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IMSE LEC > finals - bacterial infection > Flashcards

finals - bacterial infection Flashcards

1
Q

meaning it is naturally occurring wherein
it has a standardize response to all
antigens

A

innate immunity

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2
Q

This type of immunity lacks memory.

A

innate or natural immunity

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3
Q

One of the examples of
innate immunity is the ___ and ___ materials that we have in
our body

A

exogenous and
endogenous

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4
Q

an example of endogenous innate immunity

A

hydrochloric acid

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5
Q

it serves as a prevention when
it comes to the growth of the bacteria
during the digestion process

A

hydrochloric acid

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6
Q

It is an enzymes that we can found in
many secretions such as tears and
saliva

A

lysozomes

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7
Q

example of soluble innate components that protect us from the pathogenic bacteria and these are the ___

A

interleukins (IL), prostaglandins, and leukotrienes which causes fever

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8
Q

examples of acute phase reactants

A

C-reactive protein, haptoglobin, and
ceruloplasmin

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9
Q

it works by either coating the bacteria or
removing the substances that might promote bacterial growth

A

acute phase reactants (APR)

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10
Q

are mainly involved in inflammation - INCREASES

A

acute phase reactants

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11
Q

which polypeptide substance works and influences acute phase reactant

A

cytokines

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12
Q

The phagocytic process is
enhanced by the activation of the ___

A

alternative
complement cascade

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13
Q

how do complement cascade activates and helps to enhance phagocytosis?

A

triggered by the microbial cell walls or
other products of the microbial
metabolism.

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14
Q

adaptive or acquired
immunity it is also known as the
“_____”

A

specific immunity

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15
Q

it is not present at
birth but they have a diverse response
for each antigen.

A

adaptive or acquired immunity

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16
Q

Secondary response is better
than primary response because it has a
____

A

memory b cells.

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17
Q

antibody production is specifically against ____

A

exotoxins and other secreted bacterial products

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18
Q

after neutralizing the exotoxins and forming of antibodies, it will activate the ____

A

complement pathway

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19
Q

____ bind to a particular bacteria and
they will eliminate those immune complexes. It is also
associated with extracellular bacteria

A

Anti-exotoxin antibodies

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20
Q

Eliminate immune complexes kapag nag meet ang anti exotoxin antibody and the bacterial infections through
___.

A

Neutralization

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21
Q

once the classical pathway is activated, the new branch of immune response will incur ____

A

cell-mediated immunity

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22
Q

Cell-mediated Immunity: mainly responsible to those intracellular bacteria such as _____
.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
Listeria monocytogenes,
Rickettsial species, and
Legionella pneumophilia

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23
Q

3 MAIN MECHANISMS FOR WAS OF IN BACTERIA IN INHIBITING OR
OPPOSING IMMUNE RESPONSE

A
  1. Avoiding Antibody
  2. Blocking Phagocytosis
  3. Inactivating the Complement Cascade
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24
Q

ways to avoid antibody by bacteria

A

genetic mutation
down-regulation of MHC

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25
Q

Some bacteria can alter their bacterial antigen as a result of genetic
mutation in effect wherein antibody is unable to bind to epitope.

A

genetic mutation

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26
Q

Nakakapabigay ng new bacterial antigen

A

genetic mutation

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27
Q

genus that can perform genetic mutation

A

S. agalactiae, S. pyogenes

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28
Q

MHC mechanism:

A

they are able to accept and reject.

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29
Q

MHC main feature:

A

they are able for antigen recognition (Class I and
Class II but not Class III kasi it cannot express on the cell surface)

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30
Q

___ are
all examples of bacteria that can release IgA (IgA2)

A

N. gonorrhoeae, H. influenzae, and Streptococcus sanguinis

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31
Q

factors that can inhibit phagocytosis

A

Chemotactic factor, adhesion,
digestion

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32
Q

by blocking phagocytosis, the bacteria are blocking ___

A

adhesion and digestion

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33
Q

in blocking phagocytosis of bacteria, it inhibits the formation of ___

A

phagocytosis

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34
Q

Inhibit the formation of phagolysosome.

