Mock Test Flashcards

1
Q

The definition of Agonist and Antagonist muscles?

(A) AGONIST = Muscle responsible for movement, ANTAGONIST - Muscle opposite of the agonist

(B) AGONIST = muscle not responsible for movement, ANTAGONIST = Muscle same as the agonist

(C) AGONIST = Muscle partially responsible for movement, ANTAGONIST = no movement

(D) None of these answers

A

A

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2
Q

BMI = % body fat?

(A) True

(B) False

(C) True and False

A

(B)
- No correlation. The number associated with the BMI calculation does not refer to % Body Fat

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3
Q

The primary muscles involved in the squat?

(A) Hip flexors, Quads, Hamstrings

(B) Hamstrings, Quads, Gastronomic

(C) Gluteal group, Quads, Erector Spinae group

(D) Quads, Gluteal group, Hamstrings, Hip flexors

A

C

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4
Q

Which of the following is not a food group according to the canada food guide?

(A) Carbohydrates

(B) Meat and Alternatives

(C) Fruits and vegetables

(D) Milk and Milk alternatives

A

A

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5
Q

What are the movement(s) that occur in the transverse plane (choose all the apply)?

(A) Rotation

(B) Extension

(C) Lateral Flexion

(D) Flexion

A

A

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6
Q

The agonist/antagonist at the hip are:

(A) Hamstrings and Gastrocnemius

(B) Hamstrings and Adductors

(C) Iliopsoas and Gluteus Maximus

(D) Rectus femoris and Iliopsoas

A

C

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7
Q

What does the “I” in the FITT principle refer to?

(A) Isolation

(B) Increased

(C) intensity

(D) Imposed

A

C

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8
Q

A muscle spindle senses (1) of a stretch, is found specifically in (2) and part of the (3) reflex

(A) (1) viscosity (2) muscles (3) Inverse Myotatic stretch

(B) (1) velocity (2) muscles (3) Inverse Myotatic stretch

(C) (1) velocity (2) muscles (3) Myotatic stretch

(D) (1) velocity (2) Golgi tendon (3) Myotatic stretch

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following diseases affects older aged individuals, younger aged individuals and athletes of any age

(A) Alzheimers

(B) Heart attack

(C) Arthritis

(D) Osteoporosis

A

C
- Many believe arthritis is a diseases that only affect older people. Arthritis can affect anyone at any age including children

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10
Q

Canned soup (796 ml). Each serving of 250 ml serving includes 94 calories and Protein (2.7g), Fat (0.4g) and carbohydrates (20 grams). what is the total amount of calories per serving and percentage of calories that come from protein?

(A) 10.8 calories = 16%

(B) 6.4 calories = 16%

(C) 6.4 calories = 11%

(D) 10.8 calories = 11%

A

Proteins are 4 cal/g
2.7g x 4 = 10.8 calories per serving
10.8/94 calories per serving = 11%

(D)

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11
Q

The plane which divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

(A) Inferior plane

(B) Transverse plane

(C) Sagittal plane

(D) Superior plane

A

B

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12
Q

What would be considered the holistic approach to health and wellness

(A) exercising regularly everyday with weights

(B) Mind, body and spirit

(C) Body and spirit

(D) Mind and body

A

B

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13
Q

Of the following, which are methods to monitor intensity (choose all that apply)?

(A) BORG scale

(B) RPE

(C) Decrease Persperation

(D) Talk test

A

A, B, D

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14
Q

What is the definition of mid-sagittal plane?

(A) A plane which divides the body into upper and lower portions

(B) A plane which divides the body into front and back halves

(C) A plane which divides the body into right and left halves

(D) A plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior portions

A

C

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15
Q

According to BCRPA, rotation of the spine can be very dangerous in which of the following positions?

(A) kneeling on all fours

(B) Seated and in particular, seated rotating against a resistance

(C) Standing with feet shoulder width apart

(D) All are very bad and rotation of the spine should always be avoided

A

B

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16
Q

According to Canada’s “physical activity guide”, the exercise effort for adults should be between

(A) Light effort to vigorous effort

(B) Light effort to maximal effort

(C) Moderate effort only

(D) Very light effort to Vigorous effort

A

A

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17
Q

What is the BMI for Johnny - 6’2” and 254 lbs. and is he within the acceptable range

(A) 31.5 (at risk)

(B) 31.5 (not at risk)

(C) 30.1 (at risk)

(D) 30.1 (not at risk)

A

A)
Since BMI is calculated by
weight (kg)/ height^2 (m)

convert 6’2” to all feet
2 inches / 12 inches = 0.17
6.17’ feet / 3.28 m = 1.88

254 lbs / 2.21 = 115

115/(1.88^2) = 32 or basically 31.5

> 30 is at risk

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18
Q

What physiological changes should not occur during a warm up (choose all that apply)?

(A) Lower heart rate

(B) Increase breathing

(C) Lactic Acid build-up

(D) Increase body temperature

A

A, C

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19
Q

What are the movement(s) that occur in the frontal plane (choose all that apply)?

(A) Extension

(B) Adduction

(C) Abduction

(D) Flexion

A

B, C

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20
Q

What are the movement(s) that occur in the sagittal plane (choose all that apply)

(A) Extension

(B) Flexion

(C) Adduction

(D) Abduction

A

A, B

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21
Q

Canned soup (796 ml). Each serving of 250 ml serving includes 94 calories and Protein (2.7g), Fat (0.4g) and carbohydrates (20 grams). what is the total amount of calories per serving and percentage of calories that come from fat?

(A) 3.6 calories = 3%

(B) 12 calories = 3%

(C) 9 calories = 3%

(D) 3.6 calories = 9%

A

Fat is 9 calories/g
0.4*9 = 3.6
3.6/94 calories = 3%

(A)

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22
Q

Hyperextension of the lower back often occurs during certain abdominal exercises. Hyperextension could be minimized

(A) Performing feet unhooked, bent knee (90 degrees) curl-ups while keeping chin tucked and slowly raising shoulders off mat

(B) Performing bent knee (90 degrees) curl-up with the feet anchored while keeping chin tucked and slowly raising shoulders off the mat

(C) performing hanging leg raises with the back supported

(D) performing hanging leg raises without the back support

A

A

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23
Q

The plane of the body which divides the body into anterior and posterior components?

(A) Superior plane

(B) Frontal plane

(C) Inferior plane

(D) Transverse plane

A

B

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24
Q

Canned soup (796 ml). Each serving of 250 ml serving includes 94 calories and Protein (2.7g), Fat (0.4g) and carbohydrates (20 grams). what is the total amount of calories per serving and percentage of calories that come from carbohydrates?

