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IMSE LEC > MIDTERM - HYPERSENSITVITY > Flashcards

MIDTERM - HYPERSENSITVITY Flashcards

1
Q

The immune response has been described as a defense mechanism by which the body rids itself of potentially __.

A

harmful antigens

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1
Q

The immune response has been described as a defense mechanism by which the body rids itself of potentially harmful antigens

In some cases, however, this process can end up causing DAMAGE to the host

this process is called

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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2
Q

When it comes to the mechanism of the
hypersensitivity reaction the individual must first
have become __ by previous exposure to
the antigen

A

sensitized

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3
Q

hypersensitivity it can define as a
___.

A

heightened state of immune responsiveness

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4
Q

it is an exaggerated response to a harmless
antigen that results in injury to the tissue, disease, or even
death.

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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5
Q

why is mortality possible in hypersensitivity reaction?

A

imbalance when it comes
to the homeostasis,

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6
Q

British immunologists __
devised a classification system for such reactions based on
four different categories

type I-IV
hypersensitivity.

A

P. G. H. Gell and R. R. A. Coombs

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7
Q

4 DIFFERENT CLASSIFICATIONS OF HYPERSENSITIVITY

A

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY

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8
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein a cell-bound antibody reacts with antigen to release physiologically active substances.

A

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY

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9
Q

What would be the immune mediator of type I
hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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10
Q

How do hypersensitivity 1 works

A

IgE will bind to mast cells or basophils, once coated of mast or basophil, they will release mediators such as histamine to fight allergens

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11
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction in which free
antibody reacts with antigen associated with cell surfaces.

A

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY

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12
Q

What would be the immune mediator of type II
hypersensitivity?

A

IgM or IgG

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13
Q

a type of hypersensitivity in which it helps to activate the complement system by allowing the free antibodies to react and fight the allergens

A

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY

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14
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein an antibody reacts with
soluble antigen to form complexes that precipitate in the
tissues

A

TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY

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15
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein a sensitized T cells rather than antibody are
responsible for the symptoms that develop.

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

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16
Q

the immune mediator for type 4 is the

A

t cells

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17
Q

types of hypersensitivity in which is involves in complement system

A

type 2 and 3

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18
Q

TYPE I, TYPE II AND TYPE III
HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION, always remember that it has been previously referred as the ___.

A

immediate
hypersensitivity

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19
Q

why do type 1 2 and 3 are called as immediate hypersensitivity

A

short time lag and the reactions are can be seen in few minutes/hrs

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20
Q

TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY is also called as

A

delayed type of hypersensitivity.

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21
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity is also called as

A

anaphylactic hypersensitivity

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22
Q

what are the antibody mediated hyprsensitivity

A

1, 2,3

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23
Q

what are the cell mediated hyprsensitivity

A

type 4

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24
Q

a phase of type 1 hypersensitivty in which the reactions appears within minutes
after exposure to the antigen.

A

Early phase of allergic reaction

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25
Q

a phase of type 1 hypersensitivity in which the reactions appears several hours after
exposure to antigen.

A

Late phase allergic reactions

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26
Q

The key reactant presents in type I, or immediate
sensitivity reactions, is __

A

IgE

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27
Q

the “key reactant” is the same with ___

A

immune mediator

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28
Q

Antigens that trigger formation of IgE are called ___.

A

atopic antigens or allergens

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29
Q

any altered reaction to external substances.

A

Allergy

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30
Q

examples of allergy

A

pollens and dusts

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31
Q

an inherited tendency to respond naturally
occurring inhaled and ingested allergens with continued
production of IgE.

A

atopy

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32
Q

Atopy derived from the Greek word “__”
meaning “out of place”

A

Atopos

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33
Q

In severe cases of type 1 hypersensitivty, ____ can occur.

A

laryngeal edema, vascular collapse and
death

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34
Q

a general anaphylaxis composed of __

A

itching,
erythema (redness of the localized area), vomiting,
abdominal cramps, diarrhea and respiratory distress.

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35
Q

a little atopic antigens or allergens can immediately activate type 1 hypersensitivity, this is called as

A

general anaphylaxis

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36
Q

upon injection of
antigen into the skin of a sensitized animal, a local
anaphylactic reaction will occur within a few minutes.

A

Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis

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37
Q

Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is composed of what signs and symptoms

A

swelling and redness – a wheal and
flare reaction

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38
Q

Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is known for what reaction

A

wheal and flare reaction

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39
Q

It occurs when serum is transferred from an
allergic individual to a non-allergic individual, and
then the second individual is challenged with
specific antigen

A

Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis

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40
Q

is the reason why scientist were able to find out that the most immediate type of hypersensitivity is the type 1 is because of __

A

Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis

41
Q

Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is Done by 2 scientists named ___ and ___

A

Carl Wilhelm
Prausnitz and Heinz Kustner

42
Q

in Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis , which serum or who’s the one being allergic to fish and who’s the one got the injection

A

Kustner was allergic to fish and was
injected to Prausnitz,

43
Q

Etiologic Agents of type 1 hypersensitivty

A

o Venom from bees, wasps, hornets
o Food allergies
o Drugs
o Latex

44
Q

Clinical States of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

o Asthma
o Eczema
o Anaphylactic shock
o Helminthic infection

45
Q

found throughout the body, they
are most prominent in connective tissue, the
skin, the upper and lower respiratory tract, and
the gastrointestinal tract.

A

mast cells

46
Q

These cells contain numerous cytoplasmic
granules that are enclosed by a bilayered
membrane.

A

mast cells

47
Q

_____, in mast cells, which comprises approximately 10% of the total weight of granular constituents, is found in 10 times greater supply per cell than in
basophils.

A

Histamine

48
Q

In the presence of IgE, the number of receptors
has been found to increase, indicating a possible
mechanism of upregulation during an allergic
reaction.

A

Basophils

49
Q

MEDIATORS RELEASE FROM GRANULES

A

Preformed Mediators (Primary)
Newly Synthesized Mediators (Secondary)

50
Q

Preformed Mediators (Primary)

A

histamine, heparin, eosinophil chemotactic factor of
anaphylaxis (ECF-A), neutrophil chemotactic factor,
and proteases.

51
Q

In addition to immediate release of preformed
mediators, mast cells and basophils are triggered to
synthesize certain other reactants from the breakdown
of phospholipids in the cell membrane.

These products are responsible for a ___ seen within 6 to 8 hours after exposure to antigen.

A

late phase allergic reaction

52
Q

Newly formed mediators include

A

platelet activating
factor (PAF); prostaglandin (PG) D2; leukotrienes (LT),
B4, C4, D4, and E4); and cytokines

53
Q

The platelet activating factor that we have is the ___

A

thromboxane A2.

54
Q

__ and ___ are mainly for smooth muscle contraction

A

Histamine and heparin

55
Q

in inflammaton, the first thing to happen is the __

A

vasodilation

56
Q

TESTING FOR IMMEDIATE HYPERSENSITIVITY

A

in vivo and in vitro

57
Q

___ methods involve direct skin testing, which is the
least expensive and most specific type of testing.

A

In vivo

58
Q

In ___, or a prick
test, a small drop of material is injected into the skin at
a single point

A

cutaneous testing

59
Q

in in vivo methos, __, and ___ are the two skin
tests most often used.

A

Cutaneous and the intradermal testing

60
Q

in cutaneous testing, After how many minutes minutes, the spot is examined, and the
reaction is recorded.

A

15 mns

61
Q

A positive reaction for cutaneous testing is formation of a wheal that is __- mm greater in diameter than the negative control.

A

3 mm

62
Q

Most likely ang ginagamit as negative control is
the ___ and then the positive control would be the ___.

A

saline; histamine

63
Q

use a greater amount of antigen
and are more sensitive than cutaneous testing.

A

Intradermal testing

64
Q

They are usually performed only if prick tests are
negative and allergy is still suspected.

A

Intradermal testing

65
Q

in intradermal testing, A 1 mL tuberculin syringe is used to administer ml of test solution between layers of the skin

A

0.01 to 0.05 mL

66
Q

in intradermal testing, The test allergen is diluted __- times more
than the solution used for cutaneous testing.

A

100 to 1000 times

67
Q

in intradermal testing, After 15 to 20 minutes, the site is inspected for
__- formation.

A

erythema and wheal formation

68
Q

in intradermal testing, A wheal __- mm greater than the negative control is
considered a positive test.

A

3 mm

69
Q

We are dealing with the totality of the IgE and specific antigen that could bind to IgE.

A

IN VITRO METHODS - TOTAL AND SPECIFIC IgE

70
Q

an invitro method that – measures total IgE

A

Radio Immunosorbent Test (RIST)

71
Q

Uses radiolabeled IgE to compete with patient IgE for binding sites on a solid phase coated with anti IgE.

A

Competitive RIST

72
Q

an invitro method that measures antigen specific IgE.

A

Radioallergosorbent assay (RAST)

73
Q

It measures the antigen specific to the IgE

A

Radioallergosorbent assay (RAST)

74
Q

Principles of the test for invitro methods remain the same, but newer
testing methods involve the use of __- or ___ rather than radioactivity.

A

enzyme or
fluorescent labels

75
Q

RIST has largely been replaced by noncompetitive
solid-phase immunoassays due to the expense and
difficulty of working with ___.

A

radioactivity

76
Q

Antihuman IgE is bound to a solid phase such as
___, ___, ___

A

cellulose, paper disk, or a microtiter well

77
Q

is a noncompetitive
solid phase immunoassay in which the solid phase is
coated with specific allergen and reacted with patient
serum.

A

Allergen – specific IgE testing

78
Q

The type II
hypersensitivity is also known as the ___

A

cytotoxic
hypersensitivity.

79
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity

They are triggered by __

A

antigens found on cell surfaces.

80
Q

in type 2 hypersensitvity

Antibody coats cellular surfaces and promotes
phagocytosis by both __ and ___

A

opsonization and activation of the
complement cascade

81
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity, Antibodies can induce complement-dependent lysis or
engage macrophages and polymorphonuclear cells which
have Fc and complement receptors.

this process is called

A

cytolysis

82
Q

this reaction is the (Incompatibility of blood
transfusion, HDN - problem with the Rh of the mother
and the infant leading to Type II hypersensitivity

A

transfusion reaction

83
Q

a type of anemia that is the type 2 hypersensitivity is invoolved

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

84
Q

type 2 sensitivity

Drug-induced - Medications involved. (___) It is
seen within the skin similar to petechiae but larger.

A

Purpura

85
Q

the difference of type 2 and type 3 are, , the antigen is
___.

A

soluble

86
Q

When soluble antigen combines with antibody, complexes
are formed that precipitate out of the serum

whcih hypersensitivity is involved?

A

type 3 hypersensitiivty

87
Q

Arthus Reaction

Demonstrated by __ in 1903.

A

Maurice Arthus

88
Q

A classic example of localized Type III Hypersensitivity,
localized meaning we are dealing with a specific area.

A

Arthus Reaction

89
Q

The inflammatory response is caused by antigen–antibody
combination and subsequent formation of immune
complexes that deposit in small dermal blood vessels.

A

Arthus Reaction

90
Q

Complement is fixed, attracting neutrophils and causing
aggregation of platelets

A

Arthus Reaction

91
Q

Results from passive immunization with animal serum,
usually horse or bovine, used to treat such infections as
diphtheria, tetanus, and gangrene.

A

Serum Sickness

92
Q

for serumsickness or passive immunization,

Generalized symptoms appear in __ days after
injection of the animal serum and include headache, fever,
nausea, vomiting, joint pain, rashes, and lymphadenopathy.

A

7 to 21

93
Q

serum sickness

Recovery takes between __ and __ days.

A

7 and 30

94
Q

High levels of antibody form immune complexes that
deposit in the tissues.

A

serum sickness

95
Q

Usually this is a benign and self-limiting disease.

A

serum sickness

96
Q

type 4 hypers.

There is an initial sensitization phase of ___weeks that
takes place after the first contact with antigen.

A

1 to 2

97
Q

in type 4 hypers

Then, upon subsequent exposure to the antigen, symptoms
typically take several hours to develop and reach a peak ___ hours after exposure to antigen

A

48
to 72

98
Q

type 4 hypers, The reaction cannot be transferred from one animal to
another by means of serum, but only through transfer of ___

A

T lymphocytes

99
Q

different clinical states of Type IV
hypersensitivity?

A

Contact dermatitis,
Tuberculin skintest
Pneumonitis.

100
Q
A

IMSE LEC (15 decks)

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