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Anatomy and Physiology > final exam prep > Flashcards

final exam prep Flashcards

1
Q

Of the following what is the study of the human body:

Anatomy, physiology, anabolism, catabolism, metabolism

A

anatomy

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2
Q

what is an example of the organ level of organization in the body: choose from following:
sodium, liver, mitochondria, skeletal system, epithelium

A

liver

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3
Q

which term means the breakdown of nutrients: anatomy, physiology, metabolism, anabolism, catabolism

A

catabolism

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4
Q

List the 4 basic types of tissues

A

nervous, epithelial, connective, muscle

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5
Q

list the 3 layers of skin

A

epidermis, dermis, hypodermis( subcutaneous)

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6
Q

glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver: is this catabolism or anabolism and why

A

Catabolism: it is breaking down a larger substance into smaller parts

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7
Q

what anatomical term is used to define towards the back of the body: choose of the following: superior, inferior, dorsal, ventral, medial

A

dorsal

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8
Q

which anatomical term describes towards the upper part of the structure: choose of the following: superior, inferior, ventral, dorsal, medial

A

superior

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9
Q

which anatomical term means toward the surface

A

superficial

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10
Q

which anatomical term means further away from origin of body part

A

distal

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11
Q

when looking at a diagram of a patient standing in anatomical position on a piece of paper: which thumb points to the Left side of the paper

A

Right

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12
Q

Is the spine part of the axial or appendicular region of the body

A

axial

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13
Q

A patient is standing with his hand covering his mouth. He returns his hand to his side, moving into anatomical position. What anatomical action term is best used to indicate the motion occurring at his elbow? Choose from the following: extension, flexion, elevation, abduction, depression

A

extension

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14
Q

which anatomical term means movement away from midline: abduction, depression, elevation, flexion, or extension

A

abduction

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15
Q

Use anatomical words to describe the position of the epigastric region relative to the umbilical region

A

The epigastric region is superior to the umbilical region

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16
Q

Name 2 organs in the pelvic cavity

A

uterus, bladder ( could also name other reproductive organs and rectum)

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17
Q

True or False: The dorsal body cavity contains the cranial cavity, the spinal cavity, and the pelvic cavity. If your answer is false, rephrase the statement to make it a true statement.

A

F

The dorsal cavity contains the cranial and spinal cavity

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18
Q

which plane divides the human body into superior and inferior sections

A

horizontal/transverse

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19
Q

a saggital plane that lies directly in the midline is termed

A

midsaggital plane/ median plane

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20
Q

Define( give example) the following cells:
isotonic
hypertonic
hypotonic

A

isotonic: a cell contains equal amount of solute and solution
hypertonic: red blood cell in ocean water
hypotonic: cell beginning to swell

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21
Q

which one of the following is not true regarding active transport
The sodium-potassium pump is an example
Additional energy is needed to drive this process
Active transport moves particles with the concentration gradient
Active transport requires carrier proteins.

A

Active transport moves particles with the concentration gradient

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22
Q 
List the three organelles, in order, involved in the synthesis, transport and shipping of proteins
  rough ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes 
  ribosomes, rough ER, Golgi complex 
  ribosomes, smooth ER, Golgi complex 
  rough ER, Golgi complex, vacuole
A

ribosomes, rough ER, golgi complex

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23
Q

a. Cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria. (T or F)
b. The purpose of cellular respiration is to produce ATP. (T or F)
c. Integral proteins are only found on the inner surface of a cell membrane. (T or F)
d. Endocytosis is the process that occurs to eject biomacromolecules from the cell. (T or F)
e. Pinocytosis uses a signaling molecule from another cell, binding to the cell membrane to bring about changes within the cell proteins. (T or F)

A

a. True
b. True
c. False- (Peripheral proteins are found on the inner or outer surface of the cell membrane. Integral proteins span the entire length of the membrane.)
d. False- (This process is called exocytosis)
e. False- (This process is called receptor-mediated endocytosis or information transfer)

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24
Q

Describe Taysachs disease: what organelle is impacted, what are the symptoms and why do they occur

A
  1. lysosomes
  2. build up of toxic lipids
  3. causes disability and death
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25
Q

You are observing two cells under the microscope. They are the same type of eukaryotic cell but one appears much larger. Based on appearance alone, which one would you expect to be carrying out respiration at a more active rate, the larger or smaller cell? Explain why.

A

The smaller cell. Cells need to remain relatively small because as a cell expands the amount of surface area relative to the volume of the cell decreases. The smaller cell is more active because relative to its volume, its surface area is larger than a bigger cell. With a larger surface area (relative to its volume) this allows the metabolic processes to occur faster.

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26
Q

How many lobes does the L human lung have

A

2

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27
Q

air and not food pass in which of the following: A.esophagus, B. nasopharanx, C. oropharynx, D. a and c

A

B

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28
Q

Rings of cartilage line much of the respiratory tract. In which of one the following would cartilage NOT be found?
trachea, larynx, bronchi, alveoli

A

alveoli

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29
Q

Explain what happens to the epiglottis during swallowing. Why?

A

The trachea is closed by the epiglottis. The epiglottis moves inferiorly, covering the trachea. This is to prevent food or liquid from entering the lungs.

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30
Q

Explain at least two differences between Type I and Type II alveolar cells.

A

a. Type I form the very thin simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli in junction with capillaries. Make up roughly 95% of alveolar epithelial cells.
b. Type II produce and secrete pulmonary surfactant which is needed throughout the alveolar surface to keep the alveoli open. In addition, Type II cells can divide to replace damaged Type I cells. Make up roughly 5% of alveolar epithelial cells.

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31
Q

True/False: Positive pressure is used to move air into the lungs.

A

F

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32
Q

True/False: During inhalation the diaphragm contracts to pull the lungs open.

A

T

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33
Q

True/False: During inhalation the rib cage lifts in an upward motion to open and expand the lungs.

A

T

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34
Q

True/False: As the thoracic cavity expands and lung volume increases, the density of the gases filling the lungs decreases.

A

T

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35
Q

True/False: As the rib cage expands during inhalation, air will naturally flow into the lungs.

A

T

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36
Q

According to Charles’s Law gas volume is:
A. Indirectly proportional to its temperature
B. Directly proportional to its pressure
C. Directly proportional to its temperature
D. Indirectly proportional to its pressure

A

C

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37
Q

Which one of the following tracheal cartilages are paired?

thyroid, cricoid, arytenoid, epiglottal, hyaline

A

arytenoid

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38
Q

Which one of the following is not true of the pleurae?
The pleurae are membranes that cover surfaces
Parietal pleurae cover the surfaces surrounding the lungs
Visceral pleurae cover the diaphragm
A healthy pleural cavity is nearly empty of air or fluid

A

visceral pleurae cover the diaphram

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39
Q

Which one of the following is not true of the respiratory physiology
Tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation
Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle of quiet breathing
Inspiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation
Expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air able to be exhaled beyond normal exhalation

A

tidal volume is the maximum amount of air able to be inhaled beyond normal inhalation

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40
Q

Which one of the following is true of the respiratory physiology calculations?
Vital Capacity (VC) = ERV+TV
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) = VC +RV
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+RV
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = IRV + TV

A

TLC= VC+RV

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41
Q

True/False:

The gas-exchange region in the lungs must be dry, thin and large.

A

F

requires moisture

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42
Q

True/False:

During inhalation, negative pressure draws air into the lungs.

A

T

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43
Q

True/False:

The vestibule is lined with typical respiratory epithelium.

A

F

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44
Q

True/False:

Because of diffusion, oxygen naturally moves out of the blood and into the lungs.

A

F

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45
Q

True/False:

The bronchioles are surrounded by capillaries for gas exchange

A

F

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46
Q

The pressure of three gases equals 1 atmosphere. What is the partial pressure of oxygen (in mmHG)if nitrogen is 100 mmHg and carbon dioxide is 150 mmHg

A

510 mmHG
1atm= 760 mmHg
100 mmHg + 150 mmHG + X = 760 mmHg
OR: 760 - 100-150= 510 mmHG

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47
Q

Why would warming air be beneficial to gas exchange?

A

It would expand the air to make it more available for gas exchange.

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48
Q

Explain what helps to maintain constant temperature within the lungs. Why is it important for effective gas exchange?

A

Incomplete ventilation helps to maintain a constant temperature within the lungs. The increased temperature allows for greater gas exchange.

