Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy and Physiology > module 4 skeletal system > Flashcards

module 4 skeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the skeletal system

A

protect vital organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the skeletal system

A

network of bone held together by various joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does bone store

A

inorganic calcium and phosphorus salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 5 types of bone

A

long, flat, short, irregular, sesamoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a bone landmark

A

distinct marking for the bone such as ridge, groove or hole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of various bony landmarks

A

allow tendon to stretch, indicate where nerves and blood vessels run alongside the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do terms foramen, canal, and fissure mean

A

opening in bone to allow nerves, blood spy to pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does sinus mean in the skeletal system

A

hollow chamber in bone: usually filled with air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the term process and ramps mean

A

elevation in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are trochanter, tuberosity, tubercle, crest, spine

A

processes or projections for tendon or ligament attachments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does head, neck, condyle, trochlea, facet mean

A

processes designed for articulate with adjunct bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does fossa and sulcus mean

A

depression in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the skeletal system

A

axial and appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does axial division lie and what is in this division

A

lies on midline of body

consists of skull, vertebral column, laryngeal skeleton and thoracic rib cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many bones make up the skull

A

22

8 in cranium and 14 in facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are fontanelles

A

soft softs in newborns where the cranium bones have not fused together yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the names of the bones in the cranium and describe them

A

frontal- 1 bone
parietal: 2- on each side
occipital-1 forms base of skull- contain foramen magnum
temporal bone- lead to middle ear
sphenoid bone- complete side of skull: contribute to floor and wall of eye socket
Ethmoid bone- lie in sphenoid: part orbital wall and nasal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the sinuses

A

airspace lined by mucous membrane

reduce weight of skull and give resonant sound to voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are mastoid sinuses

A

2 sinuses that drain into middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can mastoiditis lead to

A

deafness from inflammation of mastoid sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is sinusitis

A

sinus infection: occur when soft tissue in sinuses become inflamed from virus, allergy, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is foramina

A

allow passage for blood vessels, nerves and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is foramen magnum

A

allow spinal cord to pass into skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is carotid canal

A

opening of temporal bone for internal carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is external acoustic meatus

A

transmission of sound in temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the mandible

A

facial bone: lower jaw: only moveable part, non- paired bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe maxilla

A

upper jaw, facial bone, form anterior portion hard palate, contain infraorbital foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe zygomatic bone

A

cheek bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe nasal bones

A

bridge of nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe palatine bones

A

posterior portion of hard palate and floor of nasal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe lacrimal bone

A

lie between ethmoid bone and maxillary bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe vomer

A

thin, flat, join with perpendicular plate of ethmoid to form nasal septum- with mandible is non-paired bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe inferior nasal conchae

A

located inferior to middle conchae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is middle and superior nasal conchae

A

formed from groove of ethmoid bone

swirls air as breath to warm and humidify before entering lower respiratory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the vertebral column

A

extend skull to pelvis
has 4 curvature- provides resistance and strength
vertebrae in cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum and coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are spinous processes

A

located dorsal side of vertebrae and palpated along midline of neck and back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where is the most surface area of the vertebral column

A

anterior portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are articular facets

A

allow adjacent vertebrae to articulate with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe cervical vertebrae

A

long spinous process: with bifid tip that split into 2 part
bodies are small
vertebral foramen are large
transverse process: transverse foramen for pass arteries and veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe thoracic vertebrae

A

long thin spinous process does not split
spinous points inferiorly
vertebral bodies medium sized
contain facet for rib articulation
transverse process has costal facet for rib articulation
T11-T12 don’t have facet for rib articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe Lumbar Vertebrae

A

shorter spinous process broader and points posteriorly
vertebral body of lumbar spine are largest to support with of head, neck, trunk and upper limb
transverse process: shorter- no costal facet
vertebral foramen: smallest and triangle shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe Sacrum

A

5 fused bones @ base of spine

base is widest and articulate with L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe Coccyx

A

4-5 fused vertebrae- fused about age 25

sacrum and coccyx= attach site for many ligament and tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is key for pelvic stability

A

anchoring of sacrum, coccyx and ligaments to pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where do all 12 pairs of ribs connect

A

posterior thoracic vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are ribs 1-7 called and where do they connect

A

true ribs

connect to sternum directly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are ribs 8-10 called and where do they connect

A

false ribs

connect to sternum indirectly via shafts of cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are ribs 11-12 called and where do they connect

A

floating ribs

only connect posterior thoracic vertebrae no the sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum

A

manubrim
body
xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is included in appendicular skeleton

A

bones in pectoral and pelvic girdle attached to limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the pectoral girdle

A

shoulder and upper limbs

special for flexibility, and increased ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the pelvic girdle

A

pelvic bones and lower limb special for strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What makes up the pectoral girdle

A

shoulder: 2 clavicles and 2 scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does clavicle connect

A

connect with sternum anteriorly

connect with scapula posteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the scapula

A

freely movable, held in place by muscles and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are specific landmarks of posterior scapula

A

supraspinatus fossa, infraspinatus fossa, scapular spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is acromion process

A

projection from scapular spine- connects to clavicle anteriorly
can be seen anteriorly and posteriorly

58
Q

What are specific landmarks of neck of scapula

A

lateral side of scapula

contain glenoid cavity- head of humerus articulates with scapula

59
Q

what is located anterior side of scapula

A

sub scapular fossa

60
Q

what is coracoid process

A

project anteriorly from scapula allows for muscle attachments

61
Q

Describe the humerus

A

single long bone in upper arm
smooth round head
fits in socket of scapula and glenoid cavity
held to glenoid cavity by rotator cuff muscles

62
Q

Why is glenohumeral joint prone to dislocation

A

held in place primarily by muscular and ligament attachments with little bony stability

63
Q

what is a dislocation of a joint

A

bone removed from socket

64
Q

What are other bony landmarks of humerus

A

head, neck, shaft, capitulum, trochlea

65
Q

Where does capitulum articulate

A

small portion of radius

66
Q

Where does trochlea articulate

A

with ulna

67
Q

Where can medial epicondyle be palpated

A

medial side of elbow

68
Q

Where can lateral epicondyle be palpated

A

lateral side of arm at the elbow

69
Q

What are the radius and ulna

A

bones of forearm

meet at distal end of humerus at elbow

70
Q

What is olecranon be found and palpated

A

prominent bone of ulna palpated posteriorly

71
Q

Describe pronation

A

palm next to body after being in anatomical position and facing forward
radius cross in from to ulnta

72
Q

how many bones of the hands and what are they

A

8

carpals

73
Q

What are names of proximal carpal bones lateral to medial

A

scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform

74
Q

what are names of distal carpal bones lateral to medial

A

trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

75
Q

How many metacarpal in the hand

A

5

1rst is thumb and 5th is pinky

76
Q

what are phalanges

A

bones of fingers and thumb
thumb has 2 phalange: distal and proximal
digits have 3: distal, middle and proximal

77
Q

what makes up the pelvic girdle

A

2 lg heavy coxal bones
anchored to sacrum posteriorly by ligaments
a single coxal bone is called innominte( ossa coxa)

78
Q

How many bones are fused to make each coxal bone and how named

A
  1. ilium- most superior portion- palpated lateral side of hip
  2. ischium- located posterioly- sit bones
  3. pubis- center anterior- connected by pubs symphysis
79
Q

What is ASIS and where located

A

landmark: anterior superior iliac spine

anterior portion of ilium

80
Q

What is the major difference between male and female pelvic girdle

A

pubic arch wider in female than male
pubic brim shaped like circle in male, oval in female
allows for women to have a child

81
Q

What are the bones of the lower extremity

A

femur, patella, tibia, fibula, bones of the foot

82
Q

Describe the femur

A

largest and longest bone in the body

head of femur articulates with pelvic girdle at acetabulum: hip joint

83
Q

Where does patella sit

A

anterior to femur

knee cap

84
Q

Which 2 bones make the lower leg

A

tibia and fibula
tibia is larger and medial connect to medial malleolus- have anterior ridge
fibula is smaller and connect to lateral malleolus

85
Q

How many bones in the ankle and what are they called

A

7

tarsals

86
Q

What are the names of the 7 tarsal bones

A

medial, intermediate and lateral cuniform

navicular, cuboid, talus and calcaneous

87
Q

what are the 5 metatarsals

A

span the distance from tarsal bones to phalanges
have longitudinal arch from heel to toe
transverse arch goes across foot
provide stable base for foot

88
Q

What causes flat feet

A

weakening of tissue that bind metarsalas
often seen with ankle sprains
plantar faschitits

89
Q

What are phalanges of foot

A

bones of toes
great toe= hallux- like thumb only 2 parts distal and proximal
metatarsal 2-5 all have 3 phalanx- distal, middle and proximal

90
Q

what is typical long bone cavity filled with and what is cavity called that houses it

A

marrow

medullary cavity

91
Q

What are 2 types of marrow in long bone

A

yellow: fat storage tissue in long bone
red: short and flat bones- produce RBC

92
Q

What is diaphysis

A

center of long bone

93
Q

What surrounds medullary cavity

A

spongy bone that is thickest at the end of the bone

94
Q

What is compact bone

A

solid outer layer of bone

95
Q

What is epiphysis

A

ends of long bone: proximal and distal

96
Q

What is fount at joint articulations

A

articular cartilage- cushion joints enable to move freely

97
Q

What is cartilage

A

connective tissue- matrix that is flexible and shock absorbing

98
Q

What does compact bone contain

A

osteon- formally haversion system
in osteon are osteocytes: bone cells
bone cells are house in lacunae( chamber) arranged in circles around center canals

99
Q

What is structure and function of center canals

A

contain blood vessels and nerves
blood vessels bring nutrients allow bone to renew itself
lacunae separated by matrix contain protein fiber of collagen and mineral deposi- calcium and phosphorus

100
Q

Describe spongy bone

A

contain numerous bony bars and plates separated by irregular spaces
lighter than compact bone designed for strength
follow lines of stress to support body

101
Q

what are osteoclasts

A

bone absorbing cells

break down, remove worn cell, deposit calcium in blood

102
Q

what are osteoblasts

A

repair destructive work of osteoclasts
as form new bone, osteoblast take calcium from blood
cells eventually get caught in matrix and convert to osteocytes- found in lucuande of osteon

103
Q

define remodeling

A

old bone tissue replaced by new bone tissue
thickness of bone changes with remodeling
physical use and hormones affect thickness
adult and children require calcium to support bone health

104
Q

when is bone primarily cartilaginous

A

during prenatal development

105
Q

what is ossification

A

cartilaginous model converts to bone

calcium salt deposit in matrix- first by precurose cartilaginous cells and later by osteoblasts

106
Q

What is endochondral ossification

A

ossification of long bones from hyaline cartilage

107
Q

Describe endochondral ossification

A

begins at primary ossification center in middle of bone
once cells die, blood vessels penetrate bone to deliver osteoblasts- form medullary cavity
secondary centers from at ends of bone later
cartilaginous disk remain between primary ossification center and secondary center -

108
Q

what is the cartilaginous disk in-between primary ossification center and secondary center

A

commonly known as growth plate
can increase in length
rate of growth affected by growth hormone and sex hormones
by puberty disk completely ossified and bone stops growth
full height of adult happens

109
Q

What is intramembranous ossification

A

ossification of flat bone from connective tissue

110
Q

Describe intramembranous ossification

A

flat bone formation begins with mesenchymal cells
differentiale into osteoblast at points within connective tissue of embryo
osteoblasts begin to secrete bone tissue
once enough bone tissue secreted, osteoblasts develop to osteocytes

111
Q

What are the 5 types of fractures

A

closed-simple: bone break remains in skin
open-compound: bone break, part of bone shaft break out of skin
greenstick: bone bend and break- not all the way across- common in kids
communited: bone breaks into more than 2 segments: typically repaired surgically
impacted: one end of broken bone is pushed inside other part of bone