A

blocking phagocytosis

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35
Q

this genus specie inhibit the release of chemotactic factors
that would bring phagocytic cells to the area.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae:

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36
Q

cell walls of S. pyogenes produce and ___that interferes with adhesion to the phagocytic cell.

A

M protein

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37
Q

what is the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

M protein

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38
Q

the _____ type of bacteria tend to block phagocytosis

A

encapsulated bacteria

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39
Q

what are the example of encapsulated bacteria

A

▪ Neisseria meningitidis
▪ Streptococcus pneumoniae
▪ Yersinia pestis
▪ Haemophilus influenzae
▪ Klebsiella pneumoniae

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40
Q

these microorganisms block phagocytosis by
blocking fusion of lysosomal
granules with phagosomes after being engulfed by the phagocyte
(phagolysosome).

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium. leprae, and Salmonella spp:

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41
Q

blocking phagocytosis

Resisting digestion involves the___ products after the
bacteria are phagocytized

A

production of extracellular

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42
Q

Resisting digestion involves the production of extracellular products after the bacteria are phagocytized. The primary effect is the release of ___ into the cytoplasm of the phagocytic cells, subsequently killing the WBC.

A

lysosomal contents

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43
Q

extracellular products of S. aureus

A

Leukocidin

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44
Q

extracellular products of L. monocytogenes

A

Listeriolysin

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45
Q

extracellular products of S. pyogenes

A

Streptolysin

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46
Q

Leukocidinis produced by

A

staphylococcus aureus

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47
Q

Listeriolysin is produced by

A

listeria monocytogenes

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48
Q

streptolysin is produced by

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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49
Q

in inactivating complement cascade

____ bacteria: do not bind the complement component C3b
(important in enhancing phagocytosis)

A

Encapsulated

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50
Q

acts as opsonin and takes place in alternative and lectin pathway.

A

C3b

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51
Q

process in which helps to facilitate the eating in the
process of phagocytosis.

A

opsonins

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52
Q

____ are gram-positive spherical, ovoid, or lance-shaped organisms
that are catalase negative and are often seen in pairs or chains in gram stain.

A

Streptococci

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53
Q

the group which streptococci is associated into is the ___ group

A

lancefield group

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54
Q

Streptococci are divided into groups or ____ on the
basis of certain cell wall components.

A

serotypes/serogroups

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55
Q

what are the group A streptococci

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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56
Q

what are the group B i n streps

A

streptococcus agalactiae

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57
Q

group c streptococcus

A

Streptococcus equisimilis,
Streptococcus equi,
Streptococcus zooepidimicus, and Streptococcus dysagalatiae

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58
Q

group d streptococcus

A

Streptococcus bovis,
Enterococcus faecalis,
Enterococcus faecium

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59
Q

streptococcus

Outermost cell wall components contains two major protein known as the__n

A

M and T protein

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60
Q

these determine the serotype/serogroup of the streptococcus
spp.

A

M and T protein

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61
Q

Virulence factor of streptococcus

A

M and T protein

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62
Q

Interior to the protein layer is the_____ that divides streptococci into 20 defined groups, designated A through H and K through V.

A

group-specific carbohydrates

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63
Q

is one of the most common and ubiquitous
pathogenic bacteria and causes a variety of infection.

which group of strep is it?

A

group A Streptococcus pyogenes

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64
Q

is the major virulence factor of the group A strep

A

M protein

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65
Q

in streptococcus pyogenes,

Additional virulence factors include ____, proteins
excreted by bacterial cells as they metabolize during the course of
streptococcal infections.

A

exoantigens or exotoxins

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66
Q

→ responsible for the rash seen
in scarlet fever and also appear to contribute to pathogenicity.

A

Pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, and C

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67
Q

Production of __ also add to its virulence

A

exoenzymes

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68
Q

Production of exoenzymes also add to its virulence factor.

These include:

A

Streptolysin O, deoxyribonuclease B (DNase B), hyaluronidase,
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotidase (NADase), and streptokinase.

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69
Q

Detection of Streptococcal Antibodies

The most important antibodies are __

A

▪ Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
▪ Anti-DNase B
▪ Anti-NADase
▪ Anti-hyaluronidase

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70
Q

Presence of these antibodies is an indication of Group A streptococcus
infection and is seen in many conditions/disease like:

A

▪ Scarlet fever
▪ Acute glomerulonephritis
▪ Acute Rheumatic Fever
▪ Necrotizing fasciitis
▪ Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

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71
Q

Sequelae of streptococcus:

A

Rheumatic Fever
Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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72
Q

Anti-Streptolysin O Agglutination Test / ASO Agglutination Test

Employs the principle of ___ Agglutination

A

Passive or Indirect

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73
Q

what is the significant titer in ASO or anti streptolysin O agglutination test

A

240 todd unit or 240 IU/mL (Adults);

320 Todd units or 320 IU/mL (Child)

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74
Q

ASO was been Replaced by __

A

Nephelometry

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75
Q

Automated procedure that provides rapid, quantitative measurement
of ASO titers

A

Nephelometry

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76
Q

give what is happening in the nephelometry of streptococcus testing

A

Reacts with patients Anti-Streptolysin →
forms immune
complex (precipitation) →
resulting in an increased light scatter that the instrument converts to peak rate signal.

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77
Q

what is the serological reaction that occurs in nephelometry of streptococcus testing

A

precipitation

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78
Q

what is the antigen reagent in streptococcus nephelometry

A

streptolysin

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79
Q

is conducted More of sequelae in streptococcus

A

Anti-DNase B Testing

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80
Q

indicative of Streptococcal glomerulonephritis and rheumatic
fever

A

Anti-DNase

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81
Q

Anti-DNase can also be detected in __

A

acute rheumatoid fever

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82
Q

what is the normal titer in Anti-DNase B testing

A

for children between the ages of 2 and 12 years

range from 240 to 640 units

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83
Q

the range for anti dnase b testing in strep is always based on children becoz?

A

they are the target host of streptococcis

84
Q

in strep what is the example of Slide Agglutination Test

A

Streptozyme Testing

85
Q

what is the principle of streptozyme testing?

A

Passive in Agglutination

86
Q

In strep

Can detect multi-enzyme therefore it is non-specific.

A

Streptozyme Testing

87
Q

Streptozyme Testing uses _____ which is attached to the exoenzyme of streptococcus

A

formalin, aldehyde fix, sheep RBC

88
Q

Detects antibody to streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and
NADase

A

Streptozyme Testing

89
Q

This gram-negative, microaerophilic spiral bacterium is the major cause of
both gastric and duodenal ulcers

A

H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI)

90
Q

H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI) can survive the acid in the stomach because ___

A

it converts urea to ammonia which will surround the bacteria and protects it from acid.

remember that ammonia is alkaline

91
Q

Produces Urease enzyme

A

H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI)

92
Q

If untreated, H.pylori infection will last for the patient’s life and may
lead to ___

A

gastric carcinoma

93
Q

Detection of helicobacter pylori

A

Cultivation,
histologically examining gastric biopsy tissue,
performing a urease biopsy test,
urea breath testing,
enzyme immunoassays for bacterial antigens in the feces,
molecular tests for H. pylori DNA, and antibody tests.

94
Q

method of choice for the Detection of antibodies in Helicobacter pylori

A

ELISA - enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

(more accurate and
specific).

95
Q

what immunoglobulin is related to the chronic stage of ulcer in H pylori

A

IgG

96
Q

what immunoglobulin is related to the acute ir early stage of ulcer in H pylori

A

IgM

97
Q

___remains the most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the
United States.

A

Syphilis

98
Q

United States.
The causative agent of syphilis is __

A

Treponema pallidum subspecie pallidum

99
Q

Organism involved in syphilis are the Spirochetes (not specific to Treponema. It is also associated with __ and ___)

A

Leptospira and; borella

100
Q

a sexually transmitted infection that is a Member of the family Spirochaetaceae

A

syphilis

101
Q

a family member of spirochaetaceae

___, the agent of yaws

A

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

102
Q

a family member of spirochaetaceae

___, the cause of nonvenereal
endemic syphilis

A

T. pallidum subspecies endemicum

103
Q

a family member of spirochaetaceae

___, the agent of pinta

A

T. carateum

104
Q

mode of transmission of syphilis

A

▪ Direct contact
They can be easily destroyed by heat and cold.
▪ Principal MOT: Sexual contact
▪ Congenital infections can also occur during pregnancy. Since merong maternal IgG na pwedeng magcross sa placenta.

105
Q

what is the principal mode of transmission of syphilis

A

sex

106
Q

Primary Stage of Syphilis

A

1st stage

107
Q

a lesion formed at the 1st or primary stage of syphilis

A

chancre

108
Q

chancre are lesions that can be observed after how many days of infection?

A

10-90 days

109
Q

1st stage (Primary Stage of Syphilis)

aka __

A

primary syphilis

110
Q

1st stage (Primary Stage of Syphilis)

May give positive result on ___

A

Direct detection (microscopic, IFA)

111
Q

__microscopy is used to observe spirochetes.

A

Darkfield

112
Q

stages of syphilis

A

primary or 1st
secondary or 2nd
latent
tertiary or third

113
Q

Symptoms of the secondary stage include

A

generalized lymphadenopathy,
or enlargement of the lymph nodes;
malaise, fever, pharyngitis,
and a rash on the skin and mucous membranes.

114
Q

this stage still has chancre and dessimination of microorganism

A

secondar or 2nd stage

115
Q

what stage of syphilis wherein
Patients are noninfectious at this time, with the exception of pregnant
women, who can pass the disease on to the fetus even if they exhibit
no symptoms.

A

latent stage/period

116
Q

Vertical transmission of the disease (syphilis)

A

latent stage

117
Q

a stage of syphilis wherein there’s Disappearance of the clinical signs and symptoms

A

latent stage

118
Q

This range appears anywhere from months to years after secondary
infection of syphilis

A

third stage

119
Q

Typically, this occurs most often between 10 and 30 years following
the secondary stage.

A

third stage

120
Q

Super payat na ng patients, sugat sugat na ang katawan within the
bones and subcutaneous tissues. Dito na lumalabas ang clinical
manifestations of syphilis

A

third stage

121
Q

Tertiary syphilis has three major manifestions:

A

Gummas syphilis or gummatous syphilis
Cardiovascular disease
Neurosyphilis

122
Q

granulomatous within the tissue. Can be found in the bones
and subcutaneous tissues. May scales na sa balat.

A

gummas syphilis or gummatous syphilis

123
Q

Traditional laboratory tests for syphilis can be classified into three main types:

A

Direct detection of Spirochetes:
nontreponemal serological test:
Treponemal serological test:

124
Q

what is under the Direct detection of Spirochetes:

A

o Darkfield microscope
o Direct immunofluorescence assay

125
Q

Nontreponemal serological test: which detect antibody to ____

A

cardiolipin

126
Q

which detect antibody to
cardiolipin, have traditionally been used to screen for syphilis
because of their high sensitivity and ease of performance.

A

Nontreponemal serological test:

127
Q

Specific type of precipitation that
occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations.

A

flocculation

128
Q

non treponemal serological test is based on what type of precipitation reactio

A

flocculation

129
Q

Examples of Non-Treponemal Test:

A

VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory), RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin),
TRUST (Toluidine Red Unheated Serum Test),
USR (Unheated Serum Reagin Test),
RST (Reagin Screen Test).

130
Q

Nontreponemal serological test:

prone for ___ reaction

A

false positive reaction

131
Q

most used non treponemal test

A

VDRL and RPR

132
Q

is an antibody substances which are primarily
produced by the spirochetes within the serum or plasma of
the individual.

A

Reagin

133
Q

Treponemal Serological Test

A

FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test

134
Q

Manner of reporting of non treponemal test

A

reactive and non-reactive.

135
Q

Is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation test for serum and spinal
fluid

A

VDRL - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory

136
Q

for vdrl

The reagent (antigen) is consists of:
___

A

0.03% cardiolipin,
0.9% cholesterol, and
0.21% lecithin

137
Q

how to process vdrl

A

VDRL antigen via a dropper to a buffered saline solution while continuously
rotating on a flat surface

138
Q

vdrl

it is sensitive so __ and ___of the mechanical rotator should be considered

A

timing and speed

139
Q

For serum vdrl

speed
time

A

speed - 180 rpm
time - 4 mns

read microscopically (LPO) for flocculation

140
Q

For csf vdrl

speed
time

A

For csf vdrl

speed - 180 rpm
time - 8 mns

then read microscopically (LPO) for flocculation

141
Q

vdrl - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory

Tests must be performed at a room temperature within the range of ___

A

23°C at 29°C.

142
Q

Recommended volume of serum:___ for VDRL

A

0.05 mL or 50 uL

143
Q

Diameter if positive in VDRL: ___ in diameter

A

14 mm

144
Q

In vdrl - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory

Serum must be inactivated, the serum heating is about ____ * C for ___ minutes.

A

56°C for 30

145
Q

All sera with reactive or weakly reactive results must be tested using the
quantitative slide test, in which two-fold dilutions of serum ranging from ___

A

1-2 to 1:32 are initially used.

146
Q

Highest dilution should be reported in VDRL (Venereal disease research laboratory)

true or false

A

true

147
Q

a syringe which has a polymer tip that creates a leak-free seal for both liquids and gases

A

hamilton syringe

148
Q

Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses ___ gauge needle without bevel.

A

18

149
Q

Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses 18 gauge needle without bevel.

It can deliver ___ drops per mL of the antigen suspension.

A

1 out of 60

150
Q

Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses ___ gauge needle without bevel

A

19

151
Q

Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses 19 gauge needle without bevel.

___ drops per mL

A

7

152
Q

CSF VDRL: uses ____ gauge needle

A

21 or 22

153
Q

CSF VDRL: uses 21 or 22 gauge needle.

___ drops per mL would be delivered.

A

100

154
Q

grading of flocculation

A

reactive
weakly reactive
non reactive

155
Q

describe the flocculation for REACTIVE VDRL

A

medium to large clumps

156
Q

describe the flocculation for WEAKLY REACTIVE VDRL

A

small clumps

157
Q

describe the flocculation for NON REACTIVE VDRL

A

No clumps or slight roughness

158
Q

Modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic agglutination.

A

RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin

159
Q

The cardiolipin-containing antigen suspension is bound to charcoal particles,
which make the test easier to read.

A

RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin

160
Q

describe the flocculation of RPR
RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin

A

Visible black floccules.

161
Q

Do we still need to heat or activate serum in - RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin

A

Nope

162
Q

RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin

We have to take note the
inactivation of the complement by ___

A

adding EDTA, thimerosal, and choline
chloride.

163
Q

amount of sample for RPR - rapid plasma reagin

A

0.05 ml or 50ul

164
Q

syringe used for RPR - rapid plasma reagin

A

20 gauge needle without the bevel is used.

60 drops per mL

165
Q

time and speed for RPR - rapid plasma reagin

A

speed - 100 rpm
time - 8 mns

166
Q

an indirect fluorescent antibody test.

A

FTA-ABS

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test

167
Q

type of serum used for treponemal serologic test

A

Inactivated serum is used

168
Q

a dilution of heat inactivated patient serum in incubated with a sorbent consisting of an extract of nonpathogenic treponemes
(Reiter strain)

A

FTA-ABS

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test

169
Q

a non pathogenic treponemes is used for
FTA-ABS

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test

A

Reiter strain

170
Q

Reiter strain is used to ____

A

to prevent cross reaction with treponema pallidum subspecie pallidum

171
Q

slides used for FTA- ABS have ____

Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test

A

Nichols strain of T. pallidum

172
Q

FTA - ABS

do we need to perform washing for the mixture?

A

yes

173
Q

in fta - abs

___ is added to each well.

A

Antibody conjugate (antihuman immunoglobulin conjugated with
fluorescein)

174
Q

in fta abs

___ is applied, and coverslips are placed on the slides

A

Mounting medium

175
Q

fta abs is Read on ___ microscope.

A

fluorescence

176
Q

agglutination test for FTA ABS is based on what principle

A

passive hemagglutination test

177
Q

short rode, or coccobacilli, that are obligate,
intracellular, gram-negative bacteria.

A

Rickettsiae and Coxiella

178
Q

Rickettsiae and Coxiella

Considered as vector borne disease
except for ____

A

Coxiella burnetii

179
Q

Coxiella burnetii MOT

A

inhalation and ingestion of contaminated
milk)

180
Q

Rickettsiae has two distinct groups

A

spotted fever group (SFG)
and
Typhus group (TG) live

181
Q

RICKETTSIAL INFECTIONS

Vector Borne Disease - transmitted through a ___.

A

fleas/lice/mites/tick bite

182
Q

members of spotted fever group

A

Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia japonica
Rickettsia felis
Rickettsia akari

183
Q

members of Typhus group

A

Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia prowazekii

184
Q

the typhus group’s geographical distribution

A

worldwide

185
Q

disease association of Rickettsia rickettsii

A

rocky mountain spotted fever

186
Q

rocky mountain spootted fever is transmitted tru

A

tick bite

187
Q

Rickettsia japonica’s disease association

A

japanese spotted fever

188
Q

MOT of japanese spotted fever

A

tick bite

189
Q

Rickettsia felis disease

A

flea borne spotted fever

190
Q

Rickettsia felis MOT

A

unknown

191
Q

Rickettsia akari disease

A

Rickettsial pox

192
Q

Rickettsia akari MOT

A

mite bite

193
Q
A
193
Q

Rickettsia typhi disease

A

endemic typhus

194
Q

Rickettsia typhi MOT

A

flea

195
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii disease

A

epidemic typhus

196
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii MOT

A

louse feces

197
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii another disease

A

recrudescent typhus

198
Q

MOT of recrudescent typhus

A

years after epidemic typhus

199
Q

R. prowazekii – Louse borne typhus. There is a reactivation from the original infection
this would be ___

A

Brill-Zinsser disease

200
Q

Serological Diagnosis for ricketssia

A

Weil-Felix Agglutination test

201
Q

a non-specific test. An agglutination test
based on cross-reactivity of Rickettsial antibodies

A

Weil-Felix Agglutination test

202
Q

“O”
antigens of the OX-19 and OX-2 strains of Proteus ___

A

vulgaris

203
Q

o “O”
antigens of the OX-K strain of Proteus ___

A

mirabilis

204
Q

Proteus ang antigen suspension because of the cross-reactive
mechanism and the same ___

A

antigen determinants

205
Q

More sensitive and specific test for rickettsia

A

IFA,
micro immunofluorescent assay (micro-IFA),
immunoperoxidase assays (IPA),
ELISA and Immunoblot assays (IBA).

206
Q

Weil-Felix Agglutination test

1 is to ___ is the titer.

A

160

IMSE LEC (15 decks)

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