approximately- (2020-Covid)

a. 3000 base pairs/second
b. 4000 base pairs/second
c. 1000 base pairs/second
d. 2000 base pairs/second

A

d. 2000 base pairs/second

In living cells, such as E. coli, the process of replication requires a set of catalysts (enzymes).

The main enzyme is referred to as DNA-dependent DNA polymerase, since it uses a DNA template to catalyze the polymerization of deoxynucleotides.

These enzymes are highly efficient enzymes as they have to catalyze polymerization of a large number of nucleotides in a very short time.

E. coli that has only 4.6 ×106 bp (compare it with human whose diploid content is 6.6 × 109 bp), completes the process of replication within 18 minutes; that means the average rate of polymerization has to be approximately 2000 bp per second.

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10
Q
  1. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are (2019)

a. Adenine and thymine
b. Adenine and guanine
c. Guanine and cytosine
d. Cytosine and thymine

A

b. Adenine and guanine

There are two types of nitrogenous bases – Purines (Adenine and Guanine), and Pyrimidines (Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine).

Cytosine is common for both DNA and RNA and Thymine is present in
DNA.

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11
Q
  1. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates: (2017-Delhi)

a. Transcription is occurring
b. DNA replication is occurring
c. The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre
d. The DNA double helix is exposed

A

c. The DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre

NCERT (add the image)
The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome (Figure 5.4 a).

A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.

Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called chromatin, threadlike stained (coloured) bodies seen in nucleus.

The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed under
electron microscope (EM) (Figure 5.4 b).

Theoretically, how many such beads (nucleosomes) do you imagine are present in a mammalian cell?

The beads-on-string structure in chromatin is packaged to form chromatin fibers that are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage of cell division to form chromosomes

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12
Q
  1. DNA fragments are: (2017-Delhi)

a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Neutral
d. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

A

b. Negatively charged

NCERT
DNA (being negatively charged) is held with some proteins (that have positive
charges) in a region termed as ‘nucleoid’. The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by
proteins.

The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome

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13
Q
  1. Identify the correct order of organization of genetic material from largest to smallest: (2015 Re)

a. Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
b. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
c. Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
d. Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide

A

b. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

(see this question)

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14
Q
  1. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA Fill in the blanks A to C: (2013)

insert an image

a. A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
b. A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson
c. A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erwin Chargaff
d. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

A

d. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

NCERT
Very soon, Francis Crick proposed the Central dogma in molecular biology, which states that the genetic information flows from DNA arrow RNA arrow Protein.

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15
Q
  1. Ten E.coli with 15N- dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N? (2022)

a. 80 cells
b. 20 cells
c. 40 cells
d. 60 cells

A

d. 60 cells

(see in NCERT)

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16
Q
  1. The term ‘Nuclein’ for the genetic material was used by: (2020-Covid)

a. Meischer
b. Chargaff
c. Mendel
d. Franklin

A

a. Meischer

NCERT
DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by
Friedrich Meischer in 1869. He named it as ‘Nuclein’.

Even though the discovery of nuclein by Meischer and the proposition for principles of inheritance by Mendel were almost at the same time, but that the DNA acts as a genetic material took long to be discovered and proven.

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17
Q
  1. The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was first shown in a: (2018)

a. Fungus
b. Bacterium
c. Plant
d. Virus

A

b. Bacterium

NCERT
It is now proven that DNA replicates semiconservatively. It was shown first in Escherichia coli and subsequently in higher organisms, such as plants

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18
Q
  1. Select the correct match (2018)

a. Ribozyme Nucleic acid
b. F2 × Recessive parent Dihybrid cross
c. T.H. Morgan Transduction
d. G. Mendel Transformation

A

a. Ribozyme Nucleic acid

NCERT
A. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria
is the enzyme- ribozyme) for the formation of peptide bond.

One of the rRNA acts as a catalyst for peptide bond formation, which is an example of RNA enzyme (ribozyme).

(couldn’t find the other options)

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19
Q
  1. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of (2017-Delhi)

a. Griffith
b. Hershey and Chase
c. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
d. Hargobind Khorana

A

b. Hershey and Chase

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20
Q
  1. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except: (2016 - II)

a. It should be unstable structurally and chemically

b. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

c. It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

d. It should be able to generate its replica

A

a. It should be unstable structurally and chemically

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21
Q
  1. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove semi- conservative mode of chromosome replication on: (2016 - II)

a. Drosophila melanogaster
b. E. coli
c. Vinca rosea
d. Vicia faba

A

d. Vicia faba

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria? (2016 - II)

a. 23 S rRNA
b. 5.8 S rRNA
c. 5 S rRNA
d. 18 S rRNA

A

a. 23 S rRNA

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23
Q
  1. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are: (2015)

a. G = 17%, A = 33%, T = 33%
b. G = 8.5 %, A = 50 %, T = 24.5 %
c. G = 34%, A = 24.5%, T = 24.5%
d. G = 17%, A = 16.5%, T = 32.5%

A

a. G = 17%, A = 33%, T = 33%

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24
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA? (2015 Re)

a. 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends
b. Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
c. Chargaff’s rule
d. Complementary base pairing

A

c. Chargaff’s rule

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25
Q
  1. Transformation was discovered by: (2014)

a. Watson and Crick
b. Messelson and Stahl
c. Hershey and Chase
d. Griffith

A

d. Griffith

26
Q
  1. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate (2017-Delhi)

a. The leading strand towards replication fork
b. The lagging strand towards replication fork
c. The leading strand away from replication fork
d. The lagging strand away from the replication fork

A

d. The lagging strand away from the replication fork

27
Q
  1. Select the correct option: (2014)

Direction of RNA synthesis Direction of reading of the template DNA strand

a. 3′ → 5′ 3′ → 5′

b. 5′ → 3′ 3′ → 5′

c. 3′ → 5′ 5′ → 3′

d. 5′ → 3′ 5′ → 3′

A

b. 5′ → 3′ 3′ → 5′

28
Q
  1. What is the role of RNA ploymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes? (2021)

a. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and sn RNA
b. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
c. Transcribes only snRNAs
d. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

A

a. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and sn RNA

29
Q
  1. Identify the correct statement. (2021)

a. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.

b. The coding strand in transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.

c. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.

d. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3′ end of hnRNA of transcription in bacteria.

A

a. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.

30
Q
  1. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes? (2021)

a. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
b. DNA Ligase
c. DNase
d. DNA dependent DNA polymerase

A

a. DNA dependent RNA polymerase

31
Q
  1. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription. (2020)

a. DNA helicase
b. DNA polymerase
c. RNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase

A

c. RNA polymerase

32
Q
  1. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA? (2018)

a. AGGUAUCGCAU
b. UGGTUTCGCAT
c. ACCUAUGCGAU
d. UCCAUAGCGUA

A

a. AGGUAUCGCAU

33
Q
  1. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of: (2017-Delhi)

a. Plants
b. Fungi
c. Animals
d. Bacteria

A

d. Bacteria

34
Q
  1. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell? (2017-Delhi)

a. r-RNA
b. t-RNA
c. m-RNA
d. mi-RNA

A

a. r-RNA

35
Q
  1. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the: (2016 - II)

a. Alpha strand
b. Antistrand
c. Template strand
d. Coding strand

A

c. Template strand

36
Q
  1. Statement I: The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and
    phenylalanine.

Statement II: ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the
amino acid lysine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (2021)

a. Both statement I and statement II are false
b. Statement I is correct but statement II is false
c. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
d. Both statement I and statement II are true

A

c. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

37
Q
  1. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA? (2019)

5′AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3′

a. Insertion of G at 5th position
b. Deletion of G from 5th position
c. Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions respectively
d. Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

A

d. Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions

38
Q
  1. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by recombinant DNA technology? (2019)

a. Genetic code is not ambiguous
b. Genetic code is redundant
c. Genetic code is nearly universal
d. Genetic code is specific

A

c. Genetic code is nearly universal

39
Q
  1. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many
    codons will be altered? (2017-Delhi)

a. 1
b. 11
c. 33
d. 333

A

c. 33

40
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the starter codon? (2016 - I)

a. AUG
b. UGA
c. UAA
d. UAG

A

a. AUG

41
Q
  1. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as: (2022)

a. The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

b. The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

c. The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

d. Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA

A

b. The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA

42
Q
  1. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein? (2021)

a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. siRNA
d. mRNA

A

c. siRNA

43
Q
  1. The first phase of translation is: (2020)

a. Recognition of DNA molecule
b. Aminoacylation of tRNA
c. Recognition of an anti-codon
d. Binding of mRNA to ribosome

A

b. Aminoacylation of tRNA

44
Q
  1. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (2014)

a. Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
b. Transcription-Writing information from DNA to tRNA
c. Translation-Using information in mRNA to make protein
d. Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

A

b. Transcription-Writing information from DNA to tRNA

45
Q
  1. In an E.coil strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome? (2022)

a. RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
b. Only z gene will get transcribed
c. z, y, a genes will be transcribed
d. z, y, a genes will not be translated

A

d. z, y, a genes will not be translated

46
Q
  1. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products : (2019)

A. i gene i. β-galactosidase

B. z gene ii. Permease

C. a gene iii. Repressor

D. y gene iv. Transacetylase

Select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C) (D)
a. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
b. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
c. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
d. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

A

c. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

47
Q
  1. Select the correct match: (2018)

a. Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
c. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
d. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

A

d. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

48
Q
  1. All of the following are part of an operon except: (2018)

a. An operator
b. Structural genes
c. An enhancer
d. A promoter

A

c. An enhancer

49
Q
  1. The equivalent of a structural gene is: (2016 - II)

a. Operon
b. Recon
c. Muton
d. Cistron

A

d. Cistron

50
Q
  1. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is: (2015)

a. Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription

b. Feedback inhibition because excess of β-galactosidase can switch off transcription

c. Positive and inducible because it can be induced lactose

d. Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

A

d. Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

51
Q
  1. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene? (2013)

a. Lactose permease and transacetylase
b. β-galactosidase
c. Lactose permease
d. Transacetylase

A

b. β-galactosidase

52
Q
  1. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of: (2022)

a. Translation
b. Genetic mapping
c. DNA finger printing
d. Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

A

d. Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

53
Q
  1. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by
    him is called as: (2022)

a. Bioinformatics
b. Sequence annotation
c. Gene mapping
d. Expressed sequence tags

A

b. Sequence annotation

54
Q
  1. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as: (2021)

a. Repetitive DNA
b. Single nucleotides
c. Polymorphic DNA
d. Satellite DNA

A

a. Repetitive DNA

55
Q
  1. Which is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as well as DNA finger printing?
    (2020-Covid)

a. Single nucleotide polymorphism
b. Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
c. Polymorphism in RNA sequence
d. Polymorphism in DNA sequence

A

d. Polymorphism in DNA sequence

56
Q
  1. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to : (2019)

a. Genes expressed as RNA
b. Polypeptide expression
c. DNA polymorphism
d. Novel DNA sequences

A

a. Genes expressed as RNA

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present? (2016 - I)

a. Polymerase chain reaction
b. Zinc finger analysis
c. Restriction enzymes
d. DNA-DNA hybridisation

A

b. Zinc finger analysis

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon? (2016 - I)

a. Glucose
b. Galactose
c. Lactose
d. Lactose and Galactose

A

c. Lactose

59
Q
  1. Satellite DNA is important because it: (2015 Re)

a. Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which are heritable form parents to children.

b. Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population

c. Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication

d. Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.

A

a. Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which are heritable form parents to children.

60
Q
  1. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are: (2014)

a. T/A Cloning Vectors
b. T-DNA
c. BAC and YAC
d. Expression Vectors

A

c. BAC and YAC

61
Q
  1. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use: (2014)

a. PCR
b. Electrophoresis
c. Blotting
d. Autoradiography

A

a. PCR