Module 4 Flashcards

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1
Q
Which of the following is most likely the number of base pairs in a bacterial chromosome?
4,000,000
4,000
400
40
A

4,000,000

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2
Q

Where are prokaryotic chromosomes located?

A

In the cytosol

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3
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

Extrachromosomal DNA

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4
Q

A histone uses what kind of bond with eukaryotic DNA to stabilize it?

A

An ionic bond

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5
Q

What is found in four forms, each with a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate and a base?

A

A nucleotide

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6
Q

What molecule functions as a proofreader for newly replicated DNA?

A

DNA polymerase III

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7
Q

What is methylation?

A

The addition of -CH3 to a cytosine nucleotide after DNA replication

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8
Q

In translation, the site where tRNA leaves the ribosome is called what?

A

The E site

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9
Q

Which test uses auxotrophs and liver extract to reveal mutagens?

A

The Ames test

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10
Q

What is the method of DNA repair that involves enzymes that recognize and correct nucleotide errors in unmethylated DNA?

A

Mismatch repair

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11
Q

What are three mechanisms of genetic transfer between cells?

A

Transduction
Transformation
Conjugation

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12
Q

Cells that can take up DNA from their environment are considered?

A

Competent

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13
Q

Conjugation requires what, extending from the surface of a cell?

A

Sex pilus

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14
Q

What are called jumping genes?

A

Transposons

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15
Q

What is the process called when two unrelated cell exchange DNA and incorporate it into their chromosome?

A

Horizontal gene transfer

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16
Q

What does transcription produce?

A

RNA molecules from DNA molecules

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17
Q

What is a nucleotide made of?

A

A five carbon sugar, a nitrogen base and a phosphate

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18
Q

In DNA forms how many hydrogen bonds does adenine share with which other base?

A

Two hydrogen bonds with thymine

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19
Q

A sequence of nucleotides made during replication of a lagging DNA strand is called?

A

An Okazaki fragment

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20
Q

What are the three components of an operon?

A
  1. operator
  2. promoter
  3. gene
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21
Q

repressible operons are important in regulating prokaryotic what?

A

RNA transcription

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22
Q

What is part of each molecule of mRNA?

A

A codon

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23
Q

Ligase plays a major role in what?

A

The replication of lagging strands

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24
Q

What three characteristics must a mutation have before it can affect a population permanently?

A

It must be lasting, beneficial and inheritable

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25
Q

The trp operon is repressible, meaning that it is usually in what state and controlled by what?

A

it is usually in an active state and controlled by repressor

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26
Q

The three steps in RNA transcription are?

A
  1. initiation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
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27
Q

A triplet of mRNA nucleotides that specifies a particular amino acid is called what?

A

A codon

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28
Q

What are the three effects of a point mutation?

A
  1. silence
  2. missense
  3. nonsense
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29
Q

Insertions and deletions in a genetic code are also called what?

A

Frameshift mutations

30
Q

What kind of operons are inactive until the substrate of their genes’ polypeptides is present?

A

Inducible

31
Q

Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative?

A

Because a daughter DNA molecule is made of one new strand and one original strand

32
Q

What are nucleotide sequences containing palindromes and genes for proteins that cut DNA strands?

A

Transposons

33
Q

What is a recombination event that occurs during gamete formation in eukaryotes?

A

Crossing over

34
Q

What kind of RNA carries amino acids

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

35
Q

What two kinds of RNA are antisense, in that they are complementary to another nucleic acid molecule?

A
  1. Small interfering RNA

2. Micro RNA

36
Q

What does recombinant DNA technology accomplish?

A

The modification of an organism’s genome

37
Q

What is DNA synthesized from an RNA template?

A

Complementary DNA

38
Q

After Penicillium were exposed to agents X, Y and Z and examined the type/amount of penicillin the fungi produced to find the most effective. Agents X, Y and Z were probably?

A

Mutagens

39
Q

What recombinant DNA technique is used to replicate copies of a DNA molecule?

A

PCR

40
Q

What technique is most useful in following gene expression in a yeast cell?

A

DNA microarray

41
Q

What do restriction enzymes do?

A

Cut DNA at a specific nucleotide sequence

42
Q

What application of recombinant DNA technology involves replacing a non-functional, mutated gene with a functional one?

A

Gene therapy

43
Q

What does a DNA microarray consist of?

A

Single-stranded DNA localized on a substrate

44
Q

What cuts DNA at specific sites?

A

Restriction enzymes

45
Q

What process separates molecules based on their size, shape and electrical charge?

A

Electrophoresis

46
Q

What kind of fusion is often used in the genetic modification of plants?

A

Protoplast fusion

47
Q

Gel electrophoresis is used in what process?

A

Southern blotting

48
Q

How do genetic changes help modern bacteria?

A
  1. bacteria have been the recipients of genetic engineering.
  2. bacteria can thrive everywhere.
  3. bacteria multiply rapidly allowing for genetic changes to appear quickly.
49
Q

A bacterium’s genome consists of?

A

the complete set of genetic information.

50
Q

How does a long circular chromosome fits into a small E. coli cell?

A
  1. by the DNA double helix twisting on itself like a wound-up rubber band
  2. by using nucleoid associated proteins for packing
  3. by supercoiling
51
Q

The genetic information carried on a plasmid can be used for?

A
  1. bacteriocin synthesis.
  2. antibiotic resistance.
  3. transfer of genetic material.
52
Q

The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule that is complementary to the sequence CGTTAGA would be expressed as?

A

GCAAUCU.

53
Q

Transcription acts to?

A

produce RNA molecules.

54
Q

Which codon matches to the tRNA anticodon TTT?

A

No such anticodon exists.

55
Q

An mRNA stop codon codes for?

A

no amino acid.

56
Q

What are the parts of an operon?

A
  1. Structural genes
  2. Operator
  3. Promoter
57
Q

The Ames test is used to?

A

learn whether a chemical can induce a bacterial mutation.

58
Q

Genes that are passed between parent and offspring is called?

A

vertical gene transfer.

59
Q

Describe a F plasmid

A
  1. They contain genes for production of the pilus
  2. They are a double-stranded loop of DNA.
  3. They are found in F+ cells.
60
Q

If a donor E. coli cell transfers DNA to a recipient Shigella cell what could happen?

A

possible transfer of antibiotic resistance

61
Q

A plasmid was produced through genetic engineering that contains a gene for human insulin. Such a plasmid is called a(n)?

A

recombinant plasmid.

62
Q

To transfer a gene into plants, transposons isolated from which bacteria are used?

A

Agrobacterium.

63
Q

The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have ___ nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein.

A

three

64
Q

Mutations arising from chance events in the environment are known as __________ mutations.

A

spontaneous

65
Q

The enzyme that seals DNA fragments together is called _______________. (2 word answer)

A

DNA ligase

66
Q

A ______________ is a substance which induces changes in DNA bases.

A

mutagen

67
Q

A ________________ is a closed circular piece of DNA that contains few genes which are non-essential to the cell.

A

plasmid

68
Q

_________ is a useful tool in biotechnology that is a small slide surface on which genes or DNA segments are attached and arranged spatially in a known pattern that can be used to assess gene expression in microorganisms. (2 word answer)

A

DNA microarray

69
Q

____________ is a technique that takes a segment of DNA and replicates it millions of times in just a few hours.

A

PCR

70
Q

A cell that is capable of accepting DNA from the environment is called ___________.

A

competent

71
Q

Cell contact is necessary for bacterial conjugation to occur but does not occur for what?

A

transduction.