Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology and Microbiology > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 kinds of pathogens?

A

Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the intracellular pathogens?

A

Bacteria, viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the extracellular pathogens?

A

bacteria, fungi, parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Host responses that prevent/combat infection and cancer

A

immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

foreign substances, including parts of a specific immune response

A

Antigens (immunogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ability to induce an immune response

A

immunogenicity (antigenicity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A molecule too small to elicit an immune response, unless attached to a larger molecule (like a protein) but can be recognized by an existing immune response

A

hapten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the part of an antigen that antiboties or T-cell receptors recognize

A

epitope (antigenic determinant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Peptides produced by cells, often immune system cells, that help activate, suppress, or regulate other cells

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What molecules are known as “hormones of the immune system”?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some physical barriers to infection?

A

Skin, tears, mucous, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some commensal organisms that combat pathogens?

A

microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two types of internal immunity?

A

Innate and Adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of adaptive immunity?

A

humoral and cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages are examples of what?

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which cells kill virally-infected and tumor cells, and produce cytokines?

A

Natural Killer (NK) cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What part of innate immunity enhances phagocytosis, recruits cells, and kills cells/bacteria?

A

complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Accumulation of fluids and WBCs to localize and remove an irritant

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What feature of adaptive/acquired immunity is the reason why vaccines work?

A

Its specificity and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the major cell type responding to an adaptive immunity response?

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of lymphocyte produces antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What kind of lymphocyte regulates immunity, kills infected cells, activates macrophages (basically everything else but produce antibodies)?

A

T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Humoral immunity is mediated by what?

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cell mediated immunity is mediated by what?

A

Effector T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 4 functions of immunoglobulins?

A

Neutralization, opsonization, complement activation, and antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The process of activating and enhancing phagocytosis is called what?

A

opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the classes of immunoglobulins?

A

IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD, IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clonal selection is a fundamental principle of what type of immunity?

A

adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are 2 benefits to clonal selection?

A

eliminates self-reactive cells, and expands the antigen-specific cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which kind of immunity is generated by an individual?

A

active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which kind of immunity is transferred to an individual?

A

passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an example of active immunity?

A

vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is an example of passive immunity?

A

antivenom, maternal IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Foreignness, size, complex composition, and degradability are characteristics of what?

A

the ability of an immune response to an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What size molecules generate a greater immune response?

A

large molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What level of complexity of a molecule generates a greater immune response?

A

more complex, more immunogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antigens must do what in order to present to T cells?

A

be degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Rate the following in order of complexity/immunogenicity (most to least): Polysaccharides, lipids, DNA, proteins

A

Protein> polysaccharides > DNA > lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which takes longer, active or passive immunity?

A

active immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

inappropriate reaction against self-antigens

A

autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

impairment of normal immune function

A

immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

developing an immune response to self

A

autoimmunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

developing an immune response against another individual

A

isoimmunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Reactions to blood transfusions and graft rejections are characterized as what?

A

isoimmunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

overreaction to allergens/antigens

A

hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What cells are the majority of total peripheral WBCs in adults?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the main function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of cell increases in response to allergic reaction or certain parasite infections?

A

eosinophils and basophils. Also mast cells I suppose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of cell is least numerous WBC in peripheral blood?

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Histamine, cytokines, growth factors, and heparin are inside what type of cell?

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the largest cells in peripheral blood?

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Monocytes that migrate to tissues are known as what?

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is another name for neutrophils?

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN) leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where can mast cells be found?

A

skin, connective tissues, and mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

These cells are considered the most effective antigen-presenting cell in the body and are the most potent phagocytic cell

A

dendritic cells

56
Q

surface markers on T cells that allow them to recognize foreign antigens

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

57
Q

another name for cytotoxic t cells

A

CD8+ T cells

58
Q

another name for T helper cells

A

CD4+ T cells

59
Q

Which cells kill virally- and bacterially-infected and tumor cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

60
Q

Th1 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?

A

cell mediated immunity

61
Q

IL-2, IFN-gamma, TNF-beta, GM-CSF are all examples of what kind of cells?

A

Th1 cells

62
Q

Th2 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?

A

humoral immunity

63
Q

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13 are all examples of which kind of cell?

A

Th2 cells

64
Q

Proteins (antigens) on the surface of cells recognized by specific antibodies

A

clusters of differentiation (CD) antigens

65
Q

Which cluster of differentiation is found on T cells?

A

CD3

66
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

bone marrow and thymus

67
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

spleen, lymph nodes, mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), and cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)

68
Q

What part of the spleen destroys old RBCs

A

red pulp

69
Q

Splenic tissue that makes up more than 1/2 of the total volume

A

red pulp

70
Q

splenic tissue that contains lymphoid tissue around arterioles

A

white pulp

71
Q

What part of the spleen contains B cells that haven’t been stimulated by antigens yet?

A

primary follicles

72
Q

Where are antigen-stimulated proliferating B cells found?

A

secondary follicles in lymph nodes

73
Q

Where is mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) found?

A

mucosal surfaces of GI, respiratory, and urogenital tracts

74
Q

T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells in the skin are part of what?

A

Cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)

75
Q

All blood cells arise from ______ in the bone marrow

A

hematopoietic stem cells

76
Q

The 5 principal types of leukocytes in the blood are:

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes

77
Q

Tissue cells involved in immunity include:

A

mast cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages

78
Q

Cells involved in the innate immune response and are actively phagocytic include:

A

neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells

79
Q

_____ are the key cells involved in the adaptive immune response

A

lymphocytes

80
Q

A type of lymphocyte that develops in the bone marrow and is capable of secreting antibodies once matured

A

B cells

81
Q

Where do T cells acquire their specificity?

A

thymus

82
Q

What kind of cells kill virally infected or cancerous cells WITHOUT previous exposure?

A

NK cells

83
Q

Plasma proteins that work together to facilitate the destruction and removal of pathogens

A

complement system

84
Q

What are the 4 major functions of complement?

A

induce localized vasodilation and attract phagocytic cells (through anaphylatoxins), opsonization, lysis of cells through the membrane attack complex (MAC), and clearing soluble immune complexes

85
Q

Small soluble fragments of complement proteins

A

anaphylatoxins

86
Q

C3b and C4b are what kind of molecules?

A

opsonins

87
Q

Process of enhancing phagocytosis of complement coated pathogens due to receptors on macrophages or PMN

A

opsonization

88
Q

C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9 are sequentially assembed into what?

A

the MAC

89
Q

The membrane attack complex (MAC) has increased susceptibility to what?

A

Neisseria bacteremia

90
Q

RBCs bind to which complement molecule to be disposed of?

A

C3b

91
Q

Which complement pathway is antibody directed?

A

classical pathway

92
Q

Which complement pathway is through innate immunity and C3b binding?

A

alternative pathway

93
Q

What complement pathway is through innate immunity and mannose binding?

A

lectin pathway

94
Q

What is the order of classical pathway activation?

A

C1(qrs), C4, C2, C3, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9

95
Q

Factor B, Factor D, and properdin are involved in which pathway?

A

alternative pathway

96
Q

Which complement molecule is the exception to the ‘a’ and ‘b’ fragment size rule?

A

C2: C2a is the larger and C2b is the smaller

97
Q

What cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b

A

C3 convertase

98
Q

C3b + C3 convertase = ?

A

C5 convertase

99
Q

What cleaves monomeric IgG antibody chains?

A

papain

100
Q

C1q recognizes what part of an antibody?

A

the Fc portion (the bottom part of the Y)

101
Q

How many monomers make up IgM?

A

5

102
Q

What makes up IgM?

A

5 monomers and a J chain binder

103
Q

IgM has how many binding sites?

A

10

104
Q

IgM has how many Fc portions?

A

5

105
Q

Is IgG or IgM better for activating the classical complement pathway?

A

IgM, due to its pentameric structure and multiple Fc regions ready to go

106
Q

What stabilizes the alternative pathway C3 convertase?

A

properdin (P)

107
Q

Which pathway can amplify the other?

A

classical pathway can amplify alternative pathway

108
Q

What part of the classical pathway can trigger the alternative pathway?

A

Excess C3b that does not form C5 convertase

109
Q

C5 convertase produces what?

A

C5a and C5b

110
Q

Which part of C5 binds to an antigen’s membrane?

A

C5b

111
Q

What molecule inserts through an antigen’s membrane and creates a pore?

A

C9

112
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in Immune complex disease?

A

C1, C2, C4

113
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria?

A

C3 and Factor I

114
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to Neisseria?

A

C5-C9

115
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in autoimmune-like conditions, like paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

A

DAF, and CD59

116
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in hereditary angionerotic edema (HANE)?

A

C1INH

117
Q

A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria and Neisseria but not cause immune-complex disease

A

Factor D, properdin (Factor P)

118
Q

Interferons (IFN), interleukins (IL), tumor necrosis factors (TNF), chemokines, etc. are all types of what?

A

Cytokines

119
Q

Polypeptides secreted by leukocytes and other cells that act principally on hematopoietic cells, the effects of which include modulation of immune and inflammatory responses

A

Cytokines

120
Q

These cells include Type I IFN (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) and IFN-gamma (IFN Type II)

A

Interferons

121
Q

Which type of interferon has antiviral activity?

A

Type I IFNs

122
Q

Which type of interferon stimulates macrophages and other cells?

A

IFN Gamma (Type II IFN)

123
Q

This cytokine is produced by macrophages, monocytes, and t Cell populations after stimulation, and increases macrophage phagocytic activity

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

124
Q

This cytokine helps recruit neutrophils into inflammatory sites, induces fever, reduces microbial growth, increases lymphocyte division, and accelerates the onset of adaptive immunity

A

Interleukin-1

125
Q

This cytokine is synthesized by activated T cells and supports/stimulates T cell growth for secreting and neighboring cells

A

Interleukin-2

126
Q

Soluble factors found in serum that increase rapidly in response to infection, injury, or trauma

A

Acute-Phase reactants

127
Q

CRP, SAA, A1AT, Fibrinogen, Haptoglobin, ceruloplasmin, and complement C3 are examples of ____

A

Acute-Phase reactants

128
Q

Which acute phase reactant has the shortest response time?

A

CRP

129
Q

Which acute phase reactant is responsible for opsonization and complement activation?

A

CRP

130
Q

Which acute phase reactant is responsible for activating monocytes and macrophages?

A

Serum amyloid A (SAA)

131
Q

Which acute-phase reactant is a protease inhibitor?

A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT or AAT)

132
Q

Which acute-phase reactant is responsible for clot formation?

A

Fibrinogen

133
Q

Which acute-phase reactant binds hemoglobin?

A

Haptoglobin

134
Q

Which acute-phase reactant binds copper and oxidizes iron

A

Ceruloplasmin

135
Q

Which acute phase reactant is involved in opsonization and lysis?

A

Complement C3

Immunology and Microbiology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions