Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology and Microbiology > Module 9 part 2 > Flashcards

Module 9 part 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

main groups of enteric bacteria

A

enterobacteriaceae, cibrionaceae, bacteriodaceae, and pseudomonadacaea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

E. coli, klebsiella, shigella, and Salmonella are which group of enteric bacteria?

A

enterobacteriaceae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What enteric bacteria cannot ferment lactose?

A

Salmonella, shigella, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bile salts in this growth medium inhibit gram positive bacteria, and lactose fermenters turn pink-purple

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This medium inhibits gram positive bacteria, makes lactose fermenters turn deep purple or black, and E. coli looks metallic green

A

EMB agar (eosin methylene blue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 major surface antigens of enterics

A

O, K, and H antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antigen that is the most external component of the LPS

A

O antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antigenic capsule that covers the O antigen

A

K antigen (think Kapsule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antigen that makes up the subunits of bacterial flagella, so only motile bacteria have this antigen

A

H antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 main types of diseases caused by enterics

A

diarrhea and other infections (UTI, pneumonia, bacteremia, sepsis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 types of intestinal enteric invasion that cause diarrhea

A

no cell invasion (release exotoxins), invasion of intestinal epithelial cells, and invasion of lymph nodes and blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Enterotoxigenic bacteria

A

E coli and V cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enteroinvasive bacteria

A

E. coli, Shigella, and salmonella enteritidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enteric bacteria that invade lymph nodes and blood stream

A

Salmonella typhi, Yersinia enterocolitica, and Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common nosocomial gram neg bacteria

A

E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, proteus mirabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does E. coli acquire virulence?

A

conjugation via plasmid exchange, lysogenic conversion via temperate bacteriophages, and direct transposon mediated DNA insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Virulence factors of E. coli

A

mucosal adherence with pili and invading intestinal epithelial cells, exotoxin production by LT, ST, and shiga-like toxin, endotoxin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes traveler’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Virulence factor of enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

pili bind to intestinal epithelia and release heat labile (LT) exotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Variation of E. coli that secretes shiga-like toxin or verotoxin

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does EHEC cause disease?

A

inhibits 60S ribosome which inhibits protein synthesis and results in intestinal epithelial cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disease is associated with EHEC E. coli 0157:H7 found in infected meat?

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome (with anemia, thrombocytopenia, and uremia (renal failure))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Main virulence factor for enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

A

plasmid, shared by Shigella too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does E. coli cause UTI’s?

A

pili help it travel up the urethra to cause cystitis and sometimes pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Second most common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

E. coli meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most common cause of gram negative sepsis due to the lipid A component of the LPS

A

E. coli sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Enteric with a capsule but is non-motile (no H antigen)

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2nd most common cause of nosocomial sepsis

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 species of Shigella

A

dysenteriae, flexneri, boydii, and sonnei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What enteric has no flagella, does not ferment lactose, or produce H2S?

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

transmission method of Shigella

A

fecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Clinical symptoms of Shigella infection

A

diarrhea with flecks of bright red blood and pus, and shallow ulcers in colon found on colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Structure of Shiga toxin

A

A subunit and 5 B subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which subunit of Shiga toxin is responsible for the toxicity

A

A subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Enteric with flagella, produces H2s but does not ferment lactose

A

Salmonella

36
Q

Virulence factor for Salmonella

A

Vi antigen around the O antigen that protects it from antibody attack

37
Q

Polysaccharide capsule around the O antigen on Salmonella

A

Vi antigen

38
Q

3 main serotypes of Salmonella

A

Salmonella typhi, S. cholerae-suis, and S. enteritidis

39
Q

most common places Salmonella is found

A

undercooked chicken and eggs

40
Q

Which type of Salmonella is not zoonotic and only carried by humans?

A

Salmonella typhi

41
Q

Disease also called enteric fever

A

Typhoid fever

42
Q

Transmission route of Typhoid fever

A

fecal-oral

43
Q

What does typhoid invade in the body?

A

intestinal epithelium first, then lymph nodes then multiple organ systems

44
Q

What bacteria is also known as a facultative intracellular parasite?

A

S. typhi

45
Q

How long does salmonellosis take to develop?

A

1-3 weeks after exposure

46
Q

Antibiotics to treat typhoid

A

cipro and ceftriaxone

47
Q

Who are prone to salmonella infections?

A

no spleen or sickle cell anemic

48
Q

Where do ‘carrier state’ patients harbor S. typhi?

A

in their gallbladder

49
Q

What form of salmonella causes sepsis usually?