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49
Q

From widest to narrowest, the branches of the bronchial tree are:
Secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, primary bronchi, bronchioles
Bronchioles, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi
Tertiary bronchi, secondary bronchi, primary bronchi, bronchioles
Primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles

A

primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles

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50
Q

In gas exchange (external respiration):
Carbon dioxide diffuses from alveoli into capillaries, oxygen diffuses from capillaries into alveoli
Oxygen diffuses from alveoli into capillaries, carbon dioxide diffuses from capillaries into alveoli
Oxygen and carbon dioxide is carried from alveoli into the bronchioles
Oxygen is chemically transformed into carbon dioxide within the alveoli

A

oxygen diffuses from alveoli into capillaries, carbon dioxide diffuses from capillaries into alveoli

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51
Q 
The purpose of these cells are the primary immune defense of the alveoli:
  Type I alveolar cells 
  Type II alveolar cells 
  Surfactant
 Alveolar macrophages
A

Alveolar Macrophages

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52
Q
  1. Muscular dystrophy is a neuromuscular disease which restricts the lungs from fully expanding due to muscular weakness. If a person is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy:
    1) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function would be true?
    2) Explain your answer.

A. Inspiratory capacity would be abnormally low
B. Vital capacity would abnormally high
C. Total lung capacity would remain the same

A

A. Inspiratory capacity would be abnormally low
Vital capacity would decrease because there is a decreased ability to bring in as much air compared to normal values because of muscular weakness.
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV+IRV (or) VC-ERV
Decreased VC, decreased IC

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53
Q

Explain why a patient with liver disease would have intolerance to fatty foods.

A

The liver produces bile which breaks down fats. If it is not producing bile (or less bile), fats will not be broken down effectively.

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54
Q

Explain in detail how the stomach contents enter the small intestine.

A

The pyloric sphincter (valve), located at the base of the stomach, relaxes causing a small quantity of chyme to pass through the opening into the first part of the small intestine.
This initiates a reflex that causes the muscles of the sphincter to contract and close the opening temporarily. Then the sphincter relaxes again and allows more chyme to enter.

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55
Q

A doctor is looking to prescribe a larger dose of a vitamin that would not easily cause vitamin toxicity. What type of vitamin would be the best to prescribe? Explain your answer.
A. Water soluble vitamin
B. Fat soluble vitamin
C. All of the above

A

A. Water soluble vitamin.

Fat soluble vitamins are stored within the body’s fat stores making it harder for the body to rid itself of them.

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56
Q

Explain which digestive system functions are carried out by the small intestine.

A

Digestion: Chemical and mechanical: In the small intestine chemical digestion continues as enzymes from the pancreatic juices break down starches and proteins, and begin digestion of fat. Mechanical digestion continues as bile breaks down fat into smaller pieces.
Absorption: begins as digested food molecules, water and fat are absorbed into the bloodstream.

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57
Q

Describe parietal cells and chief cells: name their location, secretions and purposes.

A

The parietal cells (located in the wall of the stomach body) secrete hydrochloric acid, generating a pH of 1.3-3.5. This very acidic pH kills many of the bacteria ingested along with food. In addition, the low pH stops the activity of salivary amylase. The secretion of hydrochloric acid is essential in the activation of pepsin.

Chief cells: secrete pepsinogen. Pepsinogen (a pre-enzyme) is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach. Hydrochloric acid converts the inactive pepsinogen (secreted by the chief cells) into the active enzyme pepsin which begins the breakdown of proteins.

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58
Q

What is the purpose of the hormone Ghrelin?

A

Increase hunger, decrease satiety

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59
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
The ileocecal valve controls the entrance of chyme into to the large intestine.

Taste buds are located on the surface of the mouth and the wall of the pharynx.

The liver, pancreas, and tongue are considered accessory organs to the digestive system.

The stomach is located along the right side of the abdomen below the diaphragm.

A

The stomach is located along the right side of the abdomen below the diaphram

it is on the left side not the right

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60
Q

True/False: Lipids can be divided into three categories: saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol.

A

T

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61
Q

True/False: Anabolism combines smaller molecules to make larger molecules.

A

T

62
Q

True/False: The nasopharynx is the most superior region of the pharynx.

A

T

63
Q

True/False: The pharynx has two types of skeletal muscle: circumferential and oblique.

