Mod. 1 Specific Cell stuff

Question 1

Which of the following is defined as an injurious, unstable agent that can cause cell death?
A) Tumors
B) Antioxidants
C) Free radicals
D) Antibodies

Answer 1

C) Free radicals

Rationale: Free radicals are unstable molecules that can cause oxidative damage to cells, potentially leading to cell death.

Question 2

Cellular growth that no longer responds to normal regulatory processes, usually due to a mutation, is called:
A) Neoplasms
B) Antioxidants
C) Free radicals
D) Antibodies

Answer 2

A) Neoplasms

Rationale: Neoplasms (tumors) form when cells divide uncontrollably, often due to genetic mutations.

Question 3

Which cellular adaptation is considered precancerous?
A) Dysplasia
B) Anaplasia
C) Hyperplasia
D) Metaplasia

Answer 3

A) Dysplasia

Rationale: Dysplasia is an abnormal change in cell size, shape, or organization, often considered a precancerous condition.

Question 4

What is the purpose of cancer staging?
A) To determine the aggressiveness of tumor cells microscopically
B) To identify the genetic cause of the cancer
C) To describe the extent of cancer spread in the body
D) To measure the presence of tumor markers in the blood

Answer 4

To describe the extent of cancer spread in the body

Rationale: Staging assesses tumor size, lymph node involvement, and metastasis, guiding treatment options.

Question 5

Which cancer screening guideline is recommended for early detection of colorectal cancer?
A) Yearly mammograms starting at age 40
B) Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45-50
C) Monthly self-breast exams beginning at age 20
D) Pap smears every 3 years after age 21

Answer 5

B) Colonoscopy every 10 years starting at age 45-50

Rationale: Colonoscopies help detect early colorectal cancer and polyps, reducing mortality.

Question 6

Which tumor cell marker is commonly used to monitor prostate cancer?
A) CA-125
B) CEA
C) PSA
D) AFP

Answer 6

C) PSA

Rationale: Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) is a biomarker used for prostate cancer screening and monitoring.

Question 7

What is the 23rd pair of human chromosomes responsible for?
A) Coding for enzymes
B) Determining an individual’s sex
C) Regulating metabolic pathways
D) Expressing physical traits like eye color

Answer 7

B) Determining an individual’s sex

Rationale: The 23rd chromosome pair consists of sex chromosomes (XX for females, XY for males).

Question 8

Which term describes a person’s observable traits, such as eye color and height?A) Karyotype
B) Phenotype
C) Genotype
D) Allele

Answer 8

B) Phenotype

Rationale: The phenotype is the outward expression of a person’s genetic makeup (genotype).

Question 9

A patient inherits two identical alleles for a particular gene. This is an example of:
A) Heterozygosity
B) Homozygosity
C) Dominant inheritance
D) Recessive inheritance

Answer 9

B) Homozygosity

Rationale: Homozygous individuals inherit two identical copies of a gene, whereas heterozygous individuals inherit two different copies.

Question 10

Which type of genetic disorder results from a mutation in a single gene?
A) Chromosomal disorder
B) Multifactorial disorder
C) Single-gene disorder
D) Environmental disorder

Answer 10

C) Single-gene disorder

Rationale: Single-gene disorders arise from mutations in a single gene, affecting function (e.g., cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease).

Question 11

Which pattern of inheritance requires only one mutated allele to cause disease?
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X-linked recessive
D) Multifactorial inheritance

Answer 11

B) Autosomal dominant

Rationale: Autosomal dominant disorders require only one copy of a mutated allele to express the disease (e.g., Huntington’s disease, Marfan syndrome).