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Medical Assistant > Module 7 - Point Of Care Testing And Laboratory Procedures > Flashcards

Module 7 - Point Of Care Testing And Laboratory Procedures Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Label specimen containers with…

A

the patient’s name and date of birth, date and time of collection, and medical assistant’s initial

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2
Q

Urinalysis

A

Includes the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine

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3
Q

Hematology

A

Blood cell counts that determine RBCs, WBCs, and platelets of a blood specimen

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4
Q

Chemistry

A

Chemicals found in blood, CSF, urine, joint fluid, lipid profiles (such as triglycerides, total cholesterol, HDL, and LDL), and fasting glucose

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5
Q

Microbiology

A

Studying bacteria, fungi, parasites, yeasts, and viruses; specimens can include urine, blood, sputum, cerebrospinal fluid, stool, and wound material

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6
Q

Cytology

A

Microscope examination of cells for diagnostic purposes

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7
Q

Blood bank

A

Processes and stores blood and blood products for transfusion and blood disorder treatments

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8
Q

hemoglobin machine use

A
  • to screen for the oxygen-carrying protein in whole blood,
  • performed using capillary blood from a fingerstick
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9
Q

Spun Hematocrit

A
  • fingerstick collection of blood is centrifuged and evaluated for the percentage of red blood cells.
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10
Q

Blood Glucose

A
  • Whole blood is analyzed in a glucometer for a quantitative glucose level
  • screening test for diabetes,
  • performed using capillary blood from a fingerstick.
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11
Q

Hemoglobin A1C

A
  • capillary blood test
  • determines the approximate control of blood glucose levels over a 3-month period.
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12
Q

Cholesterol Testing

A
  • Lipids are evaluated
  • capillary blood sample.
  • on a reagent strip and analyzed in a cholesterol testing machine.
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13
Q

Helicobacter Pylori

A

A whole blood sample can screen for the presence of H. pylori antibodies.

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14
Q

Mononucleosis Screening

A

tests for the presence of the Epstein-Barr virus in a capillary blood sample.

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15
Q

Fecal Occult Blood

A

test is performed to screen for hidden blood in the stool. This test is performed with a fecal occult blood testing kit using the patient’s stool specimen.

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16
Q

Which administration requires that all testing performed in all testing facilities meet federal guidelines.

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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17
Q

quality control (QC)

A

Action is performed to ensure the reliability of test results by detecting and eliminating error.

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18
Q

reviewing the expiration date of urine reagent strips is a means of_______, whereas policies related to rotating stock to put the newest containers in the back of the storage area is a _______ measure.

A

quality control
quality assurance

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19
Q

checking the temperature of the laboratory refrigerator and documenting it on a log is a ______ measure. The policy of checking the temperature and maintaining it between 2° C and 8° C (35° F and 46° F) is a _____ measure.

A

quality control
quality assurance

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20
Q

Random Urine

A

sample can be collected at any time of the day and is used for screening purposes.

  • The patient urinates in a clean, nonsterile container.
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21
Q

First Morning Specimen

A

The patient collects their first urine specimen of the morning in a clean container.

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22
Q

Clean-Catch Midstream

A
  • patient cleanses the genitalia area using three moist antiseptic wipes.
  • The patient will begin by urinating in the toilet, then pause and collect the rest of the urine specimen in a sterile container or until it is adequately filled
  • used for cultures or when a noncontaminated specimen is required.
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23
Q

24-Hour Sample

A
  • The patient discards their first morning urine specimen and collects all remaining urination specimens for the next 24 hr, including the first morning void of the second day
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24
Q

Catheterized Collection

A

when a sterile urine sample is needed or if patients are unable to provide a specimen on their own.

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25
Q

what should patients do prior to a fecal occult test

A

Patients should avoid

  • red meats or dyes,
  • aspirin or aspirin products,
  • vitamin C,
  • iron supplements
  • these could create false-positive fecal occult blood tests (FOBT).
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26
Q

How many antiseptic wipes will be provided for a female patient when instructing them to obtain a clean catch, midstream urine specimen?

A

3

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27
Q

Which urine sample requires protection from light

A

bilirubin

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28
Q

What is the difference between a regular specimen and a chain of custody specimen?

A

The COC specimen has to be placed into a specimen bag that is permanently sealed until it is opened for analysis.

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29
Q

True or False. Only the patient, the MA and the physician need to sign a Chain of Custody form.

A

False. Everyone who handles the specimen, including the patient being tested, must sign the chain of custody form.

30
Q

The laboratory courier cannot pick up the patient’s urine sample for another 4 hr. Which method will ensure specimen preservation?

A

Storing the urine in the refrigerator

31
Q

When taking a call from the laboratory with a critical value, how do you ensure accuracy of the information ?

A

by repeating the test results back to the laboratory personnel.

32
Q

Hemoglobin (HGB) test values (g/dL) (MvW)
cells that carry oxygen from respiratory organs to the body

A

Male: 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL

Female: 12 to 16 g/dL

33
Q

Hematocrit (HCT) values
Volume % of RBC in blood (MvW)

A

Male: 41% to 53%

Female: 36% to 46%

34
Q

A Complete Blood Count (CBC) includes which components?

A
  1. White blood cell count
  2. Red blood cell count
  3. Platelet count
  4. Granulocyte ratio
  5. Hemoglobin
  6. Hematocrit
  7. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
35
Q

White blood cell count values (mm3)

A

4,500 to 11,000/mm3

36
Q

RBC count values (mm3) (MvW)

A

Male: 4.5 to 5.9 million/mm3
Female: 4 to 5.5 million/mm3

37
Q

Platelet count values (mm3)

A

150,000 to 400,000/mm3

38
Q

Granulocyte ratio values (%)

A

50% to 70% (of all white blood cells)

39
Q

mean corpuscular volume (MCV) value

A

A value score of 80 to 95

40
Q

Glucose values (mg/dL)

A

70 to 100 mg/dL (fasting required)

41
Q

hemoglobin A1C values (glucose levels over 3-months) (%)

A

below 5.7%

42
Q

Cholesterol panel includes which components?

A
  1. Total Cholesterol
  2. LDL (low density hypoprotein)
  3. HDL
  4. Triglycerides
43
Q

Total Cholesterol values (mg/dL)

A

130 to 200 mg/dL

44
Q

LDL values (mg/dL)

A

Less than 100 mg/dL

45
Q

HDL values (mg/dL)

A

Greater than 60 mg/dL

46
Q

Triglycerides values (mg/dL)

A

40 to 150 mg/dL

47
Q

Documenting control sample results when performing certain laboratory tests on a log is referred to as what?

A

Quality control

48
Q

Tests performed in the medical office that do not fall under point-of-care testing or CLIA-waived tests are considered….

A

specialty tests.

49
Q

Tympanometry records movement of what

A

of the tympanic membrane, which can be affected by increased pressure in the middle ear

50
Q

Why may a pt require a tympanometry exam?

A

This test is valuable for determining the presence of fluid and potential infections in the middle ear

51
Q

Difference between a normal and abnormal tympanogram

A

normal tympanogram produces a peak on the graph, whereas an abnormal tympanogram will produce a flat line.

52
Q

An adult who has normal hearing should be able to hear tones below ____ decibels, and a child should be able to hear below____ decibels.

A

25
15

53
Q

Ishihara test

A

Vision test to assess for color deficiency.

54
Q

Instructions for patients prior to an allergy test

A
  • discontinue the use of antihistamines three days prior to allergy skin testing
55
Q

Describe a allergen stratch test

A
  • A diluted allergen is applied to a scratch or prick that has been made on the surface of the patient’s skin.
  • usually on the forearm or upper back.
  • If a wheal occurs in the first 15 minutes, the allergist can identify the substance as a possible allergen and consider further allergy testing to be conducted intradermally.
56
Q

Describe an intradermal allergen test

A
  • A diluted allergen is injected intradermally, and the patient is observed.
  • An initial wheal is expected. If the wheal becomes inflamed with induration (raised, hard area), the substance can be identified and confirmed as an allergen.
57
Q

What are the instructions given for a spirometry test?

A

Take the deepest breath possible. Seal your lips around the mouthpiece. Blow as hard and as fast as you can, blowing until you empty the air from your lungs.

58
Q

Instructions prior to a spirometry test

A
  • No large meals 2 hours before the test
  • No smoking 1 hour before the test
  • No bronchodilators or other breathing therapies (inhalers, nebulizers) for at least 6 hours before the test
59
Q

pulmonary function test

A

Test to assess lung functioning, which will help assist in the detection and evaluation of pulmonary disease.

60
Q

Expected Values of FEV1, FVC, and TLC of Pulmonary Function Test

A

80%-120%

61
Q

Expected Values of FRC and RV of Pulmonary Function Test

A

75%-120%

62
Q

A peak flow rating of _____ or better is considered well-controlled and does not require treatment.

A

80%

63
Q

What does the peak flow meter measure?

A
  • the forced expiratory volume, which indicates the effectiveness of airflow out of the lungs
  • measures the amount of exhaled air and how air flows through the lungs.
64
Q

Where should the marker be at the beginning of a peak flow meter test?

A

at the bottom of the scale

65
Q

How many times should the peak flow meter test be repeated?

A

Repeat the test two to three times and record the results.

66
Q

To obtain accurate results on spirometry, a patient should be advised to do which of the following?

A

Apply a nose clip.

67
Q

minimum urine for a drug test

A

30-45 mL

68
Q

minimum urine for a urinalysis

A

10 mL

  • ideal 30-50mL
69
Q

Order of draw

A

Yellow (8-10)

  • Sodium Poly anethol sulfonate (SPS)
  • For blood cultures

light blue (3-4)

  • Sodium citrate (anticoagulant)
  • Coagulation studies
  • PT/INR, PT, PTT, Fibrinogen, D-dimer

Red (5)

  • Plastic – clot activator
  • Serum determinations in chemistry
  • Glass – no additive
  • Routine blood donor screening
  • Diagnostic testing of serum for infectious diseases
  • Complete metabolic panel (CMP)
  • Drug test

Gold/tiger (5)

  • Serum separator tube (SST); clot activator thixotropic gel
  • Serum determinations in chem: endocrine test, immunological assays, CMP, lipid, liver, kidney panels and pregnancy tests

Green (8-10)

  • Sodium/lithium heparin
  • Plasma determinations in chem: stat/routine chem test, ammonia, troponin, electrolytes, ABG, chromosome analysis (sodium heparin only)

Lavender (8-10)

  • EDTA
  • Whole blood hematology; CBC, RBC, WBC, platelet count, HbA1c, Hct, erythrocyte sedimentation Rate (ESR)
  • Sickle cell test

Gray (8-10)

  • Potassium oxalate / sodium fluoride
  • Blood glucose test: Glucose tolerance test (GTT) & FBS, blood alcohol concentration test, drug test, lactic acid/lactate test
  • GTT test instructions
  • Fasting for 12 hours (NPO from midnight)
  • Drinking a glucose solution + having blood samples taken at regular intervals
70
Q

Blood draw order for capillary puncture

A

Blood gases (green),
lavender,
green (sodium heparin (if there’s no blood gas)),
other additives,
serum tubes (gold/tiger, red)

Medical Assistant (15 decks)

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