A

F: it does not have an oblique layer

64
Q

True/False: The oblique layer of the stomach churning food into smaller pieces is an example of mechanical digestion.

A

T

65
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning glycolysis?
A) Pyruvic acid are broken down into glucose.
B) Two ATP molecules are formed in first breakdown of glucose.
C) Glucose is broken down into three pyruvate molecules.
D) Glucose is broken down into two sucrose molecules.

A

B. two ATP molecules are formed in the first breakdown of glucose

66
Q

Which of the following statements is false concerning the second stage of glucose breakdown?
A)This second stage is also known as the TCA cycle.
B) Pyruvic acid is converted to carbon dioxide.
C)Additional ATP is formed.
D) This is also known as the electron transport system.

A

D. this is also known as the electron transport system

67
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the Electron Transport System?
A) Can proceed can proceed only aerobically
B) Approximately a total of 2 ATP are formed.
C) Protons are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D) The proton motive force forms ADP.

A

C. proteins are pumped out of the inner mitochondrial membrane

68
Q 
Match the structure with the best description:
Uvula:
  Connects mouth to esophagus 
  Forms food into a bolus 
  Attaches to the lesser omentum 
  Stores glycogen and produces urea 
attached to soft palate
A

attached to soft palate

69
Q 
Match the structure with the best description:
Stomach:
 Hangs from the cecum 
  Connects mouth to esophagus 
 Attaches to the greater omentum 
  Contains the hepatic flexure 
  Site of the ileocecal valve
A

attaches to the greater omentum

70
Q

Match the structure with the best description:
Submucosal (layer of tissue):

Made of two layers of muscle 
  Innermost layer 
  Secretes mucous 
  Contains blood and lymph vessels 
  Begins in the mouth
A

contains blood and lymph vessels

71
Q 
Match the structure with the best description:
Enamel:
Lies below the gum line 
  Innermost layer 
  Largest portion of each tooth 
  Contains nerves and vessels 
 Located on the surface of the crown
A

Located on the surface of the crown

72
Q

Match the structure with the best description:
Common Bile Duct
Contains lymph vessels and nerve
Joins with the thoracic duct
Enters the ileum
Contains secretions from the pancreas
Contains secretions from the gallbladder

A

contains secretions from the gallbladder

73
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the function of bones?
Sesamoid bones are large and thin.
Short bones have an irregular structure
The fontanelles are an example of sesamoid bone.
Vertebrae are an example of irregular bone.

A

vertebrae are an example of irregular bone

74
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning bones?
A. Bones are a storage site for phosphorus and calcium.
B. A tuberosity is a projection for a tendon or ligament attachment.
C. A process is a depression found in bone.
D. Bones are completely smooth surfaces.
E. C. and D. are false

A

E

75
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the skeletal system?
A. The two main divisions of the skeletal system are: axial and appendicular.
B. The two main divisions of the skeletal system are: vertebral and thoracic.
C. The axial skeleton lies along the midline of the body.
D. The vertebral division of the skeleton is included in the appendicular skeleton.
E. B. and D. are false
F. A. and C are false

A

E

76
Q

The cranium is formed by _____ bones; the facial skeleton contains _____ bones.

A

8, 14

77
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the scapula?
The clavicle connects to the coracoid process of the scapula.
The lateral border of the scapula connects to the neck of the scapula.
The supraspinatus fossa is located on the posterior side of the scapula.
The clavicle articulates with the scapula.

A

the clavicle connects to the coracoid process of the scapula

the clavicle connects to the scapula by the acrominon process

78
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the humerus?
A. The trochlea articulates with the ulna.
B. The head of the humerus articulates with the ulna.
C. The capitulum articulates with the radius.
D. The medial epicondyle is the prominent bone landmark of the medial side of the elbow (in anatomical position).
E. A. and B. are false

A

B

The head of the humerus articulates with the scapula

79
Q

The glenohumeral joint is prone to dislocation. In your own words, (1) Describe dislocation and (2) What happens in dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?

A
  1. Dislocation of a joint means that the bone is removed from its socket.
  2. Dislocation of the shoulder occurs when the head of the humerus is removed from the glenoid cavity in any direction.
80
Q

Red bone marrow is found primarily where

A

is found primarily in short and flat bones.

81
Q 
The epiphysis of a bone:
A. is found at the ends of long bones. 
  B. contains the articular cartilage at joint articulations. 
  C. contains the diaphysis. 
  D. is the center length of a bone.
 E. both A. and B.
A

E.

82
Q 
Compact bone:
  A. forms the exterior of bones. 
  B. forms the interior of bones. 
  C. is lighter than spongy bone. 
  D. contains numerous bars and plates with irregular spaces. 
  E. both B. and D.
A

A

83
Q

Endochondral ossification:
A. begins at the primary ossification center at end of long bones
B. begins at the primary ossification center at the center of long bones.
C. is the formation of long bones from hyaline cartilage.
D. is the formation of long bones from connective tissue.
E. both A. and D.
F. both B. and C.

A

F

84
Q

A patient has a diagnosis of osteoporosis. (1) In your own words, describe this diagnosis and (2) What type of bone cell would they be lacking? Explain your answer.

A

(1) Osteoporosis is a bone tissue disease. When bone tissue degenerates faster than is replaced, the bones become weak. Brittle bones cause increased pain and are more likely to fracture.
(2) They would have decreased osteoblasts which are responsible for bone repair. The bone repair would be unable to keep up with the ongoing breakdown of bone which is done by the work of osteoblasts.

85
Q

Your patient has back pain due to a herniated disc. (1) In your own words explain what it means to have a herniated disc. (2) As reviewed in the module, discuss one treatment option to address your patient’s pain.

A

(1) A herniated disc is an injury to the intervertebral disc, where the center portion of the disc bulges into the vertebral foramen, causing pain.
(2) Explanation of
1- Physical therapy for strengthening to support back ligaments.
OR 2- Surgery to fuse two vertebrae together.

86
Q

T/F: There are three types of muscle tissue found in the body.

A

T

87
Q

T/F: Cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are both under involuntary control.

A

T

88
Q

T/F: The lumbar plexus is part of the central nervous system.

A

F

89
Q

T/F: A motor signal is a signal that is sent from a muscle to the central nervous system.

A

F

90
Q

T/F: The lumbar plexus contains nerves that innervate the thigh.

A

T

91
Q

Tendons connect which types of tissue?

A

muscle to bone

92
Q

Acetylcholine is what type of substance?

A

neurotransmitter

93
Q

During a muscle contraction which protein myofilament is pulled along?

A

actin

94
Q

What is the name of the thin myofilament?

A

actin

95
Q

The return of calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes what to occur?

A

muscle relaxation: muscle contration stops

96
Q 
Your patient sustained an injury to their facial nerve (CN VII). Which actions would be impaired?
  A. Eye closure 
  B. Raising eyebrows 
  C. Jaw closure 
  D. Neck flexion 
 E. A&B 
 F. C&D
A

E. orbicularis oculi and frontalis

97
Q 
Your patient is having difficulty when asked to bring his chin to his chest. He is also having difficulty turning his face from side to side. What muscle is most likely impaired?
  Thyrohyoid 
  Semispinalis capitis 
  Splenius Capitis 
Sternocleidomastoid 
Scalenes
A

sternocleidomastoid

98
Q 
A person sustained a back injury to the muscle group closest to the spine. What muscle group was injured?
  Longissimus 
 Spinalis 
  Sternocleidomastoid 
  Iliocostalis 
  Rectus abdominis
A

spinalis

99
Q

True or False: When a muscle contracts, the M lines within a sarcomere come closer together towards the Z line.

A

F

100
Q

True or False: The A band contains thin filaments.

A

T

101
Q 
Which muscle contracts to enable the main effort required to stand on your toes?
  Gastrocnemius 
  Quadriceps 
  Biceps femoris 
  Tibialis anterior
A

gastrocnemius

102
Q 
When rectus femoris contracts, which bone is pulled anteriorly by this muscle?
  Femur 
 Tibia 
  Ilium 
  Ulna
A

tibia

103
Q 
When extensor digitorum contracts, what action(s) occurs?
  A. Elbow extension 
  B. Wrist extension 
  C. Extension of digit 1 
  D. Extension of digits 2-5 
  E. A&C 
 F. B&D
A

F

104
Q 
Contraction of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ results in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
  obturator externus, spine flexion 
  obturator externus, spine extension 
  iliacus, hip flexion 
  iliacus, hip extension
A

iliacus, hip flexion

105
Q 
When superior gemellus contracts, what action(s) will not occur at the hip?
  A. Lateral rotation 
  B. Internal rotation 
  C. Adduction 
  D. Extension 
  E. Flexion 
  F. A&D 
G. B&E
A

G: (B and E)

106
Q

Describe what is meant by muscle fiber “cross-bridges”. What occurs to enable movement of the cross-bridges?

A

In the presence of calcium ions, portions of a myosin filament called cross-bridges bend backward and attach to an actin filament. After attaching to the actin filament, the cross-bridges bend forward, and the actin filament is pulled along. The cross-bridges attach and detach some fifty to 100 times as the thin filaments are pulled to the center of a sarcomere. ATP is needed on a cellular level for the myosin to pull actin along.

107
Q

Explain two reasons why a woman with low levels of LH would not be able to become pregnant.

A

(1) LH acts on the ovary to cause ovulation to occur. (2) LH causes progesterone release to facilitate potential fertilization of the egg and pregnancy. Progesterone is a key hormone for the maintenance of pregnancy.

108
Q

Would you expect a male to have estrogen in their bloodstream? Explain why or why not.

A

(1) Yes. Both male and female bodies produce “all” the sex hormones. However, the ratios are different.
(2) The adrenal glands are largely responsible for producing this “opposite” hormone that the testis would not.

109
Q

Explain the concept of positive feedback. Give an example of a hormone that works through positive feedback.

A

1- Positive feedback is the action of a hormone increasing the production of that hormone. (This is the opposite of negative feedback).
2- One example is the action of oxytocin causing the uterus to contract during labor. Oxytocin enhances the effect of the uterus contractions, causing more oxytocin to be released. The positive feedback loop is stopped once the baby is born and the uterus no longer needs to contract, stopping the production of oxytocin.

110
Q

This type of hormone is derived from proteins:

A

peptide hormones

111
Q

Growth hormone______
A. is most active during adulthood.
B. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
C. underproduction is called acromegaly.
D. A &C

A

B. is produced by anterior pituitary gland

112
Q

Neurons in the hypothalamus are called ______

A

neurosecretory

113
Q

Which hormone production is decreased with sunlight?

A

melatonin

114
Q

The posterior pituitary stores these two hormones:

A

ADH and oxytocin

115
Q

List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below:

I promote the reabsorption of water at the collecting ducts of the kidneys.

A

ADH

116
Q

List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below:

I am secreted by the pituitary and stimulate the gonads.

A

LH
FSH
Gonadotropic hormones

117
Q

List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below:

I am secreted by the pituitary to stimulate the adrenal cortex.

A

ACTH

118
Q

List the hormone(s) that best describes the statement below:

I am secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas.

A

glucagon

119
Q

Explain in detail how PTH and calcitonin work to maintain calcium balance.

A

Calcitonin: produced by the thyroid glands, deposits calcium into bone. Calcitonin opposes the action of PTH. When the blood calcium level reaches the appropriate level through all these means, the parathyroid glands stop producing PTH through negative feedback.
PTH: produced by the parathyroid glands increase the amount of calcium in the blood. (Any one of the following explanations of PTH is acceptable)
PTH stimulates the increased absorption of calcium from the intestines.
PTH retains calcium through excreting phosphate at the kidneys.
In the bones, PTH promotes the activity of osteoclasts to demineralize of the bone, increasing the amount of calcium in the blood.

120
Q

Where is thyroid stimulating hormone produced?

A

anterior pituitary

121
Q

Which cells mature in the thymus?

A

T cells

122
Q

Iodine is needed to produce which hormone/s?

A

T3/T4

123
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin?
  Uterine contraction 
  Bone growth 
  Milk letdown 
  Given to aide in childbirth process
A

bone growth

124
Q 
Which hormones are produced in the anterior pituitary?
  TSH, MSH, and calcitonin 
  ADH, GH, and prolactin 
  ACTH, FSH, and GH. 
  PTH, TSH, and LH
A

ACTH, FSH, GH

125
Q

Aldosterone is involved in the regulation of sodium and potassium in the body. Explain how too much aldosterone could contribute to high blood pressure.