(A) 85 calories = 80%

(B) 80 calories = 85%

(C) 80 calories = 80%

(D) 85 calories = 85%

A

carbohydrates are 4 calories/g
20 x 4 = 80 calories
80/94 = 85%

(B)

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25
Q

What are the muscle spindles and Golgi Tendon organs sense? Choose the best answer.

(A) Velocity of a stretch and tension of a stretch, respectively

(B) The magnitude of a stretch when a person is unconscious

(C) The myotatic stretch reflex

(D) The inverse myotatic stretch reflex

A

(A)

  • Muscle spindles sense velocity of a stretch (myotatic stretch reflex)
    -The golgi tendon organs sense tension (Inverse myotatic stretch reflex)
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26
Q

What does the “S” in the S.A.I.D principle refer to

(A) Speculation

(B) Specific

(C) Spontaneous

(D) Specification

A

B

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27
Q

Muscles which would perform: Knee extension and Spinal flexion

(A) Quadriceps and Rectus abdominus

(B) Iliopsoas and Transverse abdominus

(C) Rectus biceps and Quadriceps

(D) Quadriceps and Erector spinae

A

A

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28
Q

n resistance training, which of the following best describes the reps and weight required to develop muscular endurance

(A) High reps/Low weight

(B) Low reps/ Low weight

(C) Moderate reps/ Low weight

(D) High reps/ High weight

A

A

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29
Q

What does the “D” in the S.A.I.D principle refer to?

(A) Demand

(B) Demonstration

(C) Delineation

(D) Documentation

A

A

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30
Q

To maximize muscular strength development, one should train to total muscular failure with how many repetition?

(A) Between 6-12 reps

(B) Between 12-20 reps

(C) none of these answers

(D) Between 1-6 reps

A

D

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31
Q

The stretch reflex is:

(A) When blood pools in the extremities

(B) PNF stretching

(C) A reflex contraction caused by the gogli tendon organs

(D) A reflex contraction of the muscle caused my muscle spindles reacting to a quick stretch

A

D

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32
Q

In order to decrease your client’s knee pain, their doctor has told them to strengthen the major muscles of the knee joint. What muscles would you include in the weight training program to accomplish this recommendation (choose all that apply)?

(A) Quadriceps

(B) Soleus

(C) Gastrocnemius

(D) Rectus femoris

(E) Hamstrings

A

A, C, E

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33
Q

The anterior deltoid muscle performs which of the following movements? (choose all that apply)

(A) Transverse/horizontal abduction of the shoulder joint

(B) Transverse/horizontal adduction of the shoulder joint

(C) Medial rotation of the humerus

(D) Flexion of the shoulder joint

A

B, C, D

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34
Q

Although research on stretching has never conclusively proven being flexible will reduce the chance of injury, trainers must incorporate flexibility training into every program designed. When is the best time during a program to work on improving flexibility

(A) Midway through the aerobic conditioning phase

(B) Prior to the weight lifting phase

(C) Following the aerobic conditioning phase

(D) immediately after the warm-up phase

A

C

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35
Q

“Respiration” or “respiratory” could appropriately defined as:

(A) Where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs (aveoli and capillaries)

(B) The heart muscle and all the blood it pumps through the body

(C) Aerobic conditioning or warm-up component of an exercise program

(D) Where oxygen is exchanged with myoglobin

A

A

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36
Q

The terms used to describe 1. Movement towards the midline of the body and 2. movement away from the midline of the body

(A) 1. Adduction 2. Abduction

(B) 1. Abduction 2. Adduction

(C) 1. Sagittal plane 2. Mid-sagittal plane

(D) 1. Plantar flexion 2. Dorsi-flexion

A

A

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37
Q

What is the definition of muscular strength (choose all that apply)?

(A) Maximum amount of force generated in a single repetition

(B) 100% of 1RM

(C) 0% of 1RM

(D) Minimum amount of force generated in a single repetition

A

A, B

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38
Q

What muscle is not considered part of the gluteal group of muscles

(A) Gluteus Maximus

(B) Gluetus Femoris

(C) Gluteus Medius

(D) Gluteus Minimus

A

B

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39
Q

A golgi Tendon organ (GTO) senses (1) of a stretch, is found specifically in (2) and part of the (3) reflex

(A) (1) Torsion (2) muscles (3) Inverse myotatic stretch

(B) (1) Tension (2) Muscles (3) Inverse myotatic stretch

(C) (1) Tension (2) Tendons (3) Inverse Myotatic stretch

(D) (1) Torsion (2) Tendons (3) Inverse Myotatic stretch

A

C

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40
Q

What does the “A” in the S.A.I.D principle refer to?

(A) Adduction

(B) Acceleration

(C) Application

(D) Adaptation

A

D

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41
Q

What is the BMI for Mari-Ann - 5’8” and 162 lbs? Is she within the acceptable range?

(A) 25.1 (not in risk)

(B) 25.1 (At risk)

(C) 24.6 (not in a risk)

(D) 24.6 (at risk)

A

C

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42
Q

As a fitness instructor, your primary focus when training a long-distance runner (10 km to marathon) athlete would be on which the following system?

(A) Aerobic strength

(B) Aerobic power/capacity

(C) Muscular strength

(D) Muscular endurance

A

B

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43
Q

To maximize muscle hypertrophy, your client would train in what rep range?

(A) 6-12 reps

(B) 2-8 reps

(C) 1-4 reps

(D) 12-20 reps

A

A

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44
Q

What is the antagonist muscle when performing Triceps pressdowns?

(A) Anterior Deltoid

(B) Triceps brachii

(C) Biceps brachii

(D) Quadriceps brachii

A

C

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45
Q

During a warm-up, the concept of steady-state should be applied. Which of the following will not remain in the steady state? (Choose all that apply)

(A) Heart rate

(B) Diastolic Blood pressure

(C) Breathing/respiratory rate

(D) Overall body temperature

A

A, C, D

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46
Q

Which exercise below is considered an example of trunk flexion?

(A) Dumbbell bench press

(B) Full chin-ups

(C) Barbell bench press

(D) Crunches

A

D

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47
Q

Muscle responsible for shoulder abduction

(A) Pectoralis Minor

(B) Medial Deltoid

(C) Superior Trapezius

(D) Latissimus dorsi

A

B

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48
Q

When using the Maximum Heart rate method (MHR) to calculate the heart rate training zone (70-85%), the beats per minute will:

(A) Decrease as one ages

(B) Be unaffected by age

(C) Be the same for everyone, regardless of age

(D) Increase as one ages

A

A

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49
Q

What health condition affects bone density, primarily in post-menopausal women?

(A) Osteoporosis

(B) Osteoarthritis

(C) Osteomyelitis

(D) Osteomalacia

A

A

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50
Q

The “primary” muscles involved during the lunge?

(A) Quadriceps, Gluteal group, Hamstrings, Hip flexors

(B) Gluteal group, Quadriceps, adductors

(C) Hamstrings, Quads, Gastrocnemius

(D) Hip Flexors, Quads, Hamstrings

A

B

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51
Q

To develop pure strength, your client would train in what rep range

(A) 6-12 reps

(B) 12-20 reps

(C) 1-4 reps

(D) 2-8 reps

A

C

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52
Q

Which of the following is not an accepted training principle?

(A) Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demand Principle

(B) Quality Principle

(C) SAID principle

(D) Progressive overload principle

A

B

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53
Q

The Cervical spine can perform which of the following movements?

(A) Abduction

(B) Lateral Flexion

(C) Adduction

(D) Hypoflexion

A

B

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54
Q

Several methods can be used to determine monitor heart rate during cardiovascular exercises. These are:

(A) BORG scale

(B) RPE (rate of perceived exertion)

(C) All of these answers

(D) Talk test

A

C

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55
Q

All muscle(s) engaged during the: Lat pulldown (choose all that apply)

(A) Lower Trapezius

(B) Latissimus Dorsi

(C) Erector group

(D) Mid Trapezius

(E) Posterior Deloid

(F) Rhomboid

(G) Biceps Brachii

A

All

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56
Q

Muscle(s) responsible for: Shoulder Abduction

(A) Medial Deltoid

(B) Anterior Deltoid

(C) All of them

(D) Posterior Deltoid

A

A

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57
Q

Primary muscle(s) engaged during the: Seated Row (choose all that apply)

(A) Latissimus Dorsi

(B) Biceps Brachii

(C) Tricep Brachii

(D) Rhomboids/Mid Trapezius

(E) Posterior Deltoid

(F) Anterior Deltoid

A

A, B, D, E

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58
Q

Progressive overload principle is defined as

(A) Constantly pushing less weight or running slower than the last time you trained

(B) Never pushing more weight or running a little faster than the last time you trained

(C) Constantly pushing more weight or running a little faster than last time you trained

(D) Trying to relax more

A

C

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59
Q

With the concept of Levers, to make a curl-up more difficult, we would have a person:

(A) Move their hands from beside their body to behind their head

(B) None of these answers

(C) Move their hands from behind the head to beside their body

(D) Keep their hands in the same place but exhale more rapidly

A

A

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60
Q

Muscle(s) responsible for: Flexion of the knee (choose all that apply)

(A) Hamstrings

(B) Gastrocnemius

(C) Soleus

(D) Tibialis Anterior

A

A, B

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61
Q

Calculate the target heart rate zone (70-85%) for a 60 year old

(A) 112 bpm to 136 bpm

(B) 90 bpm to 110 bpm

(C) 100 bpm to 151 bpm

(D) 122 bpm to 156 bpm

A

A

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62
Q

The proper time to hold a stretch to improve flexibility is:

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 30-90 seconds

(C) 3 minutes

(D) 15 seconds

A

B

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63
Q

During Aerobic exercise (lasting 10+ minutes), the fuel sources available for use are:

(A) Fats, Proteins and carbohydrates - no oxygen needed

(B) Fats, proteins and carbohydrates in the presence of oxygen

(C) Proteins and carbohydrates in the presence of oxygen

(D) Carbohydrates only in the presence of oxygen

A

B

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64
Q

The energy system used to: stand waiting for the bus for 10 minutes

(A) ATP-CP (Anaerobic) system

(B) Anaerobic Lactic system

(C) Aerobic system

(D) heart, lungs and circulatory system

A

C

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65
Q

According to the “physical activity tips for adults” by the Canadian government, we should:

(A) Focus on moderate to vigorous aerobic activity throughout eat week, broken into sessions of 10 minutes or more

(B) Be active at least 2.5 hours a week to achieve health benefits

(C) Get stronger by adding activities that target your muscles and bones at lest two days per week

(D) all of the above

A

D

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66
Q

A few muscles which are considered to cross 2 joints:

(A) Pectoralis major, Gastrocnemius

(B) Hamstrings, Gastrocnemius, Soleus

(C) Hamstrings, Rectus femoris, Gastrocnemius

(D) Vastus Medialis, Rectus femoris, Gastrocnemius

A

C

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67
Q

One sign your client’s cardiovascular conditioning has improved since the start of their training program would be:

(A) Client able to maintain a lower intensity but heart rate is higher

(B) Client able to train at a higher intensity, and recovery period has decreased

(C) Client able to train at a higher intensity, and recovery period has increased

(D) Client able to maintain same intensity, but heart rate is higher

A

B

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68
Q

For the exercise, state what is the antagonist muscle involved and if it is lengthening or shortening: the Lower DOWN phase of the hamstring curl (two answers)

(A) Shortening

(B) Lengthening

(C) Hamstrings

(D) Quadriceps

A

A, D

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69
Q

When the body is in the anatomical position, what is the anatomical term for the position of the palms?

(A) Pronation

(B) Abduction

(C) Supination

(D) Facination..

A

C

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70
Q

Primary muscle(s) engaged during: Push-up (choose all that apply)

(A) Anterior deltoid

(B) Posterior deltoid

(C) Pectoralis major

(D) Bicep Brachii

(E) Tricep Brachii

A

A, C, E

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71
Q

F.I.T.T as it should apply to developing Aerobic Fitness

(A) F= 7x per week, I= 30-50% MHR, T = 20 minutes, T = Aerobic

(B) F= 3-5x per week, I= 40-50% MHR, T = 20 minutes, T = Anaerobic

(C) F= 2-3x per week, I= 60-90% MHR, T = 10 minutes, T = Aerobic

(D) F= 3-5x per week, I= 60-90% MHR, T = 20 minutes, T = Aerobic

A

D

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72
Q

What muscle is primary responsible for performing Dorsi Flexion

(A) Tibalis Anterior

(B) Tibalis Gastrocnemius

(C) Hamstrings

(D) Biceps Brachii

A

A

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73
Q

For a typical adult, the ATP-CP energy system lasts for about:

(A) 10-20 seconds

(B) 20+ minutes

(C) 10+ minutes

(D) 1-2 minutes

A

A

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74
Q

Canada’s physical activity Guide to healthy active living recommends performing cardiovascular exercise how many times per week to maintain good health

(A) Between 1-2 times per week

(B) 6+ times per week

(C) Between 4-7 times per week

(D) Between 2-3 times per week

A

C

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75
Q

For the typical adult, the Aerobic system last for about

(A) 1-2 minutes

(B) less than 10 minutes

(C) 10+ minutes

(D) 10-20 seconds

A

C

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76
Q

When liftening weights, always remember to:

(A) Valsalva manouever

(B) inhale on exertion

(C) Exhale on exertion

(D) Use quick and jerky movements

A

C

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77
Q

For a typical adult, the Anaerobic lactic system last for about:

(A) 1-2 minutes

(B) 20+ minutes

(C) 10-20 seconds

(D) 10+ minutes

A

A

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78
Q

The energy system used to: Run up 1 flight of stairs (10 seconds)

(A) ATP-CP (Anaerobic) system

(B) Anaerobic lactic system

(C) Aerobic system

(D) Heart, Lungs and Circulatory system

A

A

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79
Q

For the exercise, state what is the antagonist muscle involved and if it is lengthening or shortening: Pressing down phase of the triceps pressdown (two answers)

(A) Shortening

(B) Lengthening

(C) Tricep Brachii

(D) Bicep Brachii

A

B, D

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80
Q

Ligaments connect:

(A) None of these answers

(B) Bone to bone

(C) Muscle to bone

(D) bone to tendon

A

B

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81
Q

SAID of the SAID principle stands for (And an example of the principle):

(A) Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demand (perform dumbbell press to improve push-up performance)

(B) Specific accomplishment to imposed details (train running to become better at cycling)

(C) Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands (train running to become better at cycling)

(D) Specific Adaptation to imposed Demands (train on a cycle to become better a cycling)

A

D

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82
Q

There are 2 muscles in the calves. What are they, and when are they involved?

(A) Gastrocnemius (standing) and Soleus (seated)

(B) Gastrocnemius (seated) and Soleus (standing)

(C) Gastrocnemius (seated and standing) and Soleus (standing)

(D) Hamstrings (seated) and Soleus (standing)

A

A

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83
Q

What are the primary lower body Agonist muscles involved in a squat?

(A) Gastrocnemius, Gluteus maximus

(B) Hamstrings, Quads, Adductors

(C) Hamstrings, Gluteus maximus

(D) Quadriceps, Gluteus maximus, Adductors

A

D

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84
Q

Which of the following health risk factors cannot be improved through a regular exercise program?

(A) Certain genetic disorders such as arthritis

(B) Resting blood pressure

(C) Resting heart rate

(D) Stress

A

A

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85
Q

Which is the primary muscle which causes scapular depression or depression of the scapula?

(A) Pectoralis major

(B) Quadriceps

(C) Inferior trapezius

(D) Manubrium

A

C

86
Q

What is the primary muscle which causes hip abduction with medial rotation of the femur? (Two answers)

(A) Gluteus medius

(B) Gluteus minimus

(C) Gluteus maximus

(D) Gluteus femoris

A

A, B

87
Q

What is the primary movement caused by the triceps brachii at the elbow?

(A) Elbow extension

(B) Elbow abduction

(C) Elbow adduction

(D) Elbow flexion

A

A

88
Q

What is a major contributor to muscle imbalances in the body?

(A) poor posture because of sitting so much

(B) walking 20 minutes per day

(C) stretching using PNF method

(D) Sleeping on a sofa

A

A

89
Q

Hyperextension of the lower back could be caused by:

(A) Tight hip flexors from sitting all the time

(B) Performing an exercise such as leg raises or leg lifts

(C) Hooking the feet while performing sit-ups or curl-ups

(D) All of these answers are correct

A

D

90
Q

The energy system used to perform one set of 15 repetitions of a barbell bench press:

(A) Anaerobic lactic system

(B) Atp-cp system

(C) Aerobic system

(D) Heart, lungs and circulatory system

A

A

91
Q

What muscle is primarily responsible for performing horizontal flexion of the shoulder?

(A) Latissimus dorsi and anterior deltoid

(B) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid

(C) Deltoids medial and posterior heads

(D) Gastrocnemius

A

B

92
Q

What are the major bones of the arm?

(A) Femur, radius, ulna

(B) Humerus, ulna

(C) Bicep brachii, radius, tricep brachii

(D) Humerus, radius, ulna

A

D

93
Q

What is the primary movement caused by the soleus at the ankle joint?

(A) Adduction

(B) Abduction

(C) Dorsiflexion

(D) Plantar flexion

A

D

94
Q

What is the PAR-Q and why do we as fitness professionals use it

(A) A questionnaire are used to determine resting heart rate and blood pressure

(B) A questionnaire used to help determine functional age of a client

(C) A questionnaire used to objectively determine if a client is ready to begin an exercise program

(D) A questionnaire used to find out the fitness preferences of a client

A

C

95
Q

What muscle should be stretched when a person suffers from increase anterior tilt of the pelvis?

(A) Iliopsoas

(B) Abdominals

(C) Hamstrings

(D) Latissimus Doris

A

A

96
Q

Canada’s physical activity guide to healthy active living recommends what type of exercise to maintain good health?

(A) Cardiovascular only

(B) Weight training only

(C) Weight and cardiovascular

(D) Bodyweight exercises

A

A

97
Q

What is the antagonist muscle during the abdominal curl?

(A) Abdominals

(B) Quadriceps

(C) Erector spinae

(D) Gluteus maximus

A

C

98
Q

The term for a muscle that is shortening against a resistance is?

(A) Isometric muscle action

(B) Eccentric muscle action

(C) None of these answers

(D) Concentric muscle action

A

D

99
Q

With the concepts of levers, to make a push-up more difficult we would have a person?

(A) Perform the exercise on from their toes instead of the knees

(B) Avoid this exercise all together

(C) Performed exercise on their knees instead of their toes

(D) None of these answers

A

A

100
Q

What is the definition of steady-state?

(A) None of these answers

(B) Oxygen demand equals carbon dioxide supply

(C) Oxygen supply equals oxygen demand

(D) Carbon dioxide supply equals oxygen demand

A

C

101
Q

According to the Canadian food guide (2011), adults require how many servings of milk and alternatives per day?

(A) None of these answers

(B) 7 - 8 servings

(C) 2 - 3 servings

(D) 5 - 8 servings

A

C

102
Q

The formula for cardiac output is:

(A) CO = heart rate x stroke volume

(B) CO = red blood x stroke volume

(C) CO = 220 - age

(D) CO = blood pressure x stroke volume

A

A

103
Q

What are the major bones of the leg?

(A) Femur, spinal column, fibula

(B) Femur, humerus, fibula

(C) Femur, tibia, fibula

(D) Tibia and fibula

A

C

104
Q

What muscle is primarily responsible for performing hip abduction?

(A) Gluteus maximus

(B) Hamstrings

(C) Gastrocnemius

(D) Quadriceps

A

A

105
Q

According to the Canadian food guide, adults require how many servings of vegetables and fruit per day?

(A) 8 servings

(B) 7 - 10 servings

(C) 5 - 15 servings

(D) None of these answers

A

B

106
Q

Which of the following is false? One of the benefits of a warm up?

(A) Gradually increasing body temperature

(B) Gradually increasing the heart rate

(C)Synovial fluid released

(D) Lactic acid accumulation

A

D

107
Q

BMI or body mass index is calculated using:

(A) Percent body fat and height

(B) Height and weight

(C) Heart rate and blood pressure

(D) Blood pressure and weights

A

B

108
Q

During abdominal exercises, as soon as the feet are hooked or supported, the primary muscles used to perform the flexion movement are the

(A) Hip extenders (iliopsoas)

(B) Spinal flexors (erector spinae)

(C) Hip flexors (iliopsoas)

(D) Knee flexors (Quadriceps)

A

C

109
Q

When performing a lunge or a squat and knee should?

(A) None of these answers

(B) Move inward - towards each other

(C) Always remain over the ankle

(D) Always travel in front of the toes

A

C

110
Q

For the exercise, State what is the antagonist muscle involved and if it is lengthening or shortening: the pushing up phase of the push up (you will pick two answers)

(A) Lengthening

(B) Pectoralis major

(C) Shortening

(D) Latissimus dorsi

A

A, D

111
Q

The hamstrings muscle group performs the following movement(s):

(A) Knee extension and hip extension

(B) Knee extension and hip flexion

(C) Knee flexion and hip extension

(D) None of these answers

A

C

112
Q

The neck cannot perform what movement

(A) Rotation

(B) Lateral Flexion

(C) Lateral abduction

(D) Flexion/extension

A

C

113
Q

Intensity is:

(A) The number of times a specific activity is performed

(B) The length of time spent on each activity

(C) The percentage of maximum capacity or one is working at

(D) How tired you feel after an activity

A

C

114
Q

What muscle is responsible for depresses and pulling the scapula towards the rib cage?

(A) Latissimus dorsi

(B) Pectoralis Major

(C) Coracobracilais

(D) Pectoralis Minor

A

D

115
Q

Where the muscles surrounding a joint are stretched by the force generated as a body part is repeatedly moved is this stretching technique

(A) Active stretching

(B) PNF stretching

(C) Dynamic stretching

(E) Static stretching

A

C

116
Q

What is the purpose of the LCL (lateral collateral ligament)

(A) Provides stability forward and backward movements in the lateral plane

(B) assist the knee flexion

(C) Cushion the knee during jumping activities

(D) Provide stability during lateral movements in the frontal plane

A

D

117
Q

When a limb or body part moves away from the mid-line of the body it is referred to as:

(A) Abduction

(B) Adduction

(C) Hyper-adduction

(D) Lateral abduction

A

A

118
Q

A Characteristic of the active listening process is to:

(A) Use non-verbal communication techniques while leading a class

(B) Demonstrate techniques to show proper exercise execution

(C) use non-verbal messages with participants

(D) Use adult learning principles to problem solve

A

C

119
Q

The best indicator for measuring the intensity of a workout is:

(A) Vigorous breathing

(B) Heart rate

(C) Sore muscles

(D) Total time involved

A

B

120
Q

Which of the following is not a muscle that acts on two joints?

(A) Gastrocnemius

(B) Soleus

(C) Bicep Brachii

(D) Rectus Femoris

A

B

121
Q

The Rotator cuff muscles of the shoulder include the Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis. Which of the following is incorrect

(A) Supraspinatus adducts the arm

(B) Infraspinatus externally rotates the arm

(C) Teres minor externally rotates the arm

(D) Subscapularis internally rotates the arm

A

A

122
Q

Body compositon refers to:

(A) Only muscle mass

(B) Ratio of weight to height

(C) The fat and fat-free component of the body

(D) Total mass

A

C

123
Q

Fitness components to consider when planning a fitness program are:

(A) Flexibility, Cardiovascular endurance, Muscular strength, and muscular endurance

(B) Aerobic and Anaerobic capacity, Muscular strength and endurance and body composition

(C) Muscular strength and endurance, flexibility, power and body composition

(D) Body composition, aerobic and anaerobic capacity, power, and flexibility

A

A

124
Q

A curl+up with a twist is made more difficult during the lowering phase by:

(A) Moving hand from across the chest position to cupping the ears position

(B) Changing the lever difficulty

(C) The laws of gravity acting on the

(D) all of the above

A

D

125
Q

What is a concept of active living

(A) A balanced approach to daily living including a variety of physical

(B) Performing daily physical activity tasks such as household chores, mowing the lawn, cleaning

(C) Ensuring physical activity is incorporated at least 2-3 times per week

(D) Gradually increasing activity frequency and duration

A

C

126
Q

Which of the following is not a ligament of the knee

(A) ACL (anterior cruciate ligament)

(B) MCL (medial collateral ligament)

(C) PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)

(D) LPL (lateral posterior ligament)

A

D

127
Q

A positive environment can be established if participants are encouraged to:

(A) Rely on the leader as the expert role model

(B) Express their opinions

(C) Recall exercises from previous sessions

(D) have a good workout

A

B

128
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Thirst is an accurate indicator of the body’s need for water. If you drink when you are thirsty will be adequately hydrated

(B) You can meet your daily hydration requirements of fluids other than water

(C) on average, people need 1-2 liters of fluid each day

(D) drink 150 - 300 milliliters every 15 to 20 minutes during exercise to prevent dehydration

A

A

129
Q

The anterior deltoid is:

(A) Responsible for shoulder joint depression

(B) Responsible for shoulder joint elevation

(C) Responsible for shoulder joint flexion

(D) Responsible for shoulder joint extension

A

C

130
Q

According to Canada’s physical activity guide to healthy active living, choose a variety of activities from these three groups except:

(A) Endurance. 4 - 7 days a week. Continues activities for your heart, lungs and circulatory

(B) Power. 1 - 3 days per week. Vigorous activities to maintain overall resistance to slip and fall

(C) Flexibility. 4 - 7 days a week. Gentle reaching, bending and stretching activities to keep your muscles relaxed and joints mobile

(D) Strength. 2 - 4 days a week. Activities against resistance to strengthen muscles and bones and improve posture.

A

B

131
Q

Which of the following muscles are not part of the rotator cuff group

(A) Trapezius

(B) Subscapularis

(C) Infraspinatus

(D) Supraspinatus

(E) Teres minor

A

A

132
Q

Which action occurs when the angle of a joint decreases

(A) Flexion

(B) Extension

(C) Retraction

(D) Rotation

A

A

133
Q

setting goals for the client, is best to set short and long-term and use SMART. What are a few examples of SMART short-term goals related to cardiovascular (first 4-5 weeks)? (Choose all that apply)

(A) more distance it’s covered in the same amount of time within that same target heart rate zone

(B) resting heart rate decreases by few beats per minute

(C) resting heart rate increases by few beats per minute

(D) post - exercise heart rate decreases faster

A

A, B, D

134
Q

if a participant complains of a pain along the front of the leg, the leaders first action should should be to

(A) Explain that the condition is shin splints

(B) Ask for more information about the nature of the pain

(C) Design exercises for the lower leg

(D) Direct the person to their physician

A

B

135
Q

Rhomboids:

(A) protract the scapula

(B) internally rotate the shoulder

(C) elevate the scapula

(D) retract the scapula

A

D

136
Q

Rotation of the spine can occur at several levels of the spine. Which areas allow for rotation?

(A) Thoracic, sacrum and (minimum) lumbar

(B) Cervical, coccyx and thoracic

(C) Cervical, sacrum and (minimum) lumbar

(D) cervical, thoracic and (minimum) lumbar

A

D

137
Q

The primary muscle used for extension at the elbow joint is:

(A) biceps

(B) triceps

(C) pectoralis major

(D) trapezius

A

B

138
Q

Going to Canada’s physical activity guide to healthy active living, which of the following is false regarding the guidelines for the range needed to stay healthy

(A) moderate effort = 30 - 60 minutes (examples: brisk walking, biking, raking leaves, swimming, dancing, water aerobics)

(B) light effort = 60 minutes (examples: light walking, volleyball, easy gardening, stretching)

(C) light effort = 30-45 minutes (examples: light walking, volleyball, easy gardening)

(D) vigorous effort = 20-30 minutes (examples: aerobics jogging, hockey, basketball, fast swimming, fast dancing)

A

C

139
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the heart?

(A) The right side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the tissues throughout the body

(B) The right side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs

(C) The left side of the heart pumps oxygen-depleted blood to tissues throughout the body

(D) The left side of the heart pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs

A

B

140
Q

Which of the following is not a common symptom of the beginnings of overtraining?

(A) Elevated resting heart rate

(B) Poor quality training sessions

(C) Muscle hypertrophy

(D) Sore and stiff muscles

A

C

141
Q

Which of the following about the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) is it false? (Choose all that apply)

(A) Provide stability during lateral movement in the frontal plane

(B) Often occurs when the foot is planted and twisting of the knee joint occurs

(C) Resist forces pushing the tibia posteriorly relative to the femur

(D) Tearing the ACL is a common injury of the knee

A

A, C

142
Q

Which of the following muscle pairs are not agonist / antagonist?

(A) Quadriceps / hamstrings

(B) Internal oblique / external obliques

(C) Bicep brachii / triceps brachii

(D) Tibialis anterior / gastrocnemius and soleus

A

B

143
Q

What is the purpose of the MCL (medial collateral ligament)

(A) provide stability during lateral movements in the frontal plane

(B) Creates stability during rotation ankle movements in the transverse

(C) allows the head of the humerus to fit snugly into the scapular fossa

(D) provide stability to the acromio-claviclar joint

A

A

144
Q

What is the purpose of the PCL (posterior cruciate ligament)

(A) none these answers

(B) resist force pushing the tibia posteriorly relative to the femur

(C) provide stability to the acromio-claviclar joint

(D)create stability during rotation ankle movements in the transverse plane

A

B

145
Q

Which of the following is not an agonist / antagonist muscle pair?

(A) gluteus maximus / iliopsoas

(B) gastrocnemius / soleus

(C) rectus abdominis / erector spinae

(D) subscapularis / infraspinatus

A

B

146
Q

Stretching a muscle quickly and / or forcefully results in:

(A) atrophy of the muscle

(B) herniation of the muscle

(C) reflex relaxation of the muscle

(D) reflex contraction of the muscle

A

D

147
Q

What muscles together would cause extension of knee and flexion of the spine?

(A) quadricep group / rectus abdominis

(B) iliopsoas / quadricep group

(C) hamstring group / spinal Erectors

(D) transverse abdominals / hamstring group

A

A

148
Q

To build rapport with a participant from the outset, a leader should be:

(A) discreet, soft-spoken, and keep the conversation confidential

(B) genuine, give accurate advice and effectively problem-solve

(C) genuine, attentive, accepting and recognizing individual differences

(D) discreet, collect information, and give accurate advice

A

C

149
Q

During participants assessments, the group fitness leader is responsible for all of the following except:

(A) encouraging the use of informed consent

(B) Discussing in detail why the participant had a yes response on the PAR-Q

(C) Instructing those of one or more yes responses on the PAR- Q to see their physician prior to the participation

(D) Administering PAR-Q prior to any activity program

A

B

150
Q

Setting goals is best at short and long-term with the use SMART. What are a few examples of SMART long-term goals related to hypertrophy training? Choose all that apply

(A) Increase in muscle size generally over the whole body

(B) Generally increase in muscular strength of all muscle groups

(C) increase of 25 lb of lean tissue

(D) Significant decrease in body fat

A

A, B

151
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about the heart?

(A) The left side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the tissues throughout the body

(B) The left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the lungs

(C) The right side of the heart pumps oxygen-rich blood to the tissues throughout the body

(D) The right side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to tissue throughout the body

A

A

152
Q

The primary muscles or muscle group responsible for extension of the hip joint is the:

(A) sartorius

(B) Iliopsoas

(C) gluteus Maximus

(D) gluteus medius

A

C

153
Q

Which of the following is a muscle that acts on two joints

(A) tricep brachii

(B) tibialis anterior

(C) upper trapezius

(D) anterior deltoid

A

A

154
Q

The first steps in planning an effective exercise program are:

(A) create a unique class and promote the program

(B) select music and design exercises

(C)practice routines and answer questions during the first few classes

(D) administer a needs assessment and development goals

A

D

155
Q

This kind of synovial joint can move in three perpendicular planes of motion

(A) condyloid joint

(B) ball and socket joint

(C) saddle joint

(D) pivot joint

A

B

156
Q

Which of the following muscle pairs are not Agonist / antagonist

(A) anterior deltoid / posterior deltoids

(B) pectorials / latissimus dorsi

(C) abdominals / spinal Erectors

(D) levetor scapula / Superior trapezius

A

D

157
Q

The normal physiological response to an aerobic exercise session is:

(A) a decrease in blood flow to the working muscles

(B) a decrease in cardiac output

(C) increase o2 consumption and ventilation

(D) an increase in heart rate and decrease in stroke

A

C

158
Q

Circumduction involves:

(A) flexion and extension and adduction and abduction

(B) flexion and extension only

(C) horizontal flexion extension rotation

(D) rotation

A

A

159
Q

Gluteus medius

(A) medial (external) rotation of the femur and abduction of the hips

(B) medial (external) rotation of the femur and abduction of the hips

(C) hip extension

(D) lateral (internal) rotation of the femur and abduction of the hips

A

B

160
Q

if your instructor, the best way to set up a positive learning environment for a group involved in a bootcamp class is to (Choose all that apply):

(A) establish a positive learning environment by encouraging questions from participants

(B) encourage interaction between the participants during the class

(C) do not allow friends to partner up this force interaction between all participants

(D) provide a little time for participants to introduce themselves to others in the class

(E) appoint a partner to each and every class member

(F) Introduce yourself as the instructor and give a quick statement of your instructor credentials

A

A, B, D

161
Q

Muscles which causes extension of the hip and abduction of the hip

(A) Hamstrings for both movements

(B) Hamstrings and Gluetus Medius/minimus

(C) Iliopsoas and glueteus maximus

(D) Quadriceps and Hamstrings

A

B

162
Q

Movement(s) of the elbow joint (Choose all that apply)?

(A) Extension

(B) Supination

(C) Rotation

(D) Pronation

(E) Circumduction

(F) Flexion

A

(A) (B) (D) (F)

163
Q

Movements of the wrist joint (choose all that apply)?

(A) Adduction

(B) CIrcumduction

(C) Hyperextension

(D) Abduction

(E) Extension

(F) Flexion

A

ALL

164
Q

Movements of the ankle joint (choose all that apply)?

(A) Circumduction

(B) Inversion/ Eversion

(C) Dorsi flexion

(D) Planticular abduction

(E) Rotation

(F) Plantar flexion

A

(A) (B) (C) (F)

165
Q

According to the Canada Food guide, how many servings of meat and meat alternative is the correct number for women?

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2

A

(D)
- Men need 3 servings

166
Q

Moving from a standing to seated position, determine which muscles are working actively or passively and lengthening or shortening: Quadriceps, Gluteus Maximus, Hamstring

(A) Actively lengthening, Actively lengthening, passively shortening

(B) Actively shortening, Actively lengthening, passively shortening

(C) Actively lengthening, Actively lengthening, Passively lengthening

(D) Actively lengthening, Actively shortening, passively shortening

A

A

167
Q

Movements of the “thoracic/lumbar* spine (choose all that apply)?

(A) Extension/hyperextension

(B) Adduction

(C) Lateral Flexion

(D) Abduction

(E) Rotation

A

(A) (C) (E)

168
Q

Muscle which causes protraction of the scapula

(A) Serratus Anterior

(B) Levetor scapulae

(C) Rhomboid

(D) Mid/lower trapezius

A

A

169
Q

Muscle which causes retraction of the scapula (choose all that apply)?

(A) Rhomboids

(B) Serratus anterior

(C) Mid/Lower trapezius

(D) Levetor Scapulae

A

(A) (C)

170
Q

Our knees are prone to many injuries. Which of the following high stress sporting activities could be potentially dangerous to the knees (choose all that apply)?

(A) Deep squat

(B) Plyometric jumping

(C) Side to side hopping or shuffling

(D) Running

A

ALL

171
Q

To increase the intensity of the tricep pressdowns you would:

A) None of these answers

(B) Increase the reps for muscle strength, increase the weight for muscle endurance

(C) Increase the weight for muscle strength, increase the ROM for muscle endurance

(D) Increase the weight for muscle strength, increase the reps for muscle endurance

A

D

172
Q

Movement(s) of the hip joint (choose all that apply):

(A) Flexion/extension

(B) Rotation

(C) Circumduction

(D) Hyperlocation

(E) Adduction/ Abduction

(F) Internal rotation / external rotation

(G) Transverse abduction / Transverse adduction

A

(A) (C) (E) (F) (G)

173
Q

Moving from a standing to seated position, describe the movements of the following joints: Knee, hips and spine

(A) Extension, Extension, extension

(B) Flexion, Flexion, Flexion

(C) Extension, Flexion, Flexion

(D) Flexion, Extension, Flexion

A

B

174
Q

Muscle which causes flexion of the spinal column:

(A) Hamstrings

(B) Illiotibial band

(C) Erector spinae

(D) Rectus abdominus

A

D

175
Q

Movements of the cervical spine (choose all that apply)

(A) Flexion

(B) Extension / Hyperextension

(C) Rotation

(D) Lateral Flexion

(E) Abduction

(F) Adduction

A

A, B, C, D

176
Q

Movements of the knee joint (choose all that apply)

(A) Rotation

(B) Abduction

(C) Flexion

(D) Extension

(E) Adduction

A

C, D

177
Q

Movements of the scapula (choose all that apply):

(A) Elevation

(B) Rotation

(C) Depression

(D) Retraction

(E) Protraction

(F) Circumduction

A

A, C, D, E

178
Q

A ballerina who balances on her tip toes, is performing what movement and what muscle is used?

(A) Eversion using the soleus muscle

(B) Inversion using the Gastrocnemius muscle

(C) Plantar flexion using the Gastrocnemius msucle

(D) Dorsiflexion using the gastrocnemius muscles

A

C

179
Q

Moving from a seated to standing position, describe the movements of the following joints: knee, hip and spine

(A) Extension, Extension, extension

(B) Flexion, Flexion, Flexion

(C) Extension, Flexion, Flexion

(D) Flexion, Extension, Flexion

A

A

180
Q

Muscle(s) which causes flexion of the hip

(A) Illiacus and Psos major (Iliopsoas)

(B) Gluteus maximus

(C) Hamstrings

(D) Psorius

A

A

181
Q

Movements of the shoulder joint CANNOT perform (choose all that apply):

(A) Circumduction

(B) Flexion/extension

(C) Hyperlocation

(D) Adduction/abduction

(E) Internal rotation/ External rotation

(F) Rotation

(G) Transverse abduction/ Transverse Adduction

A

C, F

182
Q

All of the following muscles are directly involved with scapular movement except:

(A) Levetor Scapulae

(B) Serratus Anterior

(C) Pertorallis major

(D) Pectorallis Minor

(E) Rhomboids

A

C

183
Q

Why is it common for women in this final weeks of pregnancy to experience frequent back pains?

(A) Extra weight of the abdomen demands extra support (contraction) of the erector group of muscles

(B) Extra weight of the abdomen demands extra support (contraction) of the abdominal group of muscle

(C) Extra weight of the abdomen demands extra support (relaxation) of the erector group of muscle

(D) Extra weight of the abdomen demands extra support (relaxation) of the abdominal group of muscle

A

A

184
Q

Arrange the following muscles in order from superficial to deep

  1. Transverse Abdominis
  2. Internal obliques
  3. External obliques
  4. Rectus abdominus

(A) 4,3,2,1

(B) 4,2,3,1

(C) none of these answers

(D) 1,2,3,4

A

A

185
Q

Which muscle controls the action at the elbow for a movement such as the downward stroke in hammering a nail

(A) Bicep brachii

(B) Pectoralis Major

(C) Tricep brachii

(D) Lattissimus dorsi

A

C

186
Q

The hamstring muscle group are (BLANK) to the quadriceps group

(A) Synergist

(B) Antagonist

(C) Agonist

(D) Stabilizers

A

B

187
Q

All of the following muscles are attached to the rib cage except:

(A) Seratus Anterior

(B) Intercostals

(C) Internal Obliques

(D) Trapezius

(E) External Obliques

A

D

188
Q

Contraction of the all the following muscles causes extension of the leg except:

(A) Rectus femoris

(B) Vastus Intermedius

(C) Bicep femoris

(D) Vastus Medialis

(E) Vastus Lateralis

A

C
- Bicep femoris is part of the hamstring group and causes flexion of the knee

189
Q

The action at the shoulder joint (humerus in socket) during the lowering phase of lateral raise:

(A) horizontal adduction

(B) Abduction

(C) Adduction

(D) Horizontal abduction

A

C

190
Q

The action at both the knee joint and the hip joint (rear leg) during the up phase of a lunge

(A) none of these answers are correct

(B) Extension, Extension

(C) Flexion, Flexion

(D) Extension, Flexion

A

D

191
Q

Body position when performing a lying hamstrings curl

(A) Supine

(B) Posterior

(C) Prone

(D) Anterior

A

C

192
Q

Which muscle raises or lowers the scapula, depending on which portion of the muscle contracts:

(A) Medial deltoid

(B) Trapezius

(C) Rhomboids

(D) Erector Spinae

A

B

193
Q

The action at the shoulder joint and elbow joint during the incline dumbbell bench press when the pectoralis major is working eccentrically:

(A) Horizontal flexion, Extension

(B) Flexion, Adduction

(C) Horizontal extension, Flexion

(D) Horizontal extension, Extension

A

C

194
Q

In general, adductor muscles are located more on the (1) than the (2) surface of the body

(A) (1)superficial, (2) lateral

(B) none of these answers

(C) (1) lateral, (2) medial

(D) (1) medial, (2) lateral

A

D

195
Q

Which muscle controls the action of the elbow for a movement such as the upwards lifting of a hammer

(A)Bicep brachii

(B) Latissimus dorsi

(C) Pectoralis Major

(D) Tricep brachii

A

A

196
Q

All of the following are located on the anterior of the body except:

(A) Pectoralis major

(B) Tibialis anterior

(C) Erector Spinae

(D) Rectus Femoris

(C) Rectus Abdominus

A

C

197
Q

The action at the shoulder joint (humerus in socket) during the down phase of a push:

(A) horizontal extension

(B) Horizontal Flexion

(C) Abduction

(D) Transverse flexion

A

A

198
Q

Muscle which assists with turning the palm of the hands from palm down to palm up position:

(A) Wrist extensors

(B) Wrist flexors

(C) Bicep brachii

(D) Tricep Brachii

A

C

199
Q

The rectus abdominus, pectoralis major, bicep brachii all perform the following movements

(A) Superficial

(B) Abduction

(C) Flexion

(D) extension

A

C

200
Q

Muscle which covers most of the posterior aspects of the humerus:

(A) Quadriceps

(B) Hamstrings

(C) Tricep Brachii

(D) Bicep Brachii

A

C

201
Q

The action of the shoulder joint during the lowering phase of lateral raises:

(A) Adduction

(B) Horizontal adduction

(C) Abduction

(D) Horizontal Abducution

A

A

202
Q

The action of the hip (front leg) during a lowering phase of a lunge:

(A) Extension

(B) None of these answers

(C) Flexion

(D) Lateral flexion

A

C

203
Q

For the exercise, Triceps Pressdown, what is the ANTAGONIST muscle involved and is it passively lengethening or passively shortening during the press DOWN phase?

A - Biceps brachii and Passively Lengthening

B - Triceps brachii and Passively Lengthening

C - Triceps brachii and Passively Shortening

D - Biceps Brachii and Passively Shortening

A

A

204
Q

Typically, what muscles would be stretched when a person suffers from increased anterior tilt of the pelvis?

A - Hamstrings, Abdominals, Iliopsoas

B - All of these are correct

C - Abdominals and Iliopsoas

D - Iliopsoas and Quadriceps (specifically rectus femoris)

A

D

205
Q

Which tendons support your leg/knee in lateral movement?

A

The MCL and LCL

206
Q

What is the ideal blood pressure?

A

120/80

207
Q

Maximum Heart Rate (MHR) is…?

A

220 - age

208
Q

There are two muscles in the calf’s. What are they? And when are they involved

A

Gastrocnemius (standing) and Soleus (seated)

209
Q

Which muscles are responsible for flexion of the knee? Or what two muscles?

A

Hamstrings
Gastronemius

210
Q

The hamstring muscle group performs the following movements?

A

Knee flexion and hip extension