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Immunology and Microbiology > Module 8 > Flashcards

Module 8 Flashcards

Bacteria gone wild

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What size are microbes?

A

1 mm or smaller diameter

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2
Q

What are some examples of microbes?

A

metazoan animals, protozoa, algae and fungi, bacteria, and viruses

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3
Q

Who disproved theory of spontaneous generation through maggots?

A

Francesco Reddi

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4
Q

Which two scientists established Microbiology as a Science?

A

Pasteur and Koch

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5
Q

Who proved germ theory and discovered the rabies vaccine?

A

Pasteur

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6
Q

Who discovered phagocytosis?

A

Metschnikoff

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7
Q

List Koch’s postulates

A

pathogens are found in cases of disease but not in healthy animals. Pathogens can be isolated and grown in culture. Cultured pathogen must cause disease when inoculated into an animal. Pathogen can be re-isolated from the inoculated animal and is the same pathogen

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8
Q

What are some of the exceptions to Koch’s postulates about culturing?

A

Treponema pallidum and Mycobacterium leprae (and some other rickettsial and viral pathogens)

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9
Q

3 major classes of microbes

A

viruses, prokaryotes, and eukaryotes

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10
Q

4 prokaryotic microbes

A

bacteria, mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, chlamydiae

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11
Q

3 eukaryotic microbes

A

fungi, protozoans, and multicellular parasites

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12
Q

average onset age of CJD

A

68 years

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13
Q

average onset age of vCJD

A

28 years

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14
Q

Smallest and simplest of all microbes

A

viruses

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15
Q

what microbe is composed of DNA or RNA and a protein coat (and sometimes a lipoprotein envelope)

A

viruses

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16
Q

Which microbe is an obligate intracellular parasite?

A

viruses

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17
Q

unicellular organisms that do not have clearly defined nuclear membranes

A

prokaryotes

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18
Q

uni- and multicellular organisms with well defined nuclear membranes

A

eukaryotes

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19
Q

which microbe has nucleic acids and histones arranged into chromosomes?

A

eukaryotes

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20
Q

What comprises a fungal cell wall?

A

chitin, glucans, and mannans

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21
Q

What fungi have ergosterol in their membrane?

A

yeasts, filamentous molds (like mycelia), dimorphic fungi, and saphrophytes which use organic matter for energy

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22
Q

Eukaryotic organism that lives in or on another host and causes damage, and can be anything from a single cell to large multicellular worms

A

parasites

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23
Q

How are bacteria grouped?

A

based on morphological and biochemical/metabolic differences and immunologic and genetic characteristics

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24
Q

Order and chemicals used for a Gram stain

A

crystal violet (primary stain), iodine (mordant), alcohol (decolorizer), safranin (counter stain)

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25
Q

What color do gram positive bacteria stain?

A

purple

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26
Q

What color do gram negative bacteria stain?

A

pink

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27
Q

molecules of N-acetyl glucosamine that alternate with N-acetyl muramic acid

A

peptidoglycan

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28
Q

Which bacteria have a large peptidoglycan layer in the cell membrane?

A

gram positive

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29
Q

Which bacteria have an inner and outer membrane?

A

gram negative

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30
Q

enzyme that catalyzes the formation of pentaglycine cross bridges in peptidoglycan

A

transpeptidase (aka penicillin binding protein)

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31
Q

Which bacteria have techoic acids?

A

gram positive

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32
Q

water soluble polyol phosphate polymers with either ribitol or glycerol linked with phosphodiester bonds

A

teichoic acids

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33
Q

2 classes of teichoic acids

A

lipoteichoic and wall teichoic

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34
Q

What function do teichoic acids serve?

A

bind and regulate movement of cations, provide antigen specificity, and may prevent lysis during growth

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35
Q

which type of bacteria contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS)?

A

gram negative

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36
Q

What two things make up the LPS?

A

O antigen and Lipid A

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37
Q

What part of LPS is responsible for toxicity in gram-neg endotoxins?

A

Lipid A

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38
Q

what are some examples of surface specific proteins?

A

m-protein, tuberculin, and a-protein

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39
Q

What helps gram positive bacteria attach to human cells?

A

teichoic acids, pili, and virulence factors

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40
Q

What are the 2 layers of the gram positive envelope/membrane?

A

thick peptidoglycan layer and cytoplasmic membrane

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41
Q

What are the 3 layers of the gram negative envelope/membrane?

A

outer membrane, thin peptidoglycan, and inner membrane

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42
Q

major triggers of inflammation on gram positive bacteria?

A

teichoic acids in peptidoglycan

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43
Q

Which type of bacteria are more susceptible to lysozyme and beta lactam drugs?

A

gram positive

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44
Q

major triggers of inflammation on gram negative bacteria?

A

endotoxins

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45
Q

What drug inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A

beta lactam

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46
Q

How do bacteria become beta lactam resistant?

A

by expressing beta lactamases

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47
Q

What drug binds irreversibly to beta-lactamases?

A

augmentin (amoxicillin and clavulanic acid)

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48
Q

What allows gram negative bacteria to get beta-lactam resistance?

A

secondary beta lactam resistance through mutations in penicillin binding proteins (PBP), chromosomal class C-beta-lactamase, and extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) and TEM beta-lactamase

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49
Q

What is the full name for acid fast staining?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain

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50
Q

What reagents are used in acid fast staining?

A

carbol fuschin (with heat), acid alcohol, and methylene blue

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51
Q

What color do acid fast bacteria stain?

A

red/hot pink

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52
Q

What color do non-acid-fast bacteria stain?

A

blue

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53
Q

Acid fast staining of mycobacterium

A

acid fast

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54
Q

Acid fast staining of Nocardia

A

partially acid fast

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55
Q

Acid fast staining of Legionella micdadei

A

weakly acid fast

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56
Q

Organisms that require oxygen for growth at atmospheric levels, and don’t do fermentation

A

obligate aerobes

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57
Q

Which organisms produce superoxide dismutase?

A

obligate aerobes

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58
Q

Pseudomonas, M. tuberculosis, and Bacillus are: facultative anaerobes, microaerophiles, or obligate aerobes?

A

obligate aerobes

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59
Q

Organisms that require oxygen for growth but at lower than atmospheric level

A

microaerophiles

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60
Q

Campylobacter and Helicobacter are: facultative aerobes, microaerophiles, or obligate aerobes?

A

microaerophiles

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61
Q

Organisms that use oxygen if it’s present but don’t need it to survive

A

facultative aerobes(also called facultative anaerobes!!!)

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62
Q

Streptococci and Enterobacter are: facultative aerobes, microaerophiles, or obligate aerobes?

A

facultative anaerobes

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63
Q

Organisms that grow in the presence of oxygen but can’t use it

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

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64
Q

Streptococcus is an example of: obligate anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes, or facultative anaerobes

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

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65
Q

Organisms that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen and only use fermentation pathways

A

obligate anaerobes

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66
Q

Actinomyces, Bacteroides, and Clostridium are: obligate anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes, or facultative anaerobes?

A

obligate anaerobes

67
Q

3 components of flagella

A

basal body, hook, filament

68
Q

part of the flagellum that spans the entire cell wall and consists of a small central rod inserted in a series of rings that spin around to spin the flagellum

A

basal body

69
Q

single flagellum (like Pseudomonas)

A

monotrichous

70
Q

two flagella (like Spirillum)

A

amphitrichous

71
Q

two or more flagella at one or both ends (also Spirillum)

A

lophotrichous

72
Q

flagella all over the surface (like Salmonella or Proteus)

A

peritrichous

73
Q

what bacterial structure can serve as adherence factors/adhesins?

A

pili(fimbriae)

74
Q

difference between pili and flagella

A

pili are much shorter and non motile

75
Q

2 kinds of pili

A

attachment and conjugation

76
Q

How does Neisseria gonorroheae use its pili?

A

it binds to cervical and buccal cells to cause gonorrhea

77
Q

How do E. coli and Campylobacter jejuni use their pili

A

use adhesins to bind to intestinal epithelium to cause diarrhea

78
Q

polysaccharides that form the outermost layer attached to bacterial cell wall

A

capsules

79
Q

what enables bacteria to be more virulent by stopping neutrophils and macrophages from phagocytosis

A

capsules

80
Q

What’s an example of a bacteria with a capsule?

A

Strep pneumoniae

81
Q

2 tests for visualizing capsules

A

india ink stain and quellung reaction

82
Q

Which 2 genera of gram positive bacteria form endospores?

A

Bacillus (aerobic) and Clostridium (anaerobic)

83
Q

extracellular polysaccharide network that forms a mechanical scaffold around bacteria

A

biofilm

84
Q

proteins released by both gram positive and negative bacteria

A

exotoxins

85
Q

what are some gram negative bacteria that release exotoxins?

A

Vibrio cholerae, E. coli

86
Q

What are types of exotoxins?

A

neurotoxins, enterotoxins, pyrogenic exotoxins, tissue invasive exotoxins, miscellaneous exotoxins

87
Q

Clostridium tetani and botulinum release what kind of exotoxin?

A

neurotoxin

88
Q

2 disease manifestations of enterotoxins

A

infectious diarrhea (like with cholera) and food poisoning (like with bacillus cereus or staph aureus)

89
Q

exotoxin that stimulates the release of cytokines and can cause rash, fever, and toxic shock syndrome

A

pyrogenic exotoxins

90
Q

Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes can release which type of exotoxin?

A

pyrogenic exotoxins

91
Q

class of toxins that binds to receptors on target host cells, but isn’t internalized within the cell

A

type I toxins

92
Q

TSST-1 of Staph aureus is an example of what class of toxins?

A

type I toxins

93
Q

class of toxins that mechanistically destabilizes host cell plasma membranes

A

type II toxins

94
Q

class of toxins that binds to the surface of target host cells and some becomes internalized within the cell (like cholera toxin)

A

type III toxins (A-B toxins)

95
Q

toxin released when bacteria undergoes lysis

A

Lipid A/endotoxin

96
Q

which class of bacteria releases endotoxins?

A

gram negative

97
Q

endogenous mediator of sepsis

A

TNF

98
Q

What treatments seem to help septic shock?

A

antibiotics ofc, recombinant activated protein C (drotrecogin alpha), hydrocortisone, polyclonal IVIG

99
Q

which species of bacteria have linear chromosomes

A

Borrelia and Streptomyces

100
Q

does bacterial dna have histones or a nuclear membrane?

A

neither

101
Q

is bacterial dna ss or dsdna

A

dsDNA

102
Q

supercoiled, circular, double stranded extrachromosomal pieces of DNA that replicate independently of the chromosome

A

bacterial plasmid DNA

103
Q

3 functions of bacterial plasmid DNA

A

pathogenicity, produce toxins, synthesize cell structure for adherence and colonization

104
Q

3 types of plasmids

A

fertility/conjugative plasmid (F plasmid), drug resistance factors (R plasmid), and Col plasmids

105
Q

phage DNA that arises through infection with a temeprate phage whose viral production is repressed

A

stable phage DNA

106
Q

uptake of extracellular DNA by bacteria from the environment

A

transformation

107
Q

Generalized or specialized transfer of DNA mediated by bacteriophages

A

transduction

108
Q

transfer of DNA by direct donor-recipient contact

A

conjugation

109
Q

Naturally transformable bacteria take up DNA from where?

A

the surrounding environment

110
Q

What kind of transformation do Bacillus subtilis, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrheae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Synechococcus have?

A

they’re naturally transformable bacteria

111
Q

what does the transformation protein complex of B. subtilis and Strep pneumoniae contain?

A

a labile competence factor, a specific endonuclease, DNA-binding polypeptides, and an autolysin to increase cell permeability

112
Q

4 stages of bacterial growth

A

lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, decline/death phase

113
Q

when do naturally transformable bacteria become competent?

A

late in the growth cycle

114
Q

regulation of gene expression in response to fluctuations in cell-population density

A

quorum sensing

115
Q

how is bacterial competence regulated?

A

2 component regulatory system based on quorum sensing

116
Q

small peptides excreted by bacteria as they multiply

A

competence pheromones

117
Q

2 components of Bacillus subtilis competence regulation

A

ComP (histidine kinase sensor) and ComA (response regulator)

118
Q

Which regulatory protein is a histidine kinase sensor?

A

ComP

119
Q

Which regulatory protein is a response regulator?

A

ComA

120
Q

What are 2 species of bacteria that take up DNA from the same species?

A

N. gonorrheae and H. influenzae

121
Q

subcellular compartments that allow H. influenzae to take up dsDNA

A

transformasomes

122
Q

Why do bacteria have natural competence?

A

for diversity, repair, and nutrition

123
Q

introduction of multiple copies of the same plasmid DNA into a single cell can regenerate what?

A

an intact plasmid

124
Q

What are 2 types of artificially induced competence?

A

chemical transformation and electroporation

125
Q

what type of induced competence is found when bacterial cells w/ DNA are pulsed with electric current?

A

electroporation

126
Q

What type of induced competence is found when bacteria are exposed to calcium ions and undergo heat shock treatment?

A

chemical transformation

127
Q

Which type of transformation prefers hot environments and which prefers cold?

A

chemical transformation is with heat and electroporation is cold

128
Q

type of transduction where any region of the bacterial DNA can be transferred

A

generalized transduction

129
Q

type of transduction where certain genes close to the attachment site of a lysogenic phage in the chromosome is transferred

A

specialized transduction

130
Q

phages capable of transduction

A

transducing phages

131
Q

original bacterial strain in which the transducing phage is multiplied

A

donor strain

132
Q

infected bacterial strain

A

recipient strain

133
Q

cells that have rec’d DNA from another bacterium by transduction

A

Transductants

134
Q

what makes a good transducing phage?

A

doesn’t degrade host DNA completely and has nonspecific pac sites

135
Q

generalized transducing phages carry what genes?

A

only bacterial genes

136
Q

specialized transducing phages carry what genes?

A

bacterial AND phage DNA

137
Q

direction of conjugation transfer

A

unidirectional

138
Q

in what 2 ways does conjugation differ from transformation?

A

requires direct cell-cell contact and cells must be opposite mating types

139
Q

recipient cell during conjugation

A

transconjugant

140
Q

most naturally occurring plasmids are one of 2 things:

A

self transmissible or mobilizable

141
Q

Researchers who performed the U-tube experiment

A

Lederberg and Tatum

142
Q

cell with a free fertility factor

A

F+ cell

143
Q

cell with a fertility factor inserted into the bacterial chromosome

A

Hfr cell

144
Q

cell without fertility factors

A

F- cells

145
Q

what controls replication of the F plasmid?

A

it controls its own replication

146
Q

F plasmid origins of replication

A

oriV and oriS

147
Q

F plasmid origin for bidirectional replication

A

oriV

148
Q

F plasmid origin for unidirectional replication

A

oriS

149
Q

origin of transfer which proceeds via a rolling circle mechanism

A

oriT

150
Q

genes responsible for coding endonucleases nicking the oriT

A

tra genes

151
Q

products of tra genes can act on plasmids in what cell?

A

the same cell

152
Q

appendage that brings 2 cells together for mating

A

sex pilus

153
Q

product of tra genes that makes up the sex pilus

A

pilin protein

154
Q

what transports pilin through cell membranes and assembles it on the cell surface?

A

tra genes

155
Q

what determines the structure of a sex pilus?

A

the type of self transmissible plasmid

156
Q

how long do naturally occurring plasmids transfer with high efficiency

A

not very long at all

157
Q

what represses tra genes?

A

tra genes are repressed when pilin is not synthesized along with other tra gene products

158
Q

what is the purpose of regulating tra genes?

A

prevent infection by some phages

159
Q

What makes an Hfr (high frequency of recombination) cell?

A

when an F factor is integrated into an F+ cell

160
Q

What makes a recombinant F- cell?

A

when an Hfr cell passes some of the chromosome into an F- cell

161
Q

modified F plasmid from a regular F plasmid that has been cut incorrectly

A

F’ factors

162
Q

What were the first cloning vectors?

A

F’ factors

163
Q

what have been used to map the E. coli chromosome?

A

F’ factors

164
Q

are F’ factors fertile?

A

yes

Immunology and Microbiology (11 decks)

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