A

S. cholerae-suis

50
Q

How does the immune system clear encapsulated bacteria

A

opsonizing it w antibodies

51
Q

What immune cells in the spleen phagocytize Salmonella bacteria?

A

macrophages and neutrophils

52
Q

Most common type of salmonella infection caused by everything but typhoid

A

diarrhea/gastroenteritis

53
Q

Treatment for Salmonella gasstroenteritis

A

fluid and electrolyte replacement, NOT antibiotics

54
Q

Curved gram neg rod with a single polar flagellum

A

Vibrio cholerae

55
Q

Transmission route for cholera

A

fecal-oral route

56
Q

name of cholera toxin

A

choleragen

57
Q

How does cholera cause death

A

dehydration

58
Q

Structure of choleragen

A

2 A subunits and 5 B subunits

59
Q

Mechanism of action of choleragen

A

B subunits bind to the receptor. A subunit enters the cell membrane and activates a G protein which stimulates adenylate cyclase. this produces increased cAMP and causes active secretion of ions and water

60
Q

bacteria usually associated with immunocompromised nosocomial infections

A

Pseudomonas

61
Q

obligate aerobic, non-lactose fermenting, gram neg bacteria

A

Pseudomonas

62
Q

Bacteria that produces a green and blue pigment (pyoverdin and pyocyanin)

A

Pseudomonas

63
Q

Important Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections

A

“BE PSEUDO” Burns, Endocarditis, Pneumonia, Sepsis, External malignant otitis media, UTI, Diabetic Osteomyelitis

64
Q

2 pathogenic species of Mycobacterium

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis and M. leprae

65
Q

thin rods with lipid-laden cell walls, acid fast, and obligate aerobes

A

Mycobacterium

66
Q

mycolic acid bound to a carbohydrate that forms a glycolipid

A

mycoside

67
Q

mycoside formed by 2 mycolic acids and trehalose, found in virulent strains of M. tuberculosis

A

cord factor

68
Q

What virulence factor of M. tuberculosis inhibits neutrophil migration and damages mitochondria

A

Cord factor

69
Q

Mycosides that resemble cord factor with sulfates attached to the disaccharide, that inhibit phagosome fusion with lysosomes

A

Sulfatides

70
Q

complicated mycoside that acts as an adjuvant on M tuberculosis that activates the protective cellular immune system

A

Wax D

71
Q

Pathogenesis of TB

A

facultative intracellular growth, cell mediated immunity (not very good): macrophages present bacteria to CD4+ T cells, which become Th1 cells and produce IFN gamma and TNF alpha and activate macrophages. Destruction of lung tissue occurs and the bacteria can still stick around

72
Q

Clinical manifestations of TB

A

symptomatic primary TB, asymptomatic primary TB, secondary or reactivation TB (pulmonary TB), pleural and pericardial infection, lymph node infection, sterile pyuria, POTT’s disease, arthritis, meningitis, and miliary TB

73
Q

RBCs and WBCs found in the urine but not bacteria

A

sterile pyuria

74
Q

calcified TB tubercle in the middle or lower lung zone

A

Ghon focus

75
Q

Vaccine for TB that may result in a false positive PPD

A

bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG)

76
Q

What could cause a false negative PPD

A

anergy from steroid use, malnutrition, AIDS, etc

77
Q

Drugs used to treat TB

A

isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin, and pyrazinamide

78
Q

Length of treatment for TB

A

6 months for normal TB and 18-24 mo for drug resistant TB

79
Q

Bacteria that causes leprosy or Hansen’s disease

A

mycobacterium leprae

80
Q

5 subdivisions of Leprosy

A

Lepromatous leprosy (LL), tuberculoid leprosy (TL), borderline lepromatous (BL), borderline (BB), and borderline tuberculoid (BT)

81
Q

most severe form of leprosy

A

Lepromatous leprosy

82
Q

symptoms of LL

A

skin lesions all over the body, destroyed nasal cartilage and saddlenose deformity, blindness, thickening of peripheral nerves and neuropathy

83
Q

Form of leprosy where patients cannot mount a cell mediated immune response

A

lepromatous leprosy (LL)

84
Q

form of leprosy where patients CAN mount a cell mediated response

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

85
Q

Form of leprosy where there are only a few well defined lesions on the skin

A

TL

86
Q

Treatment for mycobacterium leprae

A

sulfones (like dapsone), rifampin, and clofazamine

87
Q

Common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients

A

Mycobacterium avium-complex (MAC) disease, caused by non tuberculous mycobacteria (NTM)

Immunology and Microbiology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions