Module 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 4 kinds of pathogens?
A
Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites
2
Q
What are the intracellular pathogens?
A
Bacteria, viruses
3
Q
What are the extracellular pathogens?
A
bacteria, fungi, parasites
4
Q
Host responses that prevent/combat infection and cancer
A
immunity
5
Q
foreign substances, including parts of a specific immune response
A
Antigens (immunogens)
6
Q
Ability to induce an immune response
A
immunogenicity (antigenicity)
7
Q
A molecule too small to elicit an immune response, unless attached to a larger molecule (like a protein) but can be recognized by an existing immune response
A
hapten
8
Q
the part of an antigen that antiboties or T-cell receptors recognize
A
epitope (antigenic determinant)
9
Q
Peptides produced by cells, often immune system cells, that help activate, suppress, or regulate other cells
A
Cytokines
10
Q
What molecules are known as “hormones of the immune system”?
A
Cytokines
11
Q
What are some physical barriers to infection?
A
Skin, tears, mucous, etc
12
Q
What are some commensal organisms that combat pathogens?
A
microbiota
13
Q
What are the two types of internal immunity?
A
Innate and Adaptive
14
Q
What are the two types of adaptive immunity?
A
humoral and cell-mediated
15
Q
Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages are examples of what?
A
phagocytes
16
Q
Which cells kill virally-infected and tumor cells, and produce cytokines?
A
Natural Killer (NK) cells
17
Q
What part of innate immunity enhances phagocytosis, recruits cells, and kills cells/bacteria?
A
complement system
18
Q
Accumulation of fluids and WBCs to localize and remove an irritant
A
inflammation
19
Q
What feature of adaptive/acquired immunity is the reason why vaccines work?
A
Its specificity and memory
20
Q
What is the major cell type responding to an adaptive immunity response?
A
lymphocytes
21
Q
What kind of lymphocyte produces antibodies?
A
B lymphocytes
22
Q
What kind of lymphocyte regulates immunity, kills infected cells, activates macrophages (basically everything else but produce antibodies)?
A
T lymphocytes
23
Q
Humoral immunity is mediated by what?
A
antibodies
24
Q
Cell mediated immunity is mediated by what?
A
Effector T cells
25
What are the 4 functions of immunoglobulins?
Neutralization, opsonization, complement activation, and antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
26
The process of activating and enhancing phagocytosis is called what?
opsonization
27
What are the classes of immunoglobulins?
IgG, IgA, IgE, IgD, IgM
28
Clonal selection is a fundamental principle of what type of immunity?
adaptive immunity
29
What are 2 benefits to clonal selection?
eliminates self-reactive cells, and expands the antigen-specific cells
30
Which kind of immunity is generated by an individual?
active immunity
31
Which kind of immunity is transferred to an individual?
passive immunity
32
What is an example of active immunity?
vaccination
33
What is an example of passive immunity?
antivenom, maternal IgG
34
Foreignness, size, complex composition, and degradability are characteristics of what?
the ability of an immune response to an antigen
35
What size molecules generate a greater immune response?
large molecules
36
What level of complexity of a molecule generates a greater immune response?
more complex, more immunogenicity
37
Antigens must do what in order to present to T cells?
be degraded
38
Rate the following in order of complexity/immunogenicity (most to least): Polysaccharides, lipids, DNA, proteins
Protein> polysaccharides > DNA > lipids
39
Which takes longer, active or passive immunity?
active immunity
40
inappropriate reaction against self-antigens
autoimmunity
41
impairment of normal immune function
immunodeficiency
42
developing an immune response to self
autoimmunization
43
developing an immune response against another individual
isoimmunization
44
Reactions to blood transfusions and graft rejections are characterized as what?
isoimmunization
45
overreaction to allergens/antigens
hypersensitivity
46
What cells are the majority of total peripheral WBCs in adults?
neutrophils
47
What is the main function of neutrophils?
phagocytosis
48
What type of cell increases in response to allergic reaction or certain parasite infections?
eosinophils and basophils. Also mast cells I suppose
49
What type of cell is least numerous WBC in peripheral blood?
basophils
50
Histamine, cytokines, growth factors, and heparin are inside what type of cell?
basophils
51
What are the largest cells in peripheral blood?
monocytes
52
Monocytes that migrate to tissues are known as what?
macrophages
53
What is another name for neutrophils?
polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN) leukocytes
54
Where can mast cells be found?
skin, connective tissues, and mucosa
55
These cells are considered the most effective antigen-presenting cell in the body and are the most potent phagocytic cell
dendritic cells
56
surface markers on T cells that allow them to recognize foreign antigens
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
57
another name for cytotoxic t cells
CD8+ T cells
58
another name for T helper cells
CD4+ T cells
59
Which cells kill virally- and bacterially-infected and tumor cells?
Cytotoxic T cells
60
Th1 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?
cell mediated immunity
61
IL-2, IFN-gamma, TNF-beta, GM-CSF are all examples of what kind of cells?
Th1 cells
62
Th2 cells are involved in which kind of immunity?
humoral immunity
63
IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13 are all examples of which kind of cell?
Th2 cells
64
Proteins (antigens) on the surface of cells recognized by specific antibodies
clusters of differentiation (CD) antigens
65
Which cluster of differentiation is found on T cells?
CD3
66
What are the primary lymphoid organs?
bone marrow and thymus
67
What are the secondary lymphoid organs?
spleen, lymph nodes, mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), and cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
68
What part of the spleen destroys old RBCs
red pulp
69
Splenic tissue that makes up more than 1/2 of the total volume
red pulp
70
splenic tissue that contains lymphoid tissue around arterioles
white pulp
71
What part of the spleen contains B cells that haven't been stimulated by antigens yet?
primary follicles
72
Where are antigen-stimulated proliferating B cells found?
secondary follicles in lymph nodes
73
Where is mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) found?
mucosal surfaces of GI, respiratory, and urogenital tracts
74
T cells, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells in the skin are part of what?
Cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
75
All blood cells arise from ______ in the bone marrow
hematopoietic stem cells
76
The 5 principal types of leukocytes in the blood are:
neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes
77
Tissue cells involved in immunity include:
mast cells, dendritic cells, and macrophages
78
Cells involved in the innate immune response and are actively phagocytic include:
neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells
79
_____ are the key cells involved in the adaptive immune response
lymphocytes
80
A type of lymphocyte that develops in the bone marrow and is capable of secreting antibodies once matured
B cells
81
Where do T cells acquire their specificity?
thymus
82
What kind of cells kill virally infected or cancerous cells WITHOUT previous exposure?
NK cells
83
Plasma proteins that work together to facilitate the destruction and removal of pathogens
complement system
84
What are the 4 major functions of complement?
induce localized vasodilation and attract phagocytic cells (through anaphylatoxins), opsonization, lysis of cells through the membrane attack complex (MAC), and clearing soluble immune complexes
85
Small soluble fragments of complement proteins
anaphylatoxins
86
C3b and C4b are what kind of molecules?
opsonins
87
Process of enhancing phagocytosis of complement coated pathogens due to receptors on macrophages or PMN
opsonization
88
C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9 are sequentially assembed into what?
the MAC
89
The membrane attack complex (MAC) has increased susceptibility to what?
Neisseria bacteremia
90
RBCs bind to which complement molecule to be disposed of?
C3b
91
Which complement pathway is antibody directed?
classical pathway
92
Which complement pathway is through innate immunity and C3b binding?
alternative pathway
93
What complement pathway is through innate immunity and mannose binding?
lectin pathway
94
What is the order of classical pathway activation?
C1(qrs), C4, C2, C3, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
95
Factor B, Factor D, and properdin are involved in which pathway?
alternative pathway
96
Which complement molecule is the exception to the 'a' and 'b' fragment size rule?
C2: C2a is the larger and C2b is the smaller
97
What cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b
C3 convertase
98
C3b + C3 convertase = ?
C5 convertase
99
What cleaves monomeric IgG antibody chains?
papain
100
C1q recognizes what part of an antibody?
the Fc portion (the bottom part of the Y)
101
How many monomers make up IgM?
5
102
What makes up IgM?
5 monomers and a J chain binder
103
IgM has how many binding sites?
10
104
IgM has how many Fc portions?
5
105
Is IgG or IgM better for activating the classical complement pathway?
IgM, due to its pentameric structure and multiple Fc regions ready to go
106
What stabilizes the alternative pathway C3 convertase?
properdin (P)
107
Which pathway can amplify the other?
classical pathway can amplify alternative pathway
108
What part of the classical pathway can trigger the alternative pathway?
Excess C3b that does not form C5 convertase
109
C5 convertase produces what?
C5a and C5b
110
Which part of C5 binds to an antigen's membrane?
C5b
111
What molecule inserts through an antigen's membrane and creates a pore?
C9
112
A deficiency in what complement protein results in Immune complex disease?
C1, C2, C4
113
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria?
C3 and Factor I
114
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to Neisseria?
C5-C9
115
A deficiency in what complement protein results in autoimmune-like conditions, like paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
DAF, and CD59
116
A deficiency in what complement protein results in hereditary angionerotic edema (HANE)?
C1INH
117
A deficiency in what complement protein results in susceptibility to capsulated bacteria and Neisseria but not cause immune-complex disease
Factor D, properdin (Factor P)
118
Interferons (IFN), interleukins (IL), tumor necrosis factors (TNF), chemokines, etc. are all types of what?
Cytokines
119
Polypeptides secreted by leukocytes and other cells that act principally on hematopoietic cells, the effects of which include modulation of immune and inflammatory responses
Cytokines
120
These cells include Type I IFN (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) and IFN-gamma (IFN Type II)
Interferons
121
Which type of interferon has antiviral activity?
Type I IFNs
122
Which type of interferon stimulates macrophages and other cells?
IFN Gamma (Type II IFN)
123
This cytokine is produced by macrophages, monocytes, and t Cell populations after stimulation, and increases macrophage phagocytic activity
Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)
124
This cytokine helps recruit neutrophils into inflammatory sites, induces fever, reduces microbial growth, increases lymphocyte division, and accelerates the onset of adaptive immunity
Interleukin-1
125
This cytokine is synthesized by activated T cells and supports/stimulates T cell growth for secreting and neighboring cells
Interleukin-2
126
Soluble factors found in serum that increase rapidly in response to infection, injury, or trauma
Acute-Phase reactants
127
CRP, SAA, A1AT, Fibrinogen, Haptoglobin, ceruloplasmin, and complement C3 are examples of ____
Acute-Phase reactants
128
Which acute phase reactant has the shortest response time?
CRP
129
Which acute phase reactant is responsible for opsonization and complement activation?
CRP
130
Which acute phase reactant is responsible for activating monocytes and macrophages?
Serum amyloid A (SAA)
131
Which acute-phase reactant is a protease inhibitor?
Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (A1AT or AAT)
132
Which acute-phase reactant is responsible for clot formation?
Fibrinogen
133
Which acute-phase reactant binds hemoglobin?
Haptoglobin
134
Which acute-phase reactant binds copper and oxidizes iron
Ceruloplasmin
135
Which acute phase reactant is involved in opsonization and lysis?
Complement C3
