finals - viral infection Flashcards

1
Q

Non-infectious Possible causes of hepatitis

A

drugs, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infectious causes of hepatitis

A

viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

___ is a systemic disease with primary inflammation of the liver by any one of a heterogenous
group of hepatotropic viruses

A

Viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hepatitis A belongs to the family of
____

A

picornaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hepatitis B came from a family of

A

→ hepadnaviridae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hepatitis C →

A

→ Flaviviridae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hepatitis D →

A

Deltaviridae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hepatitis E →

A

Hepeviridae family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Since we are dealing with viral hepatitis, we can classify it if it is a ___ or ____.

A

primary or secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the most common cause of hepatitis

A

primary hepatitis - cause by 5 viral hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____ that can also cause liver inflammation
include HSV, CMV, EBV, yellow fever, dengue virus, west nile virus, Japanese encephalitis virus and even rubella.

A

Secondary hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a hepatitis which come from a certain condition

A

secondary hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CLINICAL FINDINGS OF VIRAL HEPATITIS

A
  • Fever
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

yellowish discoloration of the skin, sclera of the eyes, mucous membrane.

A

Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes jaundice?

A

liver is affected causing elevated bilirubin in the blood stream depositing in different parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal bilirubin concentration
is about _____

A

1-1.5 milligrams per deciliter (1-1.5 mg/dL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

< 3.0 mg/dL means

A

hyper bilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is a type of brain damage that can
result from high levels of bilirubin in a baby’s blood.

A

KERNICTERUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what will happen to urine and feces if there’s elevated bilirubin?

A

dark urine and pale feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

other marker to consider if there’s hepatitis

A

liver enzymes (ALT or SGPT) - (Alanine Aminotransferase

AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase
old term will be the SGOT),

ALP (Alkaline Phosphatase)

LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase),

cholinesterase,

GGT (Gamma glutamyl transferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hepatitis A other name

A

infectious hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

among the liver enzymes, the most associated is the ___

A

ALT - alanine transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hepatitis that can be transmitted feco orally

A

T - AE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most commonly encountered lab acquired infction

A

hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

coinfection of hepatitis B

A

hepatitis D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a hepatitis that is parenterally transmitted.

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It is also known as
the NON-A and NON-B HEPATITIS.

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

diffrence of hepa b to hepa c

A

Hepatitis C has no vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

enterically transmitted. It is part of a viral
hepatitis.

A

Hepatitis E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HEPATITIS A VIRUS

family

A

Picornaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

HEPATITIS A VIRUS genus

A

Genus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Morphology of hepa A

A

Naked, Icosahedral, linear, SS RNA, and
28nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Other names of hepa A

A

Infectious hepatitis,
Enterovirus 72.
Short incubation hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hepa A MOT

A

fecal oral route (principal mode of
transmission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what hepatitis we can acquired upon eating isaw isaw

A

hepa A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

is one of the most common causes of
gastroenteritis among children

A

Hepatitis A i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

the other way kung pano natratransmit ang
hepatitis A virus meron tayong tinatawag na
person to person transmission during ___

A

blood
transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Incubation Period of hepa A

A

10-50 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Treatment for hepa A

A

Supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a self limiting hepatitis

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Prevention/vaccine for hepatitis A

A

Inactivated vaccine (Twinrix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how many doses of Inactivated vaccine (Twinrix) is administered for hepatitis A

A

2 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is included in the supportive care for hepa A

A

bed rest, nutritional support and medication for fever, nausea and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

as a preventive measures, since hepa A is can be acquired tru conatminated water and food :

A

Treatment of water
hygienic measures
passive immunization
Prophylactic administration - immune globulin using pooled plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a process wherein a blood sample is collected from patients that used to have hepatitis and use it as an intervention

A

plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

the plasma collected by plasmapheresis must be administered within how many weeks of exposure

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

are shed in the feces
of infected individuals during the incubation and the early acute stage of infection

A

Hepatitis A virus antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

HAV will decline once ___

A

once the symptoms subside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

is HAV a clinically useful indicator of the disease

A

nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the useful way to detect and diagnose the hepatitis A infection

A

serological test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

is detectable at onset of clinical
symptoms and it will decline to undetectable levels within 6 months.

A

IgM anti-HAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

indicates that the patient has developed immmunity to the virus, EITHER THROUGH
VACCINATION OR NATURAL INFECTION.

A

total anti HAV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Total anti-HAV → also detects IgM anti
HAV but predominantly it detects the which Immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

HEPATITIS B VIRUS family

A

hepadnaviridae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

HEPATITIS B VIRUS gensu

A

Orthohepadnavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

HEPATITIS B VIRUS morphology

A

o Enveloped, icosahedral, circular, DS DNA,
o 42 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Other names of hepa B

A

o Serum hepatitis, Dane particle, long incubation
hepatitis
o Australian hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

We have 8 genotypes designated for Hepa B which has been identified based on the nucleotide sequence differences in their genomes.

A

A, B, C, D, ,E, F, G, H

59
Q

Transmission of Hepatitis B

A

Parenteral, perinatal, sexual intercourse

60
Q

Incubation Period of Hepatitis B

A

40-180 days

61
Q

Treatment of hepatitis B

A

Supportive care, interferon, lamivudine, liver
transplant, HB immunoglobulin

62
Q

Prevention/Vaccine

how many doses for hepatitis B of inactivated vaccine

A

3 doses

63
Q

→ vertical transmission from mother to infant.

A

perinatal

64
Q

serological marker for perinatal transmission signifyng that the mother is positive with Hepa B

A

HBE antigen

65
Q

a passive immunization we can administer to a mother acquiring hepa B and positive to HBE antigen

A

HB Ig - HB immunoglobulin.

66
Q

the first serologic marker to appear in blood after infection

A

hepa B surface antigen

67
Q

___ indicates viral replication and infectivity.

A

HBeAg

68
Q

___ is a soluble protein found only in HBeAg-positive serum.

A

HBeAg

69
Q

Persistence of HBeAg in serum beyond ___ indicates an increased likelihood of chronic hepatitis

A

3 months

70
Q

A.K.A HB core antigen

A

HBcAg

71
Q

Not detectable in serum because of the viral envelope that mask

  • Detectable only through biopsy of the infected liver
A

HBcAg

72
Q

____ appears shortly after HBsAg is detect (HBcAg alone does not appear in serum)

A

IgM anti-HBc

73
Q

IgM anti-Hbc Can persist for ____months or longer

A

3-6

74
Q

Indicator of current or recent infections which is useful in
detecting infection during window period

A

Anti-HBc:

75
Q

-also appears during acute hepatitis B but IgG anti-persists indefinitely.

A

IgG antiHBc

76
Q

indicates that the patient is recovering from HBV infection.

A

Anti-HBe:

77
Q

Disappearance of HBsAg and the appearance of _____signals recovery from HBV infection, non-infectivity.

A

Anti-HBs (HBsAb):

78
Q

Persist for years and provide protective immunity

A

Anti-HBs (HBsAb)

79
Q

Produced after Hepatitis B vaccine consisting of recombinant Hepatitis B surface antigen produced from genetically engineered yeast

A

Anti-HBs (HBsAb):

80
Q

HEPATITIS C VIRUS fam

A

Flaviviridae

81
Q

Genus of hepa C

A

Hepacivirus

82
Q

Morphology of hepa C

A

o Enveloped, icosahedral, linear, ss RNA
o 45 nm

83
Q

Other names of hepatitis C

A

Non-A non-B hepatitis

84
Q

Transmission of hepatitis C

A

Parenteral, sexual intercourse

85
Q

Incubation period of hepatitis C

A

30-50 days

86
Q

Treatment for hepatitis C

A

Supportive care, Interferon, Ribavirin, Liver
transplant

87
Q

Preventive/Vaccine for hepatitis C

A

No vaccine available

88
Q

HCV-Antibody – ___used to diagnose hepatitis C infection.

A

ELISA

89
Q

Not useful in the acute phase as it takes at least 4 weeks after infection before antibody appears.

A

HCV-Antibody

90
Q

May be used to diagnose HCV infection in the acute phase

A

HCV-RNA

91
Q

HCV-RNA is only used only tru

A

PCR - polymerase chain reaction

92
Q

an EIA for HCV antigen is available. It is used in the same capacity as HCV-RNA tests but is much easier to carry out.

A

HCV-Antigen

93
Q

HDV is considered to be a ___because it can propagate only in the presence of the hepatitis B virus (HBV).

A

subviral satellite

94
Q

Family of hepa D

A

Deltaviridae

95
Q

genus of hepa D

A

Deltavirus

96
Q

hepa D morp

A

o Enveloped, circular, ss RNA
o 37 nm

97
Q

other names of hepa D

A

Defective virus, delta hepatitis

98
Q

MOT of hepa D

A

o Parenteral, sexual intercourse
o Co-infection with Hepatitis B

99
Q

Incubation period of hepa D

A

o 15-150 days

100
Q

Treatment of hepa D

A

supportive care

101
Q

Prevention/Vaccine for hepa D

A

No vaccine but it helped when vaccinated with
HBV

102
Q

✓ + IgM and IgG Anti-HDV
✓ + HDV RNA
✓ + IgM anti-HBc
✓ - IgG anti-HBc

A

co infection

103
Q

✓ + IgM and IgG Anti-HDV
✓ + HDV RNA
✓ - IgM anti-HBc
✓ + IgG anti-HBc
HEPATITIS E VIRUS

A

super infection

104
Q

HEPATITIS D VIRUS fam

A

Hepeviridae

105
Q

HEPATITIS E VIRUS genus

A

Hepacivirus

106
Q

HEPATITIS E VIRUS is called before as

A

Caliciviridae

107
Q

Other Names of HEPATITIS E VIRU

A

Water Bourne Hepatitis

108
Q

Transmission of hepa E

A

Fecal-oral Route

109
Q

Incubation Period –of hepa E

A

2-9 weeks

110
Q

Treatment of hepa E

A

▪ Supportive care
▪ Self-Limiting

111
Q
  • Vaccine – for Hepa E
A

No vaccine

112
Q

Diagnosis for hepa E

A

▪ HEV Ag
▪ IgM Anti-HEV
▪ HEV RNA (PCR)

113
Q

It has been widely distributed worldwide,
specifically in the United States and Europe.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus I (HIV I)

114
Q

Family of hiv

A

Retroviridae

115
Q

Subfamily of hiv

A

Orthoretrovirinae

116
Q

genus of hiv

A

Lentivirus

117
Q

It is present in West Africa and it is less pathogenic compared with the HIV I. I.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus II (HIV II)

118
Q

Gag or group specific Ag is located in

A

necleocapsid

119
Q

Patient is either asymptomatic or may show
lymphadenopathy

A

Primary Stage

120
Q

enlargement of the lymph
nodes

A

Lymphadenopathy

121
Q

This state is known as the ARC (Aids-Related
Complex)

A

Intermediate Stage

122
Q

Quantitative T cell deficiencies with inverted CD4:CD8 ratio

A

Intermediate Stage

123
Q

2-10 yrs after initial infection

A

fina stage

124
Q

A syndrome of CD4 depletion resulting in opportunistic
infections and cancer suggestive of cell-mediated
immunity defects

A

final stage

125
Q

Normal value of CD4: ___per microliter

A

500-1,300

126
Q

Individuals with HIV progressing to AIDS: cd4 ____

A

< 200 microliters

127
Q

TESTS TO DETECT HIV ANTIBODY

A

screening and confirmatory

128
Q

most widely used screening test for
HIV antibodies

A

ELISA (INDIRECT)

129
Q

Screening Tests - TESTS TO DETECT HIV ANTIBODY

A
  1. ELISA (INDIRECT) - most widely used screening test for
    HIV antibodies
  2. ELISA (Competitive Assay)
  3. Slide Agglutination Tests (Passive Agglutination)
  4. RIA
130
Q

Confirmatory Tests for HIV

A
  1. WESTERN BLOT ASSAY - most widely used
    supplementary test for confirming reactive HIV
  2. ELISA Ab test
131
Q

most widely used
supplementary test for confirming reactive HIV

A

WESTERN BLOT ASSAY

132
Q
  1. ELISA Ab test
    ▪ (+) result
A

atleast 2 out of 3 antibodies.

Antibody against,
p24,gp41 and gp120 or gp160

133
Q

ELISA Ab test
(-) result

A

if no bands appear

134
Q

CDC GUIDELINES OF HIV REPORTING

A

2 positive elisa test and a positive western blot assay test if all are positive then the patient is POSITIVE for the virus

135
Q

INDIRECT IMMUNOFLUORESCENCE ASSAY (IFA)

A
  1. In situ hybridization
  2. Filter hybridization
  3. SOUTHERN BLOT Hybridization – DNA
  4. DNA Amplification
  5. PCR – tests HIV RNA
  6. NORTHERN BLOT – measures mRNA antigen
136
Q

SNOW DROP

A

SOUTHERN blot - DNa
northern blot - rna
western blot - protein

137
Q

appear relatively early after
exposure to the virus

A

Anti-p24 and anti-p55

138
Q

appear slightly later but
remain throughout all disease stages in an HIV-infected
patient.

A

Anti-gp41, gp120 and gp160

139
Q

antiretroviral drugs will help us to prevent the

A

replication process of hiv viral

140
Q

antiretroviral drugs classes are the
standard of treatment and are referred to as ___

A

combination antiretroviral therapy (CART) or Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).

141
Q

Persons initial HIV regimen is generally includes 3 HIV
medicine from at least 2 different drug classes

A
  1. Atripla® (Sustiva + Emtriva + Viread)
  2. Complera® (Edurant + Emtriva + Viread)
  3. Genvoya® (Vitekta + Tybost + Emtriva + tenofovir alafenamide) Odefsey® (Edurant + Emtriva + tenofovir alafenamide)
  4. Stribild® (Vitekta + Tybost + Emtriva + iread)
  5. Triumeq® (Tivicay + Epzicom + Ziagin)
142
Q

Treatment for HIV

A
  • Entry inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
  • Integrase inhibitors
  • Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
143
Q

Prevention for HIV

A

No vaccine available.

144
Q
A