A

Aldosterone’s primary target organ is the kidney, where it promotes renal absorption of sodium and renal excretion of potassium. The blood sodium level is particularly important to the maintenance of blood pressure. Too much sodium causes retention of fluid and increases blood pressure. Therefore, too much aldosterone will cause increased and potentially high blood pressure.

126
Q

In addition to the endocrine system, the pancreas is also part of which system?

A

digestive

127
Q

Which part of the adrenal glands is vital to life?

A

cortex

128
Q

Which of the following is false regarding aldosterone?
It is a regulated by the concentration of sodium.
It causes the kidneys to excrete potassium and retain sodium.
It causes the kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium.
It is a mineralocorticoid.
It increases blood pressure

A

it causes kidneys to retain potassium and excrete sodium

129
Q

If you were calcium deficient, which hormone would most likely need to increase in your body in order to compensate?

A

PTH

130
Q

Which of the following is false regarding testosterone?
Production is highest in puberty.
It causes growth of the sex organs.
It is required for the maturation of sperm.
It causes males to have a wider pelvis (compared to females).

A

It causes males to have a wider pelvis: compared to females

131
Q

The layers of the epidermis, from deep to superficial are:

A

stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

132
Q

Exocrine glands secrete ______; Endocrine glands secrete ____.
A. for body-wide distribution, into an epithelial lining
B. into an epithelial lining, for body-wide distribution
C. through a duct, into the bloodstream
D. into the bloodstream, through a duct
E. A&D
F. B&C

A

F( b and c)

133
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the epidermis:
It is highly vascular.
It is comprised of five distinct layers.
The basement membrane contains its blood supply.
Epidermal ridges change throughout a person’s lifetime.

A

the basement membrane contains its blood supply

134
Q

A person senses pain from a sharp tack. What type of sensory organ detects this information?

A

nociceptor

135
Q

Main blood supply for the skin is found in what layer?

A

dermis: reticular region

136
Q

In your own words, how can the skin be used to determine if a person is dehydrated?

A

A person who is dehydrated has decreased water content in the dermal layer of their skin. A person can be tested for dehydration by pinching the skin on the back of the hand. One indicator of dehydration is when the skin does not recoil back to its normal shape but instead stays “ridged”.

137
Q 
All of the following are functions of skin except:
  Absorb UV rays 
Produce vitamin C 
  Thermoregulation 
  Protection for underlying tissues
A

produce vitamin C

138
Q

The thickest region of the dermis is the:
Reticular
Papillary
Basement membrane
Subcutaneous
None of the above are layers of the dermis

A

reticular

139
Q 
A subcutaneous injection is to be given in what region of the skin?
  Epidermis 
  Dermis 
 Hypodermis 
  Muscle tissue
A

hypodermis: before getting to muscle

140
Q 
What is a contusion?
  A third degree burn 
  An infection in the epidermis 
  Subcutaneous injection 
 Damage to a broken blood vessel
A

damage to a broken blood vessel

141
Q 
Information from a dermatome travels to:
  The brain 
  A hair follicle 
  A gland 
  The skin
A

the brain

142
Q

Your patient was injured in a house fire. The skin sustained damage through the epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, and some muscle tissue.
1- What degree of burn best describes your patient’s injury?
2- Would your patient experience pain in the injured area? Why or why not?

A
  • 4th degree
  • No, fourth-degree burns damage the epidermis, the dermis, the hypodermis, and underlying tissue such as muscle or bone. Because the nerve endings are destroyed there is no sensation in the affected burn area.
143
Q

This part of a hair contains blood and nervous supply:

A

the bulb

144
Q

Hair is made up of

A

Dead epidermal cells converted to keratin

145
Q

Nails are hard, dead cells which have been converted to _____

A

keratin

146
Q

The nail _____ is the visible portion of the nail.

A

body

147
Q

Why would a person receive a skin graft?

A

(1) Skin grafting decreases recovery time and prevents infection
OR
(2) If skin has been damaged severely and/or covers a large surface area

148
Q

What substance from the blood accumulates to form a clot?

A

platelets

149
Q

Mast cells secrete what chemical?

A

histamine

150
Q

Fibroblasts secrete ______

A

collagen

151
Q

The final phase of wound healing is called:

A

remodeling

Anatomy and Physiology (9 decks)

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