112
Q

Define Rheumatoid arthritis

A

synovial membrane becomes inflamed and thickened

degenerative changes take place- makes joint immovable and painful

113
Q

Define osteoarthritis

A

articular cartilage at bone ends disintegrate

2 bones of joint- rough and irregular painful to move joint

114
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

bone tissue disease
bone tissue degenerate faster than replaced
bones become weak
brittle bone cause pain and are more likely to fracture

115
Q

How are joints classified

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

116
Q

Describe fibrous joints

A

immovable

between cranial bones

117
Q

Describe cartilaginous joints

A

found between vertebrae: slightly movable
separated by discs- increase flexibility
pelvic bones: slightly movable because anteriorly joined by fibrous cartilage: public symphysis- become more flexible late in pregnancy for childbirth

118
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

most joints movable

bones separated by joint cavity

119
Q

What are ligaments

A

composed of fibrous connective tissue
bind bone together
hold bone in place as form a joint capsule

120
Q

What is synovial fluid

A

lubricant for joint

secreted by synovial membrane

121
Q

What are different types of synovial joint

A

hinge: knee and elbow: move 1 direction
ball and socket: move in all direction/plane- hip and shoulder
saddle: thumb: allow thumb to freely cross over palm
pivot: rotational movement: cervical spine C1 and C2

122
Q

What are the ligaments in the shoulder joint

A 
acromioclavicular
sternoclavicular 
coraclavicular
capsular
coracohumeral
123
Q

What structures make up rotator cuff

A 
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
teres minor
subscapularis
function to limit movement of shoulder jt
so head of humerus is stable in jt
124
Q

What does acromioclavicular articulate

A

connect clavicle to manubrim of sternum anteriorly and to acromion process of scapula posterioly

125
Q

what does sternoclavicular connect

A

joints sternum with clavicle

126
Q

what does coraclavicular ligament connect

A

join process of coracoid of scapula to clavicle

127
Q

what does coracromipal ligament connect

A

join coracoid of scapula to acromion process

128
Q

what does capsular ligament connect

A

surround head of humerus

anchors to scapula

129
Q

what does coracohumeral ligament connect

A

head of humerus to coracoid process of scapula

130
Q

In hip joint: what creates ball and socket

A

head of femur articulates with pelvis at acetabulum

131
Q

What are the ligaments of hip joint posteriorly

A

posterioly held to sacrum by iliolumbar, anterior sacroiliac, posterior sacrioiliac

132
Q

What does ilioinguinal ligament connect

A

hold ASIS of ilium to pubic bone

133
Q

What does ilifemoral ligament connect

A

attach femur to ilium

134
Q

what does uterosacral ligament connect

A

connect sacrum to each side of uterus in female

135
Q

What are key notes regarding knee joint

A

bone ends covered in cartilage

menisci- add stability to femur to articulate with tibia

136
Q

What are the ligaments of the knee

A 
patellar: anterior
medial collateral : MCL
lateral collateral: LCL
anterior cruciate: ACL
posterior cruciate: PCL
137
Q

How many bursae in knee joint

A 
13
function to ease friction between tendons, ligaments and bone
138
Q

what is bursitis

A

inflammation of bursae

139
Q

What are the ligaments of the spine

A

anterior longitudinal: connect anterior vertebral bodies
posterior longitudinal: connect posterior vertebral bodies
interspinous ligament: connect spinous process at adjacent vertebrae
supraspinous: connect posterior portion of spinous process

140
Q

Describe intervetebral discs

A

act as padding
prevent vertebrae from grinding against each other
absorb shock w/running, jump and walk
weaken with age could slip/rupture

141
Q

what is a herniated disc

A

posterior longitudinal ligament weakens, center of portion of disc bulges into vertebral foramen
pain when disc presses against nerve and spinal cord
may heal over time or surgical removal
for surgery: fuse vertebral: limits mobility
PT is a good option to strengthen muscles of the spine

Anatomy and Physiology (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions