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Neurosciences > Mock Questions 1 > Flashcards

Mock Questions 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Prolactin sparing (or very rare increase)

A

Clozapine
Aripiprazole
Asenapine
Quetiapine

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2
Q

Low risk / minor change (prolactin)

A

Lurasidone
Olanzapine
Ziprasidone

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3
Q

High risk / major change (prolactin)

A

All the typical antipsychotics
Risperidone
Amisulpride
Paliperidone
Sulpiride

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4
Q

Which antidepressant type is most likely to cause heart block

A

TCAs

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5
Q

Which drugs are most likely to cause polarisation issues

A

Thioridazine
Chlorpromazine

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6
Q

Drugs likely to cause VF/torsades

A

Haloperidol
Thioridazine
Mesoridazine
Chlorpromazine

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7
Q

What class of antipsychotic is risperidone

A

Benzoxasole

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8
Q

What class is chlorpromazine

A

Phenothiazine (Aliphatic side chain)

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9
Q

What class is olanzapine

A

Thienobenzodiazepine

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10
Q

What does wisconsin card sort test assess

A

Abstract reasoning

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11
Q

Which cranial nerve exits the skull through the round foramin

A

Trigeminal nerve V2 (maxillary)

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12
Q

Which CN exits skull through cribiform plate

A

Olfactory nerve (CN1)

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13
Q

Which CN exits skull through the jugular foramen

A

Vagus (CNX)

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14
Q

Perseveration results from damage to which of the following areas of the brain?

A

Frontal lobe

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15
Q

Holmes and Rae scoring

A

Death of spouse 100
Divorce 73
Marital separation 65

Jail term 63
Death of a close family member 63
Personal illness 53

Marriage 50
Being fired from work 47
Marital reonciliation 45
Retirement 45

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16
Q

In which pattern of inheritance are both males and females affected but there is no paternal transmission of the condition?

A

Mitochondrial

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17
Q

You are referred a 6 year old boy due to concerns about a potential learning disability. Physically, he appears normal other than for a slightly elongated face. During conversation you find him difficult to follow. He speaks in bursts with disruptions in the flow giving a cluttered quality to his speech. Which of the following trinucleotide repeats sequence disorders would you suspect?

A

CGG

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18
Q

The SSRI with the longest half-life

A

Fluoxetine

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19
Q

The SSRI most likely to cause antimuscarinic side-effects

A

Paroxetine

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20
Q

SSRI with the least drug interactions

A

Citalopram

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21
Q

Which branch of ethics emphasises moral rules and duties > consequences

A

Deontology

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22
Q

A patient with severe facial burns is doing some shopping. Whilst looking at some skirts in a high-end retail store, she is asked to leave as she is making the other customers feel uncomfortable.

A

Enacted stigma

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23
Q

A man with a suspected sexually transmitted disease is sat waiting for an appointment at the GUM clinic. He is worried about what the staff at the clinic will think of him. He worries that they may think he is dirty and irresponsible.

A

Felt stigma

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24
Q

The brother of a young boy with a learning disability finds it very embarrassing when the family are eating out. He feels ashamed of his brother’s shouting and by the way his brother eats food with his hands.

A

Courtesy stigma

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25
Q

Which type of aphasias spare the core perisylvian language zone and exhibit preserved repetition

A

Extrasylvian aphasias

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26
Q

Transcortical sensory aphasia resembles Wernicke’s aphasia but with…..?

A

Preserved repetition

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27
Q

First you start with creating a list of statements relating to a concept or issue. Each statement is then assessed by a panel of judges and given a score regarding how negative or positive the statement is regarding the issue.

Individuals are then given the statements and asked to answer whether they agree or disagree with each statement.

A

Thurstone scale

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28
Q

Here, respondents are asked to indicate a degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements. Each scale item has 5 response categories ranging from strongly agree to strongly disagree.

A

Likert

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29
Q

For example one might wish to compare a group of individuals by an aspect of their personality such as dominant or submissive (bipolar labels).

Each individual could have any score from 1 (submissive) to 7 (dominant) with a score of 3-4 being neutral.

A

Semantic differential

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30
Q

also called cumulative scaling or scalogram analysis is created with elements that can possibly be ordered in a hierarchical manner.

A

Gutman scale

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31
Q

condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not

A

Pseudocyesis

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32
Q

a phenomenon of visual perception in which a stationary, small point of light in an otherwise dark or featureless environment appears to move.

A

Autokinetic effect

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33
Q

the observation that rapid sequences of perceptual events, such as rows of flashing lights, create the illusion of motion even when there is none.

A

Phi phenomenon

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34
Q

visual illusion experienced after viewing a moving visual stimulus for a time with stationary eyes, and then fixating a stationary stimulus. The stationary stimulus appears to move in the opposite direction to the original (physically moving) stimulus

A

Motion after effect

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35
Q

an illusion of visual perception in which a stationary or a moving object appears to move or to move differently because of other moving objects nearby in the visual field.

A

Induced movement

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36
Q

the illusion of motion that occurs when objects disappear and then quickly reappear nearby

A

stroboscopic motion

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37
Q

used by the ICD-11 to refer to cases in which a person is excessively distressed and preoccupied by multiple bodily symptoms and where this distress continues despite appropriate attempts at reassurance from professionals following detailed examination and investigations?

A

Bodily distress disorder

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38
Q

Conversion disorder and illness anxiety disorder are terms used by the

A

DSM 5

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39
Q

the site of phospholipid synthesis?

A

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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40
Q

Knife blade atrophy is seen in

A

Pick’s disease

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41
Q

Synthesis of RNA from DNA template

A

Transcription

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42
Q

Amphetamine has been shown to result in excessive dopaminergic activity in which area of the brain thus suggesting a causative role in schizophrenia?

A

Striatum

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43
Q

In which developmental stage would a midlife crisis be expected to occur?

A

Generativity vs stagnation

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44
Q

In lower motor lesions of the hypoglossal nerve the tongue deviates

A

TOWARDS the lesion

(UMNL deviates away)

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45
Q

Rett syndrome chromosome

A

Xq

46
Q

Secondary amines

A

Desipramine
Nortriptyline
Protriptyline
Amoxapine

47
Q

How many sessions of behavioural activation to treat depression

A

12-24

48
Q

Occurs when a logical conclusion is formed from two premises. It occurs in the concrete operational stage.

A

Syllogistic reasoning

49
Q

According to Piaget, in what developmental stage does conservation generally occur?

A

Concrete operational

50
Q

A patient on lithium for bipolar affective disorder is prescribed an increased dose by her consultant in view of her levels being too low. The consultant asks you to check her levels to see if the new prescription is adequate. How long after the dose increase would you recheck the levels?

A

1 week

51
Q

In which cells does lyonisation occur

A

Every female somatic cell

52
Q

An X-linked condition associated with self mutilation?

A

Lesch Nyhan syndrome

53
Q

Visuospatial defects would be expected in a patient who had experienced damage to the

A

Right cerebral hemisphere

54
Q

Hypokalaemia ECG changes

A

U waves
Flattened P waves
Broadened QRS complex
Prolonged QTc

55
Q

What ECG finding is common with SSRIs

A

Bradycardia

56
Q

The concept of the ‘categorical imperative’ is most associated with which branch of ethics

A

Deontology

57
Q

What does a systematised delusion mean

A

Integrated into a belief system. A systematised delusional belief system will distort aspects of reality to incorporate them into the belief system.

58
Q

4 year old would at what psychosexual stage

A

Phallic

59
Q

Mechanism of action of carbamazapine

A

binds to sodium channels increases their refractory period

60
Q

Contraindications to carbamazapine

A

a history of bone marrow depression
combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

61
Q

Side effects of carbamazapine

A

Agranulocytosis
leucopenia

ataxia, dizziness, somnolence

vomiting, nausea

urticaria

fatigue

62
Q

Arise when detailed images are seen from shapes. E.g. seeing the man in the moon, or Jesus Christ on a piece of burnt toast.

A

Paraideolic illusions

63
Q

Arise due to specific mood (affective) states e.g. a woman is walking home in the dark and is frightened, she mistakes a tree for a tall man in a long coat.

A

Affect illusion

64
Q

A patient experiences an hallucination at the same time as receiving a real stimulus in the same sensory modality

A

Functional hallucination

65
Q

These are hallucinations beyond the possible sensory field

A

Extracampine hallucinations

66
Q

These occur in one sensory modality in response to a real stimulus in another sensory modality

A

Reflex hallucinations

67
Q

These relate to hallucinations of muscle or joint sense. Patient’s may describe that their limbs are being twisted or bent, or their muscles squeezed. They may also described being rocked about

A

Kinaesthetic hallucinations

68
Q

This refers to a person’s experience of seeing a double of themselves in extrapersonal space without the experience of leaving ones body (no disembodiment)

A

Autoscopic hallucinations

69
Q

What is conditioning a form of

A

Non declarative memory

70
Q

Which antidepressant classes have high risk of low sodium

A

SSRIs
SNRIs

71
Q

Which antidepressant classes have moderate risk of low sodium

A

TCAs

72
Q

Which antidepressant classes have low risk of low sodium

A

MAOi
NASSA
Bupropion
Agomelatine

73
Q

What would happen if the enzymes for a drug which followed first order kinetics became saturated?

A

The drug would start to be eliminated via zero order kinetics

74
Q

Which drug induces it’s own metabolism?

A

Carbamazapine

75
Q

Which drug inhibits it’s own metabolism?

A

Fluoxetine

76
Q

Which enzyme is involved in the aetiology of alcoholic brain damage?

A

Transkelotase

77
Q

According to the ICD-11, unless shortened by treatment intervention, how long must each episode last for it to be qualified as a manic episode?

A

14 days

78
Q

HIV is an example of what kind of stigma

A

Discreditable

79
Q

BMI calculation

A

BMI = Mass (kg) / height squared (in meters)

80
Q

A candidate gene implicated in the metabolism of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex. This gene is also absent in Velocardiofacial disorder.

A

COMT

81
Q

A candidate gene located on chromosome 8 which codes for a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation. Increased expression of the protein coded for by this gene is thought to lead to reduced glutamate levels.

A

NRG1

82
Q

A candidate gene located on chromosome 6 which codes for a protein that is widely distributed in muscle and brain tissue, and is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles

A

DTNBP1

83
Q

Half life of nitrazepam

A

15-38

84
Q

Ravens Progressive Matrices is primarily used to assess which of the following?

A

General intelligence

85
Q

An organism that is composed of more than one genetically-distinct population of cells which originate from more than one zygote is referred to as a

A

Chimera

(In mosaics, the genetically different cell types all arise from a single zygote)

86
Q

Where are cannabinoid receptors not found

A

Brainstem

87
Q

Where are cannabinoid receptors found?

A

Basal ganglia
Hippocampus
Cerebellum

(also cerebral cortex)

88
Q

What is released from the locus coeruleus?

A

Norepinephrine

89
Q

Mutations with the granulin genes are most associated with which of the following?

A

Frontotemporal dementia

90
Q

Which type of mutations is caused by a single nucleotide variation within the coding sequence of a gene that result in a premature termination codon?

A

Nonense

91
Q

Regarding psychopathology, the mood of an individual is usually distinguished from their affect by what?

A

Duration

92
Q

What are the big 5 personality traits?

A

Openness to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraversion (aka surgency)
Agreeableness
Neuroticism (aka emotional stability)

93
Q

What is the mechanism of action of atomoxetine

A

noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

94
Q

When does separation anxiety peak?

A

10-18 months

95
Q

The Clifton Assessment Procedure assess which two domains?

A

Cognition and behaviour

96
Q

Which antipsychotics are used in mania?

A

haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone

97
Q

Pregabalin is a potent ligand for what

A

alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system

98
Q

Do transdermal drugs undergo the first pass effect?

A

No

99
Q

slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement

A

Cerebellar/intention tremor

100
Q

WHICH nerve myelination starts centrally and reaches the lamina cribrosa at or shortly after birth.

A

Optic

101
Q

A father is keen to teach his young child to write a letter on a piece of paper. As he is unable to explain the request he rewards the child as they do aspects of the task. He issues a reward for the child sitting in the correct place, another when the child picks up the pencil, and another when the child marks the paper with the pencil.

A

Shaping

102
Q

What is the last structure to myelinate?

A

Frontal lobes

103
Q

What antidepressant has a licence for narcolepsy?

A

Clomipramine

104
Q

Aprosody can be a feature of illnesses affecting which lobes

A

Frontal and temporal

105
Q

Female carriers of an X-linked recessive mutation may manifest features of the disorder due to what?

A

Skewed X inactivation

106
Q

designed to identify people who are likely to have a mental health disorder and should have a full assessment.

A

GAIN - SS

107
Q

(Strengths and Difficulties Questionnaire) is a screening test to identify general mental health difficulties in adolescents.

A

Strengths and difficulties questionnaire - SDQ

108
Q

screen for problem gambling

A

NODS-CLiP

109
Q

assesses the impact of traumatic events

A

PDS (Post-traumatic Stress diagnostic scale

110
Q

Tertiary circular reactions - what age

A

12-18 months

111
Q

Utilization behaviour is usually associated with which of the following?

A

Frontal lobe damage

Neurosciences (19 decks)

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