Module 1 Flashcards
What are the 4 kinds of pathogens?
Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites
What are the intracellular pathogens?
Bacteria, viruses
What are the extracellular pathogens?
bacteria, fungi, parasites
Host responses that prevent/combat infection and cancer
immunity
foreign substances, including parts of a specific immune response
Antigens (immunogens)
Ability to induce an immune response
immunogenicity (antigenicity)
A molecule too small to elicit an immune response, unless attached to a larger molecule (like a protein) but can be recognized by an existing immune response
hapten
the part of an antigen that antiboties or T-cell receptors recognize
epitope (antigenic determinant)
Peptides produced by cells, often immune system cells, that help activate, suppress, or regulate other cells
Cytokines
What molecules are known as “hormones of the immune system”?
Cytokines
What are some physical barriers to infection?
Skin, tears, mucous, etc
What are some commensal organisms that combat pathogens?
microbiota
What are the two types of internal immunity?
Innate and Adaptive
What are the two types of adaptive immunity?
humoral and cell-mediated
Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages are examples of what?
phagocytes
Which cells kill virally-infected and tumor cells, and produce cytokines?
Natural Killer (NK) cells
What part of innate immunity enhances phagocytosis, recruits cells, and kills cells/bacteria?
complement system
Accumulation of fluids and WBCs to localize and remove an irritant
inflammation
What feature of adaptive/acquired immunity is the reason why vaccines work?
Its specificity and memory
What is the major cell type responding to an adaptive immunity response?
lymphocytes
What kind of lymphocyte produces antibodies?
B lymphocytes
What kind of lymphocyte regulates immunity, kills infected cells, activates macrophages (basically everything else but produce antibodies)?
T lymphocytes
Humoral immunity is mediated by what?
antibodies
Cell mediated immunity is mediated by what?
Effector T cells
What are the 4 functions of immunoglobulins?
Neutralization, opsonization, complement activation, and antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
The process of activating and enhancing phagocytosis is called what?
opsonization
What are the classes of immunoglobulins?
IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD, IgM
Clonal selection is a fundamental principle of what type of immunity?
adaptive immunity
What are 2 benefits to clonal selection?
eliminates self-reactive cells, and expands the antigen-specific cells
Which kind of immunity is generated by an individual?
active immunity
Which kind of immunity is transferred to an individual?
passive immunity
What is an example of active immunity?
vaccination
What is an example of passive immunity?
antivenom, maternal IgG
Foreignness, size, complex composition, and degradability are characteristics of what?
the ability of an immune response to an antigen
What size molecules generate a greater immune response?
large molecules
What level of complexity of a molecule generates a greater immune response?
more complex, more immunogenicity
Antigens must do what in order to present to T cells?
be degraded
Rate the following in order of complexity/immunogenicity (most to least): Polysaccharides, lipids, DNA, proteins
Protein> polysaccharides > DNA > lipids
Which takes longer, active or passive immunity?
active immunity
inappropriate reaction against self-antigens
autoimmunity
impairment of normal immune function
immunodeficiency
developing an immune response to self
autoimmunization
developing an immune response against another individual
isoimmunization
Reactions to blood transfusions and graft rejections are characterized as what?
isoimmunization
overreaction to allergens/antigens
hypersensitivity
What cells are the majority of total peripheral WBCs in adults?
neutrophils
What is the main function of neutrophils?
phagocytosis
What type of cell increases in response to allergic reaction or certain parasite infections?
eosinophils and basophils. Also mast cells I suppose
What type of cell is least numerous WBC in peripheral blood?
basophils
Histamine, cytokines, growth factors, and heparin are inside what type of cell?
basophils
What are the largest cells in peripheral blood?
monocytes
Monocytes that migrate to tissues are known as what?
macrophages
What is another name for neutrophils?
polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN) leukocytes
Where can mast cells be found?
skin, connective tissues, and mucosa
These cells are considered the most effective antigen-presenting cell in the body and are the most potent phagocytic cell
dendritic cells
surface markers on T cells that allow them to recognize foreign antigens
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
another name for cytotoxic t cells
CD8+ T cells
another name for T helper cells
CD4+ T cells
Which cells kill virally- and bacterially-infected and tumor cells?
Cytotoxic T cells
Th1 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?
cell mediated immunity
IL-2, IFN-gamma, TNF-beta, GM-CSF are all examples of what kind of cells?
Th1 cells
Th2 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?
humoral immunity
IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13 are all examples of which kind of cell?
Th2 cells
Proteins (antigens) on the surface of cells recognized by specific antibodies
clusters of differentiation (CD) antigens
Which cluster of differentiation is found on T cells?
CD3
What are the primary lymphoid organs?
bone marrow and thymus
What are the secondary lymphoid organs?
spleen, lymph nodes, mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), and cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
What part of the spleen destroys old RBCs
red pulp
Splenic tissue that makes up more than 1/2 of the total volume
red pulp
splenic tissue that contains lymphoid tissue around arterioles
white pulp
What part of the spleen contains B cells that haven’t been stimulated by antigens yet?
primary follicles
Where are antigen-stimulated proliferating B cells found?
secondary follicles in lymph nodes
Where is mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) found?
mucosal surfaces of GI, respiratory, and urogenital tracts
T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells in the skin are part of what?
Cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
All blood cells arise from ______ in the bone marrow
hematopoietic stem cells
The 5 principal types of leukocytes in the blood are:
neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
Tissue cells involved in immunity include:
mast cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
Cells involved in the innate immune response and are actively phagocytic include:
neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells
_____ are the key cells involved in the adaptive immune response
lymphocytes
A type of lymphocyte that develops in the bone marrow and is capable of secreting antibodies once matured
B cells
Where do T cells acquire their specificity?
thymus
What kind of cells kill virally infected or cancerous cells WITHOUT previous exposure?
NK cells
Plasma proteins that work together to facilitate the destruction and removal of pathogens
complement system
What are the 4 major functions of complement?
induce localized vasodilation and attract phagocytic cells (through anaphylatoxins), opsonization, lysis of cells through the membrane attack complex (MAC), and clearing soluble immune complexes
Small soluble fragments of complement proteins
anaphylatoxins
C3b and C4b are what kind of molecules?
opsonins
Process of enhancing phagocytosis of complement coated pathogens due to receptors on macrophages or PMN
opsonization
C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9 are sequentially assembed into what?
the MAC
The membrane attack complex (MAC) has increased susceptibility to what?
Neisseria bacteremia
RBCs bind to which complement molecule to be disposed of?
C3b
Which complement pathway is antibody directed?
classical pathway
Which complement pathway is through innate immunity and C3b binding?
alternative pathway
What complement pathway is through innate immunity and mannose binding?
lectin pathway
What is the order of classical pathway activation?
C1(qrs), C4, C2, C3, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
Factor B, Factor D, and properdin are involved in which pathway?
alternative pathway
Which complement molecule is the exception to the ‘a’ and ‘b’ fragment size rule?
C2: C2a is the larger and C2b is the smaller
What cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b
C3 convertase
C3b + C3 convertase = ?
C5 convertase
What cleaves monomeric IgG antibody chains?
papain
C1q recognizes what part of an antibody?
the Fc portion (the bottom part of the Y)
How many monomers make up IgM?
5
What makes up IgM?
5 monomers and a J chain binder
IgM has how many binding sites?
10
IgM has how many Fc portions?
5
Is IgG or IgM better for activating the classical complement pathway?
IgM, due to its pentameric structure and multiple Fc regions ready to go
What stabilizes the alternative pathway C3 convertase?
properdin (P)
Which pathway can amplify the other?
classical pathway can amplify alternative pathway
What part of the classical pathway can trigger the alternative pathway?
Excess C3b that does not form C5 convertase
C5 convertase produces what?
C5a and C5b
Which part of C5 binds to an antigen’s membrane?
C5b
What molecule inserts through an antigen’s membrane and creates a pore?
C9
A deficiency in what complement protein results in Immune complex disease?
C1, C2, C4
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria?
C3 and Factor I
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to Neisseria?
C5-C9
A deficiency in what complement protein results in autoimmune-like conditions, like paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
DAF, and CD59
A deficiency in what complement protein results in hereditary angionerotic edema (HANE)?
C1INH
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria and Neisseria but not cause immune-complex disease
Factor D, properdin (Factor P)
Interferons (IFN), interleukins (IL), tumor necrosis factors (TNF), chemokines, etc. are all types of what?
Cytokines
Polypeptides secreted by leukocytes and other cells that act principally on hematopoietic cells, the effects of which include modulation of immune and inflammatory responses
Cytokines
These cells include Type I IFN (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) and IFN-gamma (IFN Type II)
Interferons
Which type of interferon has antiviral activity?
Type I IFNs
Which type of interferon stimulates macrophages and other cells?
IFN Gamma (Type II IFN)
This cytokine is produced by macrophages, monocytes, and t Cell populations after stimulation, and increases macrophage phagocytic activity
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
This cytokine helps recruit neutrophils into inflammatory sites, induces fever, reduces microbial growth, increases lymphocyte division, and accelerates the onset of adaptive immunity
Interleukin-1
This cytokine is synthesized by activated T cells and supports/stimulates T cell growth for secreting and neighboring cells
Interleukin-2
Soluble factors found in serum that increase rapidly in response to infection, injury, or trauma
Acute-Phase reactants
CRP, SAA, A1AT, Fibrinogen, Haptoglobin, ceruloplasmin, and complement C3 are examples of ____
Acute-Phase reactants
Which acute phase reactant has the shortest response time?
CRP
Which acute phase reactant is responsible for opsonization and complement activation?
CRP
Which acute phase reactant is responsible for activating monocytes and macrophages?
Serum amyloid A (SAA)
Which acute-phase reactant is a protease inhibitor?
Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT or AAT)
Which acute-phase reactant is responsible for clot formation?
Fibrinogen
Which acute-phase reactant binds hemoglobin?
Haptoglobin
Which acute-phase reactant binds copper and oxidizes iron
Ceruloplasmin
Which acute phase reactant is involved in opsonization and lysis?
Complement C3
