Mil Flashcards

1
Q

intention of joint publications

A

most should be followed b/c the guidance is authoritative
exception: judgment of the commander deems exceptional circumstance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what happens if there is conflict between JP and service publications

A

JP takes precedence unless the CJGS says otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

JP 1

A

Doctrine for the Armed Forces of the United States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

9 principles of war

A

objective, offensive
mass, maneuver
economy of forcfes
unity of commadn
security, surprise, simplicyt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

12 principles of war

A

restraint
perserverence
legitimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

O’s of the 9 principles of war

A

offensive
objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

M’s of the 9 Principles of War

A

mass
mneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

S’s of the 9 Principles of War

A

surprise
security
simplicty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is the strategic environment flid

A

changing alliances
threats
partnerships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

emergign challenges

A

traditional war versus cyber, WMD terror, info op campaign, proliferation of adversaries, antiaccess/area denial capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

using the instruments of national power

A

national=led means our leaders can apply to achieve strategic objectives (ends)
- vareitis of purpose, scale, risk,c ombat intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

GEF

A

guidance for employment of the force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GFMIG

A

global force managemetn implementation guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

JSCP

A

Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

UCP

A

Unified Campaign Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

principle sources of guidance for CCMD

A

GEF
GFMIG
JSCP
UCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Defense Planning Guidance

A

establishes DOD force development plannign and resource priorities in order to prevail in the Nation’s curernt operations and to develop a balanced fjoint force to meet future contigencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

unified action

A

coordinate/cooperate of US mil/others towards common objectives eve in participation with part of thsame command/org

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 levels of warfare

A

strategic, op, tactical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

operational level of warfare

A

links tactical employment of the force to national strategic objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

art of command

A

ability to use leadership to maximize peformaance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

command

A

lawful authority over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what should happen if commander loses relaible communciation

A

“mission command” enables mil operations via decentralization execution based on mission-type orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

operational art

A

cognitive approach
-skill/knowledge, experience/creativity, jusgmetn broad vision
ability anticipate
skill to plan/preaper/create/execute
INTEGRATE ENDS, WAYS, MEANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

operational design

A

framework of an operational plan/execution
- supports operatioanl art w/a methodology designed to enhance udnerstanding of the situation and problem
elements: objective, LOO, LOE, termination criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

assessment

A

helps ID risks and opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

7 basic joint functions

A

C2
information
intelligence
fires
movement and maneuver
force protection
sustainment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

C2

A

exercises of authority and direction by a commander to accept a mission

control gives the means for command to maintain freedom of action, delegate authority, direct ops from any location, direct ops from any location, integration activity of OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

EMS

A

electromagnetic spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

maneuver

A

employment of force in the OA in combination with fires to achieve a position of advantage with respect to the enemy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

joint fires

A

use weapons system to have a specific effect on a target = objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

JIPOE

A

joint intelligence preparation of the OE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

intelligence

A

information about adversary capabilities, COG, vulnerabilities, future costs to udnerstand friendlyt, netural, adversary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

information

A

changes/maintains behaviors, attitudes, and other elements that drive desired behaviors and to support human/automated decision-making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what establishes an AOR

A

area established by the UCP taht defines geographical responsibilities fo a GCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what do OA’s have

A

physical dimensions of air, land, maritime, and space domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

evacuate embassy

A

NEO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MARO

A

mass atrocityD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DSCA

A

defense suport of civil authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

operation in Somalia

A

Operation Restore Hope.
crisis response that needed combat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

operations in the War in Afghanistan

A

2001-2021
operation anaconda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tora Bora

A

cave complex in eastern afghanistan. mission attempt to capture Osamba Bin Laden 3 months after 9/11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

phases of military operation

A

shape
deter
seize initiative
dominate
stabilize
enable civil authorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

phase

A

definitive stage/period wher a large portion of force/capabilities are involved in similar/mutual supporting activitiees
- phasing lets you visualize/plan/execute defined requirment
(force, resources, time, space, purpose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

difference between linear and nonlinear objectives

A

linear ops - commit direct/sustaining combat power towarerds enemy focused. foreard line of own troops. put friendly troops next to each otehr to enhance security and mass forces

nonlinear ops - forces orient on objectives but aren’t geographically related to each other. simultaneously alogn multiple LOO. goal is to overwhelm opposing C2 and let JFC retain teh initaitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

goal of mil engagement/cooperation/deterrence

A

prevent conflict by keeping adverary actions within a desired staet of cooperation and

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

military engagemetn

A

routine contact to build trust/confidence, maintain inflence, coordiante

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

deterrance

A

prevents adveray action throg presentation of a crdible threat unaceptable counteractin and belief that the cost of an action outweights perceivedbenefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

military responses in US

A

DSCA
homeland defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are FHA ops

A

ops to reduce/relieve human suffering, disease, hugner, privation
* difference from foreign assitancest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

strike

A

attacks conducted to damage or destory an objectie or capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

raid

A

seize area to secure informatoin, confuse enemy, capture personnel/equpment, destory an objective or capability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

USC that lets SecDef send in the National Guard

A

USC Title 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DOD in DSCA

A

in DSCA, DOD supports but doesn’t’ supplant civil authorities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

FDO

A

flexible deterrent option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

shoreline

A

littoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

purpose of the US military

A

“the US military’s purpose is to protect our nation and win wars. we do this through military operations to defend the homeland, build security globally, project power, and win decisively”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is needed for deterrance

A

capability: means to influence behavior

credibility: believe that proposed actions will be employed

  • the effectiveness of deterrence must be viewed from the perspective of the actor to be deterred
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

9 Principles of War + 3 __

A

12 Principles of Joint Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

TMM

A

Transregional, multidomain, multi
- describes threats in the military OE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is integrating joint capabilities meant to be

A

complementary not just additative
*avoid combining capabilities when doing so would add more complexity w/o compnsating advantege

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what type of targets do terrorists want

A

avoid hard (secure) targets and go soft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DODIN

A

DOD Information Network
- set of information capabilities/process for collecting, processing, sorting, disseminating, and managing information on all DOD missions and operations
- part of Cyber Command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ultimate purpose of the US military

A

win nation’s wars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

APEX

A

adaptive planning and execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

termination criteria to end a campaign/occupation

A

approved by pres/secdef
- defines the desired military end state which normally represents a point in time/set of conditions where the president doesn’t need the military instrument of power as the primary means to
–signals a transition of mil-civ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

JIACG

A

joint interagency coordination gruop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CMOC

A

civil-mil op center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

NRF

A

national response framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

NIMS

A

national incident managemntC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

CMO

A

civil-mil ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

National strategies

A

security, military, defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

JPP

A

joint planning process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

KLE

A

key leader engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

importance of commander’s intent

A

must be understood at every level of a command. essential to mission command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what does command invovle

A

responsibility for health, morale, discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

art of command

A

leader’s ability to maximize performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

4 Q’s a CCDR must ask when he thinks creatively (operational art)

A
  1. what are the objectives and desired mil end state? (ends)
  2. what sequence of events to get there (ways)
  3. what resources are needed to accomplish that series of actions? (means)
  4. what is the likelihood of failure/unacceptable COA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what does APEX do

A

assists joint planign proces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CCIR

A

commander critical information requriement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CONOPS

A

explains how forces will accomplish the mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

inextricably

A

in a way that is impossible to disentangle or separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

JEMS

A

joint electromagnetic spectrum opertions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

operational reach

A

distance/duration of access what a joint force can successfully employ military strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Anti-access/areal denial

A

mil strategy to control access to/within an OE.
A2: affects movement TO a theatre
AD: affects movment WITHIN a theatre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

no-fly zone

A

a type of A2/AD that prohibits access to an airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

staff estimate

A

wval that factor in staff section functional areas (intel/logistics) and complement overa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what does MOE answer

A

“Are we creating the effect/condition in the OE that we desire?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what does MOP answer

A

“Are we accomplishing the task”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

CSA

A

combat supoprt agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

JSA

A

joint security area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

tasks of C2

A

estab/org/operation Joint force HQ
command subordinates
prepare/modify/publish plans/orders/guidance
assign tasksA
priroritize/allocate
manage risk and information speed
coordiante
flow of information up and down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

COCOM

A

nontransferrabal authority via USC Title 10 section 164
- cannot delegate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

DAFL

A

Direct Authority for Logistics
- authority given to a military leader to direct logistics operations under their command to perform specific missions
- like reallocating resources, modifying current processes, overseeing logistical operations to ensure efficiency and effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

TACON

A

authority over forces made available for tasking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

JFLCC

A

joint force land combat center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

LNO

A

liaison officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

importance of CCIR

A

critical to CDR timely/effectively decisions
PIR and FFIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

battle rhythm

A

daily ops of briefs, meetings…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

data to wisedom

A

date
information
knowledge
shared understanding
wisdom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

importance of commadner’s intent

A

knowledge based product to share CCDR insight/direction of forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what must you know in order to affect behavior

A

perceptions
attitudes
decision-making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

relevant actors

A

humans/automatic systems a JFC wants to affect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

LREC

A

language, regional expertise, culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

MISO

A

military infomration support ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

use of psychological warfare

A

decrease opponent morale. shoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Israel military

A

IDF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

OPSEC

A

control/protect crime information to decrease visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

PA photos

A

Comabt Camera /COCAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

MIPOZ

A

medical intelligence preparation of OE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

PNT

A

positioning, naigation, and timing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

military term to an action intended to avoid accidents, incidents, potential for conflict

A

deconflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

aka equal

A

parity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

parity

A

equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

needed as a prerequisite for land ops

A

control of the air
- prerequisite for land ops.
- prevents enemy air and missile threat from interfernece
0- allows for freedom of movementinterdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

interdiction

A

divet/disrupt/delay/destory enemy military land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

rules on collateral damage

A

causing collateral damage is not in violation ofhtelaw of war as long as the damage is not excessive
- law of wary says balancing military necessity in relation to colleteral damage = joint warfare (12 principle) concept “proportionality”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Yom Kippur War

A

Golan Heights, Sinani Penninsuli, suaz cannel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

commander in Israel army during Yom Kippur War

A

Moshe Dayan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

female PM of Israelq

A

Golda Meir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

c-IED

A

counter IED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

antiterrorism

A

decrease vulnerability to actspu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

purpose of OPSEC

A

decrease vulnerabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

DLA

A

defense logistics agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

core functions of logistics

A

supply
maintence
deployment/distribution
logistic
engineer
health services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

importance of displosal in logistical plannign

A

must be considered in planning, execution, redeployment
- inadequate understandign =- violate public/international law, confusion over roles/request, increased costs, inefficient ops, decreasd health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

JSOA

A

joitn special ops area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

EMS

A

range of all frequencies of electromagnetic radiation (by frequency/wavelength)
radio
microwave
infared
visible
UV, …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

OE

A

composite of conditoins, circumstances, and inflences that affect employmetn of capabilities and bear on comamnder’s delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

system

A

group of regulary acting or independent elemnets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

PMESII

A

political
mil
economic
social
ifnormatoin
infrastructure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

how are joint forces established

A

geographical or functional basisjoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

interdependence

A

purposeful reliance of services on each other to maximize on the other services capabilities to mix complementary and reinforcing effects on both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

CCMD

A

unified command w/a broad continuing mission under a single commander established by pres/Sedef w/advise/assistance by CJCS
- GCC or FCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

TSOC

A

theatre special ops command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

AOR

A

area established by UCP that defines geographic responsibilities of GCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

UW

A

unconventional warfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

AOA

A

geographical area within the which is locate dthe objectives to be seized by theamphibioan force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

siderating when assuming responsibilitis for an OA

A
  • consider during wargaming to pick COA
  • C2, info environment, intel, communications, support, protect, security, LOC, terrain management, movement control, airspace control, ISR, air and missile defense, PR, targeting and fires, environmental, interorganizational coordination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Gen DUnford

A

“we should expect no credit tomorrow for what we did today”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

mil operation

A

set of actiosn to accomplish a task or mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

FHA

A

DOD activities that suport USAID/DOS outside of US territories to relieve/decease human sufering, disease, hugner, privationst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

stability activities

A

outside of hte US coordianted w/other instruments fo national pwoer to create safe/secerices, ssential gov ervices, emergency infrastructure, reconsition, humantiarian releif

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

peace ops

A

PKO- peacekeeping
PEO=enforcement
PM=makign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

types of military operations

A

stability ops
dsca
FHA
NEO
peace ops
cWMD
security
CBRNE
FID
MARO
counterdrug
COINT
coutnererrorism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

COIN

A

op that encomapsses comprehensive civilian/mil effects to defeat insurgencies and addrss core greviences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

counterterrorism

A

actions taken directly against a terror gruop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

FID

A

foreign internal defense
- civil and mil grov agencies. any of hte action programs taken by another gov/designated t free and protect its society from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency,t errorism oand other security theats
– FID is an example of USG foreign assitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

aka mass atrocity

A

MARO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

FRO

A

flexible response option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

operation post earthquake/tsunami/nuke meltdown in Japan

A

2011
Opeation Tomadachi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

HD

A

homeland defense: protect US territory/domestic populatoins agaisnt external threats as directdby the president

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

purpose of shaping activities

A

to set conditions for a successful opertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

deter

A

adversary thinks unacceptable risk/cost ot actions
(FDO/FRO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

dominate phase

A

break opponent will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what does phasing help the JFC/staff do

A

visualize plan and execute entire operation, define requests/forces/resources/time/space/purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

going in-between phases

A

transition
- need to plan long before execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

FLOT

A

forwarde line of own troops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

linear ops and conditiosn that favor them

A

LO: commander directs/sustained combat power. emphasis is to place friendly troops next to each other. to mass and enhance security

conditions that favor linear ops: lack intel to conduct nonlinear or are severley outnumbered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

COP

A

common operating picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

nonlinear ops

A

forces orient on objective w/o geographical relation to each other
0- simulatenous os from multiple LOOS to overwhelm opposing Cw and let our JFC retain teh initiative
- needs situational awareness to decerase friendly fire
- swift maneuver - paraluzed and strike

focus on decisive/decision points and use minimal resources b/c decreased mass

increased vulnerability and risk of losing friendly
linkup pos need extensive planing/prep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

RAND Coporation

A

nonprofit global policy think tank, R&D, and policy analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

why does the DOD rely on the plannign process

A

to size and posture it military’s force
- so needs a defense planning methodology to size/shape force
- w/o it, the size/shape/capabilities of the mil force is arbitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

OSD

A

Office of the SecDef

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what does the current defense planning process tend to base decisions on

A

tends to base decisions on mostly inflexible assumptions
- this increases the risk b/c those deacons may be wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

problem with force-sizing scenarios

A

doesn’t account for uncertainties - potential for many possible future scenarios to engage and inability of planning process to accurately ID the range of scenarios that might dominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

starting point for defense planning methodolgoies

A

supply based or demand based
derived from threats, desired, capabilities, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

why is the majority of defense planning demand

A

top-down planning method that begins w/highlevel strategic demand signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

demand-led defense planning

A

streategies capabilities are based on ideas about the requirements of future

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

supply based defense plannign

A

begins with a specific real world constraint (e.g current force size, capability mix, budget limit) and builds planning from there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

differences between the two typs of military defense planning

A

supply based: resource focused plan
demand based: capabilities and threat planning

GOAL: spending priorities comprehensive force strength, feasible/affordable capabilities mix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

initial strategy focussd on desired outcomes

A

implementation must be grounded in realism (capabilities, nature of existing forces, feasibility, affordability…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

2 flaws in defense planning

A
  • not responsive enough to quickly adapt to changes in the strategic environment (dynamics) what scenarios are most plausible and most concerning shift)
  • process focuses too narrowly on singularly approves arbitrary solutions that constrain alternative contingencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

skunkworks project

A

project developed by a relatively small and loose structured group fo people who do R&D. often w/a very large degree of autonomy fo the sake of radical innovation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

skunkworks and defense planning

A

to improve defense contingency planning, recommended to use scenarios skunkworks that constantly generates scenarios, contingencies, alternative CONOPS, key assumptions, and skunkworks objects. scouts for exploring the geostrategic horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

take seriously the need to ID key assumptions built into contingency scenarios…

A

subject each assumption to rigorous analysis/debate. to information the discussion w/ a clearer understanding of it’s relationships between specific assumptions and outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

ISIS

A

Islamic state of iraq/syria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

MCO

A

major combat op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

CAPE

A

cost assessment and project evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

DPG

A

defense planning guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

DPS

A

defense plannign scenario

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

GAO

A

governmetn accounting office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

FYDP

A

fiscal year defense program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

OMB

A

office management budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

POM

A

program objective memorandum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

SSA

A

support for strategic analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

PPBES

A

planning
programming
budgeting
execution system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

what type of plans do you planfor

A

plans need to plan for uncertainty as well as expected/likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

what happens if you don’t do defense planning

A

size/composition/capabilities mil forces are entirely political and arbitrary. so a system is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

what must all defense planning be

A

resource informed
operating under a constraint of a range of plausible national security levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

By what objective standard can the leaders of the US defense enterprise be confident that the forces they chose are best aligned with US strategy and policy goals

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

what message does the DOD send via their choice of scenarios they plan for

A

the choice of scenarios DOD plans for sends a message about the major tasks teh US is prepared to undertake
- bureacuratic influence
- civilians want options
- mil planners want clear guidance about objectivs and missions
**all want to advance US national security, just do it through different lenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

what is strategy best understood to be

A

an alignment of ends, ways, and measn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

QDR

A

Quadrennial Defens eREvieq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

what does the USG do when deterrence fails

A

USG willbe capable of defeating or denying the objectiv eof/or impose unnecessary costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

factors demand-based plannign considerations

A

adversary
mission/objectives
behaviors
capabilities
ally/partner
capability and contribution
geoplitical locale of conflict
frequency/timing/duration of conflict
us access/assumptions in teh region
types of conflict (irregular warfare, air/sea, )
readiness
warnign
ability tocontrol the timing of the conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Prez Ike on planning

A

“plans are useless but planning is indespensible”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

objective-based plannign

A

focuses on goals a future force shoudl be able to achieve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

political concerns in plannign porcess

A

strategic partnerships
allied reactions
potentional for escalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

problem of too much focus on CONOPS to achieve a goal

A

ignores contextual issues take effect of COA on a global politics or risk of escalation when plans are executed against a real world enemy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

resource focused plannign

A

grounded in reality and addresses real world constraints

202
Q

what is defense spendign

A

resource-informed politically influenced, strategically infleucnes one is geneaterates

203
Q

National Intelligence Estimates

A

USG documetns that are authoritative assessments of director of national intellience on intelligence r/t specific issues
- classified documents prepared for policymaakers
- considered to be estimative products b/c they present what intelligence analysists estimate may be the course of future events

204
Q

what does intelligence not claim

A

“intelligence does not claim infallibility for its prophecies”

205
Q

National Intelligence Council Global Trends report

A

published Q4yrs
addresses key trends and uncertainties that will shape th US strategic environment for the US over the next 2 decades
* 5 future scenarios aren’t meant ot be predictive…just possible combos of structured forces, emerging dynamics, key uncertainiteis

206
Q

challenge to decide when predicting long-term future

A

it is a challenge to decide what issues/scenarios you should prep for and which to leave out

207
Q

like-minded groups and communities

A

communities get more fractured as they seal out like-minded groups base don identities

208
Q

Covid-19 as a global disruption

A

health
economic
political
security
implications

209
Q

problems of climate change

A

worsen water/food insecurity
mass migration
disrupt jobs/industries

210
Q

number of people who were living in a country they migrated to (in 2020)

A

270 million were living in a coutnry they migrated to
(100mil more than in the 2000s)

211
Q

locations where migration strains

A

origin and dsination

212
Q

world connected and fragmented

A

world gets more connected via communication, tech, trade, electronics, trnsportation

213
Q

what did Covid19 show about our international relations

A

Covid19 showed a stark example of weakness in internatilal coordiantion in ehatlh crises and mismatch of existing institutions, fundign levels, disparities, persistent/growing gap between what people demand and what gov/corporations deliver

214
Q

major powers jockying

A

to set/exploit rules of the road

215
Q

countires with an aged population

A

china
jap
s. korea

216
Q

key avenue for gaining advantage

A

technology is a key avenue for gaining advantage
via adaption

217
Q

middle income trap

A

economic development situation where a country gets stuck at a certain income level

218
Q

burdens of climate change

A

uneven distribution heightening competitive, contributes to instability, strains military readiness, encourages political movements

219
Q

gap between public and gov

A

growing gap between public demand and what the government can provide
- increased tension, increased political volatility, threaten democracy
- could shift/spur new political models

220
Q

what may decrease government flexibility

A

greater debt burden
diverse trading rules
state/corporate actors
powerful firm that exert influence in political and social ares

221
Q

general population and ability to inflict change

A

populations are increasingly equipped with tools, capability, and incentives to agitate for their preferences
0

222
Q

OECD

A

Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development

223
Q

purchasing power parity

A

adjusts for differences in costs of livng in other countries
- look at with GDP

224
Q

nominial GDP

A
225
Q

what did Covid 19 shake

A

shook long held assumptions about resiliency and adaption and created new uncertainties

226
Q

illiberal

A

restricted freedom of thought/behavior

227
Q

historically a key driver of economic development

A

urbanization

228
Q

Gini coefficient

A

measure of statistical dispersion intended to represent the income inequality, wealth inequality kor consumption ineuquality
**measures inequality among the values of a frequency distribution
= GC fo 0 = perfect equality. all income/wealth is the same

229
Q

how can you use birthrates to predict how aggressive/warlike a coutnry willbe

A

older populations tend to be less violent/ideologically extreme. so countreis with a high 20-40 age pop will likely be more wild

230
Q

UN goals

A

sustainable/millenial development goals

231
Q

Army codes for their vet techs

A

68R = vet food inspector specialist
68T= animal care

232
Q

goal of GHE

A

help CCMD campaign plan objectives

233
Q

military vet services

A

Army is the sole provider of vet services
BUT
air force does food safety. their vet corp just doesn’t do animal care

234
Q

code of Army Ve corp

A

63: prev med, biomedical, clinimal medical…
techs are
68R for vet food inspector
68T for animal care

235
Q

goal of VETCAP.VETGHE activities

A

economic
food
health security
BC
local livestock matters

236
Q

when does military provide healthcare/services

A

military provides based on national security strategy

237
Q

difference between the activities military and NGOs support

A

NGO supports based on need
military supports based on national security access

238
Q

difference between access mil and NGO need (w/regards to GHE)

A

mil gets access to intel and influence
NGO gets to beneficiaries

239
Q

proof of concept

A

proof of principle
- realization of an idea, method, or principle to demonstrate it’s feasibility or viability
- important in product development
- used in various fields like filmmaking, engineering, business development, security, software development, drug development

240
Q

tool used to help in HACE

A

Gamow bag

241
Q

TRAVAX

A

lists incountry hospitals and tricare hospitals so you can make an evacuation plan. plus the last time they did a site survey there

242
Q

what is mandatory for GHE

A

must fall in with DOD strategy

243
Q

what determines where missions occur?

A

CCMD security cooperation plan

service/org priorities

fundign streams

politics

244
Q

M&E

A

monitoring and evaluation

245
Q

APACS

A

Aircraft and Personnel Automated CLearance System
- DOD foreign clearence guide

246
Q

important to remember if your GHE will provide direct care

A

standard of care
unintended consequences
maybe can’t give comprehensive care
ethics

247
Q

who manages most military travel medicine

A

80% of travel medicine is managed by PCM
2% by ID docs

248
Q

art of travel medicine

A

person (traveler) risk factors
place/location
behavior/activities

PLUS

risk tolerance of the provider/pt
consider: time of yr/season, weather, lodging, meal, water

249
Q

oral typhoid vaccien

A

one capsule on day 0, 2, 4, 6
take with cool/lukewarm water

250
Q

vaccine yellow card I have

A

Yellow Fever

251
Q

what happens if you skip a malaria prevention dose

A

malarone = okay if you miss 1-2 days “adherence forgiveness”
doxy: not okay to miss a dose. ineffective if you miss a single dose

252
Q

ice in glasses in other countreis

A

not safe

253
Q

EMAC

A

emergency management assistance compact
- mutual aid agreement among states/territories of US
- enables states to share resources during natural/man made disasters

254
Q

Big 6 fever causes when a person returns from a tropical place

A

MALARIA
rickettsia
schisto
typhoid
lepto
dengue
*fever w/o s/s is in up to 2% of all travelers

255
Q

interventino if you suspect malaria

A

if suspect malaria, ask when they stopped taking their malaria treatment when they got back

256
Q

interventinos for malaria

A

ICU
serial smears
IV Artesinate

257
Q

schistosomasis

A

cecariae. organ penetrate other bloodstream

258
Q

African person has an all white sclera

A

river blindness/onchoc…
parasite from black fly
can wipe out 50% of a village

259
Q

top two medical issues when on deployment

A

1 = diarrhea

#2: respiratory illness

260
Q

Hickam dictum

A

patients can have as many diseases/infectious diseases as they please
DIFFERENT FROM Ocam’s razer

261
Q

joint base in Texasd

A

Joint base San Antonio-Lackland

262
Q

rx that dries the skin

A

astringent

263
Q

when to use nystatin powder

A

nystatin only works w/candida

264
Q

Haff disease

A

rhabdo beginning within 24hr of eating fish
- damaged muscle release protein

265
Q

scombroid

A

Scombroid food poisoning, also known as simply scombroid, is a foodborne illness that typically results from eating spoiled fish.[2][4] Symptoms may include flushed skin, sweating, headache, itchiness, blurred vision, abdominal cramps and diarrhea.[2][5] Onset of symptoms is typically 10 to 60 minutes after eating and can last for up to two days.[2] Rarely, breathing problems, difficulty swallowing, redness of the mouth, or an irregular heartbeat may occur
-from food high in histamine

266
Q

rx for acute mountain sickness

A

prevent ascent , acetazolamide
adjust to descent, dexamethasone

267
Q

brain eating ameboe

A

naegleria flwleri

268
Q

what does measles do tot he body

A

immune amnesia
infects dentriteic cell

269
Q

patterns of malaria fever

A

Q3 days = p. falcip
Q2 days vivax

270
Q

desired military objectives of US/HN GHE

A

increase US and host nation relations and HN capacity

271
Q

shock index

A

HR/SBP = 0.5-0.7
higher SI, the more likely they will need a blood transfusion

272
Q

blood loss of radius/ulna

A

250-500ml

273
Q

blood loss of humerus

A

500-750ml

274
Q

blood loss of tib/fib

A

500-1L

275
Q

blood loss of femur

A

1-2L

276
Q

blood loss of pelvis

A

masswive

277
Q

2 types of fracture with the greatest blood loss

A

femur = 1-2L
pelvis 1L to massive
- either can result in a 30-40% blood loss, decompensation, hypovolemic shock

278
Q

SBP for TBI/SCI

A

90-100

279
Q

what is TXA

A

analog of amino acid lysine
- intereferes with teh breakdown process which

280
Q

trauma triad of death

A

hypothermia
coagulopathy
acidosis
* marker of anaerobic metabolism. reversal needed immediately

281
Q

ASEAN

A

Association of SE Asian Nations

282
Q

GDP

A

total amounts of goods and services produced by a nation in a given yearpu

283
Q

purchasing power parity

A

adjusted to GDP. takes into account the e cost of living variations between nations

284
Q

what is GDP NOT

A

not a measure of the standard of living for the average citizen

285
Q

importance of watching how China treats Taiwan, NK, and Hong Kong

A

will affect regional stability

286
Q

US and INDOPACOM trade

A

US economy is highly dependent on Asia/Pacific trade
- China is the #2 trading partner with US and China is the largest importer of US goods

287
Q

US economy interruption

A

US economy can be interrupted by disruption of trade not directly involving the US
-= eg. if a natural item is needed from the Middle east and it is blocked, we cannot get the item from a countryt t manufacture a finished product. trade between nations or blocking trade routes

288
Q

importance of the Strait of Malacca

A

narrowest point is 1.5miles wide
2/3 of world’s peteroum, 1/2 bulk cargo, adn 1/3 of containerized freight passes through here

289
Q

major US goal in Korea

A

N. Korea tested a nuclear device in 2006. denuclearization of Korea is a major US objective

290
Q

US action if S. Korea is attacked

A

US is committed to assist S. K if it is attacked

291
Q

presence of US in Korea

A

US will assist S. Korea if it is attacked
we have 85 installations and 27K mil personel in Korea

292
Q

things that destabilize PACOM

A

border disputes
maritime claims
natural disasters
insurgent movements

293
Q

APEC

A

Asian-Pacific Economic Cooperation

294
Q

spreading of weapons of mass destruction

A

weapons proliferation

295
Q

with whom does the US have mutual defense treaties

A

Japan, Thai, Australia, Phillippeans, SK

296
Q

why are there disputes over island ownership in S China Sea

A
297
Q

factors that will affect Asian-Pacific relations

A

how China and India exercsie power
India/China growing energy needs
Indonesia growning economy plus largest Muslim pop in the world
NK crisis
China-Taiwan
India-pakistan
Terrorism
US position as the world’s premeir power

298
Q

what do the export-oriented economies of Asia-Pacific rely heavily on

A

sea lines of communication for their prosperity

299
Q

what is the most democratic strategy to prevent future etho-national conflicts

A

inclusion

300
Q

concerns about democracy in the west stagnating

A

democracy in the west will stagnate as voters respond with apathy to choices that are not substantially different

301
Q

what happens in respiratory acidosis

A

Co2 over 45
body produces more Co2 than it can expel
insufficient resp/hy

302
Q

what happens in R. alkalosis

A

Co2 is below 35 and pH over 7.45
hyp
anxiety fear, hypoxia, hyperventilatoin on ventilation

303
Q

hyperventilation A-B balance

A

R. Alkalosis
Co2 below 35 and pH over 7.45

304
Q

m. acidosis

A

below 7.3 and below 22

305
Q

3 Q’s to ask if Co2 buildup

A

is something causing decreased rate/depth?
is something imparing gas exchange like excessive fluid in lungs?
is body craeting Co2 faster than it can expel?

306
Q

A-B fully compensated

A

pH normal
both bicarb and Co2 are abnormal

307
Q

what should you consider if a pt needs a nonrebreather

A

CPAP/BiPAP

308
Q

L/min of simple face mask

A

6-10
0.6 FiO1

309
Q

what does NIPPV require

A

that the pt be awake and spontaneously ventilatoin

310
Q

Litening

A

targeting pod that is an advanced precision targeting pod system currently on many aircraft worldwide

311
Q

HOGE

A

hovering out of ground effect

312
Q

HIGE

A

hovering in ground effect

313
Q

calculate aircraft payload

A

basic empty weight and fuel. then max wt.
check wt and balance sheet to find the maximum allowable gross wt on an aircraft and subtract that from the max wt to get your useful load

314
Q

4 evidene based criteria by perhospitals that determines transfer to a trauma center

A

physiologic: SBP under 90, RR under 10/above 24, below 20 in kids, GCS 14

anatomic:
mechanism of injry like
passenger intrustion

315
Q

passenger space intrustion that needs trauma center

A

death in the same compartmetn
>12 in intrustion
ejection

316
Q

fall height that’s a trauma

A

full adult over 20ft
kid over 10ft or 2-3x height

317
Q

Level I Truma

A

Q24HR SERCICES
RESEARCH
RUMA RESIDENCY
COMMUNITY EDUCATION

318
Q

Level III Trauma

A

general surgeon must be promptly available
doesn’t need neuro
MOU with a I or II for backup

319
Q

Level IV Truma

A

initial eval/stabilize
trauma trained nurse
physicaina on call
open Q24hrs
physicain on call

320
Q

Level V Trauma

A

physicain on call
trauma RN
tranfer MOU
might not be open 24hrs
has after hours trauma respnse protocol

321
Q

causative agent in trauma

A

energy

322
Q

CONOPS

A

goals, objectives, strategies, tactics, policies, activities, reponsibilities, processes

323
Q

SMART indicators

A

specific
measurable
achievable
time-bound
a mneumonic device to establish criteria for effective goal setting and objective development
- used in a variety of fields including project managemetn, employee performance managment, personal development

324
Q

what often causes failure even if well intentioned efforts

A

often well intentioned efforts fail to achieve the well intentioned aspirations of sustainability an dlongevity

325
Q

CASREP

A

casualty report

326
Q

CVW

A

carrier air wing

327
Q

BDS

A

battle dressing station

328
Q

ADDU

A

additional duty

329
Q

3-M

A

material and maintence management system

330
Q

C4ISR

A

communications, computer

331
Q

DESRON

A

Destroyer Squadron

332
Q

EAWS

A

enlisted aviation warfare specialist

333
Q

MRI (military)

A

medical readiness inspection

334
Q

NATOPS

A

naval air training and operations procedures, standardization program

335
Q

PMS

A

planned maintence system

336
Q

SAREX

A

SAR exercise

337
Q

SATCOM

A

satellite communcniation

338
Q

SLEP

A

service life extension program

339
Q

SOE

A

schedule of events

340
Q

SORM

A

ship’s organizations regulatinos

341
Q

SORTS

A

status of resources and training system

342
Q

NEC

A

Navy Enlisted Classificatino

343
Q

SWO manual

A

Surface Forces Training Manual

344
Q

SMMO

A

Ship Maintence and Material Officer

345
Q

SIC

A

immediate superior in chain of command

346
Q

amphibious squadron

A

PHIBRONJ

347
Q

FEX

A

Joint Task Force Exercice

348
Q

fleet that = SOUTHCOM

A

4th

349
Q

RAP

A

rocket assisted projects

350
Q

IMD

A

independent mission detachment

351
Q

do you ever have enough time in combat?

A

no. like rushing,

352
Q

following bad sailors

A

follow into combat out of morbid curiousity

353
Q

why should you get your military to care

A

care enough to stay in the fight

354
Q

CEPO

A

Continuing Education Program Office
DHA’s J-7 Education and Training Directorate

355
Q

DHA J-7

A

CEPO -
Continuing Education Program Office
DHA’s J-7 Education and Training Directorate

356
Q

establishment of DHA

A

October 2013
to manage activities of MHS

357
Q

GINA

A

genetic infomration nondiscrimination act

358
Q

finest trait of the Hornet

A

ability to sustain evasive action

359
Q

JDAM

A

Joint Direct-Attack Munition

360
Q

JSOW

A

Joint Standoff Weapon

361
Q

AESA Radar

A

Active Electronially Scanned Array

362
Q

relationship between the Super HOrnet and carrier

A

Super Hornet can be recovered aboard a carrier w/optimum reserve fuel while carrying a load of precision-strive weapons
- its carrier-recovery payload is 79K lbs

363
Q

aka C-130

A

KC-130J = Hercules Tactical Tanker and Transport

364
Q

6 functions of the C-130

A

= HErcules
- fixed/fotor/tiltrotor
air to air ruel
rapid grounds refueling
assault air transport air delivery of personnel, supplies, equipment,
C2 augmentation
battlefield illumination
combat SAR
tactical evacuation

365
Q

action of the MH-53E

A

Sea Dragon has Airborne Mine Countermeasures
- supports underwater warfare by helping defend the fleet from surface/subsurface mine threats

366
Q

CVW

A

carrier air wing

367
Q

EMD

A

engineering and manufacturing development

368
Q

FRP

A

full rate production

369
Q

LRIP

A

low rate initial productionaka

370
Q

Posidon

A

P-8A Posidon
does: ASW, ASuW, ISR

371
Q

aka Orion

A

P-3C Orion
antisubmarien warfare, antisurface warfare

372
Q

HFI

A

hostile fire indicator

373
Q

ATW

A

advanced threat warner

374
Q

NAVAIR

A

naval air systems command

375
Q

FOT&E

A

follow on test and evaluation

376
Q

JMPS

A

joint mission planning system

377
Q

NAVMPS

A

naval missino plannign systems

378
Q

OS

A

operating system

379
Q

distributed lethality

A

USN is multidomain with a variety of ships

380
Q

IDECM

A

integrated defensive electronic countermeasures

381
Q

CDD

A

capability development doc

382
Q

INS

A

INERTIALl navigation system

383
Q

SRAAM

A

short range air to air missiles

384
Q

undergrad military flight officer aircraft

A

starts in the T-6B Texan II,
advanced jet = T-45C Goshawk
helo advanced = TH-57 Sea Ranger

385
Q

Nulka

A

missile decoy used by USN

386
Q

BMD

A

Ballistic Missile defense

387
Q

early machine gun

A

gatling gunMK 15MOD 21-28 P

388
Q

Phalanx Close-in weapon system

A

autonomous combat system that searches, detects, tracks, and engages w/20mm gatling gun capable of firing 4500 rounds/min

389
Q

MCM

A

mine countermeasure

390
Q

COTS/NDI

A

commercial off the shelf/nondevelopmetn item

391
Q

RAM

A
392
Q

SSD

A

Ship Self Defense

393
Q
A
394
Q

type of contract

A

cost plus incentive fee contract

395
Q

EASR

A

Enterprise Air Surveillance Radar
- modern 2D Air Search Radar that addresses aircraft carrier/amphib warship requirments and closely confuses to existing combat systems

396
Q

SPY-6

A

Air and missile defense radar

397
Q

CSL

A

common source library

398
Q

IAMD

A

Integrated Air and Missile Defesne

399
Q

kinematics

A

subfield of physicas and math
- describes the motion of points, bodies/objects, and systems of bodies/objects w/o considering the forces that cause them to move
- aka “the geometry of motion”

400
Q

types of classical mechanics

A

applied
celestial
continuum
dynammics
keinematics
kinetics
statics
statistical mecanics

401
Q

geometry of motion

A

kinematics

402
Q

RFIR

A

radiofrequency infared

403
Q

ACS

A

aegis combat system
- introduced to the fleet in 1983

404
Q

used for non-AEGIS equipped warships

A

SSDS

405
Q

SSDS

A

Ship Self Defense System
- centralized automated C2 system for non-aegis warships

406
Q

OTH

A

over the horizon

407
Q

VTOAV

A

verticel takeoff and landing
tactical unmanned aerial vehicle

408
Q

ASCM

A

antiship cruise missioles

409
Q

CEC

A

Cooperative Engagement Capability
- sensor network with integrated fire control capability that is intended to significantly improve air/missile defense capabilities by combining data from multiple battle force air search sensors on CEC equipped units into a single real-time composite track picture (network centric warfare(

410
Q

network-centric warfare

A

doctrine/theory of war that aims to translate an information advantage, enabled partly by information technology, into a competitive advantage through computer networking of dispensed forces

411
Q

phased array

A

computer controlled array of antennas which creates a beam of radio waves that can be electronically steered to point in different directions while not moving the antennas

412
Q

GPNTS

A

global positioning, navitation, and timing system

413
Q

mission package

A

consists of mission modules which includes unmanned vehicles, sensors, communication systems, and weapons
+ mission package detachments.

414
Q

TWS

A

Torpedo Warning System

415
Q

ATTDC

A

anti torpedo torpedo defense system

416
Q

Theatre Mission Planning Center

A

subsystem for precision targeting, route planning, mission distribution, and strike management fo TLAM
- mission plan/executie/optimize all aspects of TLAM mission to engagte target

417
Q

TUP

A

transfer under pressrue

418
Q

missiles on ballistic subs

A

Trident

419
Q

ROV

A

remotely operated vehicle

420
Q

CWA

A

chemical warfare agent

421
Q

NTA

A

nontraiditnal agent

422
Q

IET

A

information exploitation teams

423
Q

NSWG

A

Naval Special Warfare Groups
- 1 & 11 = San Diego
- 3: Pearl Hearbor
- 2,4,10: Little Creek

424
Q

leads Seal Teams

A

commander

425
Q

NECC

A

navy expeitionary combat command

426
Q

aka dirty bombs

A

RDD

427
Q

Seebees

A

naval mobile contruction battalio

428
Q

CRF

A

costal riverine force
-harbors, bridges, rivers, littoral. operations in the gap between land and sea
- maritime security ops aroudnt he clock

429
Q

New START

A

new strategic arms reduction treaty

430
Q

SLEP

A

shelf life extension program

431
Q

operation in Haiti

A

Op United REsponse

432
Q

operation in Japan

A

Operation Tamadachi

433
Q

ESD

A

Expeditionary Transfer Dock

434
Q

NCHB

A

Naval Cargo Handling Battalio

435
Q

NAVELS

A

Navy Logistics Upport System

435
Q

NDAA

A

national defense authorization act

436
Q

NETC

A

Navy Expeditioanry Intelligence Command

437
Q

perspective of deployed versus port ships

A

an increase in deplooyed ships doesn’t result ina proportion decrease in amount of time spent in home port. b/c ships not unerway still go
- USN says therir goal is to have 50% of their ship time in home port for family, maintence

438
Q

amount of time a service memebr spends in their home station between deployments to war zones

A

dwell time

439
Q

CUI

A

government created/owned information that needs safeguarding, dissemination controls, consistent w/applicable laws, regulations, and gov wide practices.
NOT the same as classified information

440
Q

RTAMS

A

range & training area management section

441
Q

C-RAM

A

counterrocket, artillery, mortar

442
Q

TCC 3

A

DW event over 50 knots/58mph is predicted to hit the area within 48jhrs

443
Q

status of motor pool in DWTF

A

on-call
tasked
deployed
on station
redeployed

444
Q

MCOP

A

a primary means of C2

445
Q

JDIAL

A
446
Q

JEL+

A

Joint Doctrine Library - Joint Chiefs of Staff website
- access to latest versions of joint publications and terminology

447
Q

EWTGLANT

A

Expeditionary Warfare Training - Atlantic

448
Q

LPWS

A

Land Phalanx Weapons System

449
Q

TECOM

A

training and education command

450
Q

aka Macho Man

A

Randy savage

451
Q

a line of effort for the CG

A

warrior development

452
Q

per a PME, why do you have to expand promotion zones?

A

to put asses in seats. not enough people in zone b/c getting out

453
Q

what qualifies you for the next rank

A

performance

454
Q

nickname for people in Logistics

A

“Loggies”

455
Q

per a PME, why does it look negative to go Joint early?

A

Marine Corp is a jealous person. doesn’t like its people to spend too much time away from her

456
Q

closest way to get to a start

A

closests getting to a star is going outside and looking up. if no one talks to you abouthow tobe

457
Q

How to lead a brief on a candidate

A
  • what you are going to tell them
  • tell them
  • tell them what you told them
458
Q

what is the most administrative thing military folks do

A

write fit reps

459
Q

most important thing about the text of a FITREP

A

what you don’t say is just as important as what you do say

460
Q

why is it important to understand how promotion boards work

A

understanding how the board is conducted helps you write the report

461
Q

problem of sending Marines/sailors to school

A

not every community is healthy enought o send marines to school

462
Q

Did anyone call Marines/sailors to ask why they are getting out?

A

trends b ut no exploration

463
Q

hating the officer “check off wickets” for promotion

A

“I’ve got to check boxes” mentality is what we do but bad mentality but needed for billets/promotions

464
Q

DOT

A

department of transportaoin

465
Q

FEMA stands for

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency

466
Q

runs FEMA

A

FEMA falls under Dept of Homeland Defense

467
Q

USG assistance to help local disasters

A

Robert T Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergnecy Assistance Act

468
Q

DSCA

A

requested when state/local/tribal governmetn provie insufficient to provide critical support in a timely manner or when specialized assets are required

469
Q

criteria used to evaluate all requests for DSCA

A

USG evaluates all requests for legality, lethality, risks, costs, appropriateness, and impact on readiness

470
Q

NIMS

A

national incident management system

471
Q

IRA

A

immediate response authority
- Military CDRs are authorities to take action in disasters under IRA

472
Q

authority of military commanders are allowed to take action in local disasters

A

IRA: Immediate Response Authority

473
Q

NRF

A

National Response Framework
-guide that details how the nation conducts all-hazard response including response principles, roles, structures

474
Q

NSSE

A

national special security events
- Sec Homeland Security * NSC decides to help with special events

475
Q

2 laws that restrict use of the military

A

Posse Commitus Act
Insurrection Act

476
Q

Posse Commitus Act

A

conditions to employ military force

477
Q

Insurrection Act

A

military can restore civil order and enforce federal law

478
Q

MOC

A

Media Operation Center does timely dissemination of information in disasters

479
Q

CIP

A

critical infrastructure Protection

480
Q

who owns 85% of the nation’s critical infrastructure

A

private sector

481
Q

NIPP

A

National Infrastructure Protection Plan
- framework for parties between private sector critical infrastructure and key resources

482
Q

importance of NGO in disasters

A

NGOs need capacity and capabilities so they can access potential critical shortfall

483
Q

NVOAD

A

National VOluntary Organization Active in Disasters
- nonprofit/nonpartisan organization to provide a for org to share knowledge and resoruces to helpt eh communities pprepare for and recover from disasters

484
Q

EMAC

A

emergency management assistance compact
- interstate agreement for states to provide mutual aid in time of need

485
Q

important to remember they can help during disasters

A

NGO/private sector

486
Q

who runs the NRF

A

Homeland Security

487
Q

who runs NIMS

A

FEMA

488
Q

who runs Robert T Stafford Act

A

FEMA

489
Q

2 FEMA programs during disasters

A

NIMS
Stafford Act

490
Q

Red Teaming

A

flexible cognitive approach to thinking and plannign specifically tailored to each organization and situation
- structured tools to ask better questions, challenge implicit/exploict assumptions, expose information to missed, develop alternatives, and rapidly shift between

491
Q

how does Red Teaming help your thinking/planning

A

mental agility to rapidly shift between multiple perspectives and appreciate complex situations

492
Q

what does Red Teaming help you understand

A

increase understanding,
more opinions from all levels,
make better decisions,
Increase level of protection from unseen biases/tendencies

493
Q

why do we like familiar things

A

we take comfort in familiar and casual over share beliefs/views/tendencies

494
Q

why do we accept shortcutes

A

b/c time/personnel/limits

495
Q

why do we sometimes discount potential threats?

A

b/c we don’t fully appreciate the likelihood of them occurring or complexity of interfering

496
Q

quote about what we should do in red teaming

A

“every assumption, claim, assertation…must be challenged”

497
Q

patterns in human nature

A

humans develop patterns of behavior/thoughts to help us achieve our goals with the least amount of effort

498
Q

how do you frame decisions in Red Teaming

A

frame decisions around the scope and rate of information sharing - leading to critical and creative decision making

499
Q

what should Red Teamers never do

A

Red Teamers should never bind themselves to only one way of thinking