Midterm 1: Lectures 1-2 Flashcards

1
Q

5 hallmarks of inflammation

A

SHRPL = swelling, heat, redness, pain, loss of fxn

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2
Q

2 categories of hypersensitivity

A

1) improper response to foreign antigens
2) immune response to ‘self’ antigens

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3
Q

4 types of hypersentitivity

A

1) Anaphylactic rxn
2) Cytolytic/Cytotoxic rxn
3) Immune complex rxn
4) Delayed-type or Tuberculin rxn

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4
Q

Immunodeficiency

A

loss of fxn of one or several components of the immune system (innate or acquired)

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5
Q

2 categories of immunodeficiency

A

1) Primary (congenital) = genetic defects
2) Secondary (acquired) = many causes

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6
Q

2 examples of primary immunodeficiency

A

1) Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
2) FIV

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7
Q

Bovine Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

A
  • single point mutation in CD18 gene: aspartic acid to glycine
  • impaired expression of the beta 2 integrin adhesion molecules on the surface of WBC; without them WBC are unable to travel to sight of infection and help fight
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8
Q

How is FIV transmitted?

A

1) vertically (in utero and nursing)
2) oronasal and venereal spread (bite wounds)

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9
Q

What cats are most susceptible to FIV?

A

male and roaming cats

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10
Q

What cells does FIV target?

A
  • CD4 T-Cells which orchestrate immune response
  • macrophage/dendritic cells which initiate immune fxn
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11
Q

Why is FIV described as latent?

A

Part of the virus integrates into the cell genome causing the cell to produce the virus and act as a reservoir making it hard to remove. Even when the cat recovers, he is asymptomatic

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12
Q

What cells does FIV replicate in?

A

CD4 T-Cells, macrophages, dendritic cells

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13
Q

When does peak infection of FIV occur?

A
  • 8 to 12 weeks
  • anorexic, fever, depression
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14
Q

What are the clinical signs of FIV?

A

*These are causes by a secondary infection
- tumors (due to lack of T cell surveillance)
- brain injury
- gingivitis, tacky fur, hunched, sloughing guts

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15
Q

What does FIV stand for?

A

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

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16
Q

Antigen

A

Binds antibodies; any substance that causes the immune system to procure an antibody response

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17
Q

Epitope

A

part of the ANTIGEN that binds antibody and reacts with specific region of the antibody

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18
Q

Immunogen

A

a molecule that is capable of eliciting an immune response
- will induce an antibody of cell mediated immune response

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19
Q

immunogenicity

A

ability of an antigen to induce an immune response

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20
Q

hapten

A

small molecule which is UNABLE to induce an immune response

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21
Q

carrier

A

large molecule chemically linked to haptens to make product immunogenic

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22
Q

adjuvant

A

substance that enhances an immune response and is added to vaccines (Freud’s adjuvant)

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23
Q

toxoid

A

non-toxic derivative of a toxin used as immunogen

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24
Q

Vaccination

A

protective immunization against an agent

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25
Q

What was the first vaccine made to combat?

A

small pox

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26
Q

Vaccine

A

preparation that induces and/or improves the antibody or cell mediated immune response against a pathogen

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27
Q

immunization

A

generate protection in a controlled manner prior to exposure to a harmful agent

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28
Q

What are the 3 types of immunization that induce acquired immunity?

A

1) active immunization
2) passive immunization
3) adoptive transfer

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29
Q

Active immunization

A

immunity developed by the administration of antigen

30
Q

Passive immunization

A

immunity developed by transferring antibody from an immunized individual to a non-immunized individual

31
Q

Adoptive transfer

A

immunity developed by transferring immune cells from an immunized individual to non-immunized individual

32
Q

Attenuated vaccine

A

contains live modified organisms

33
Q

killed vaaccine

A

the pathogen is killed

34
Q

toxoid

A

non-toxic derivative of a toxin used as immunogen

35
Q

What is an example of a toxoid?

A

tetanus

36
Q

subunit vaccine

A

only a portion of the pathogen is used to create an immune response

37
Q

Conjugate vaccine

A

poorly immunogenic compounds are linked to proteins to make them more immunogenic

38
Q

monovalent/polyvalent vaccines

A

monovalent vaccines vaccinate against 1 antigen; polyvalent vaccinate against more than 1

39
Q

How do vaccines work?

A
  • provide portions of pathogen to host to induce immune response
  • provides time to develop immunity prior to potential challenge by pathogen
40
Q

Health

A

a state of physical, psychological, and production well-being

41
Q

Disease

A

abnormality of structure or fxn with an identifiable pathological basis and with a recognizable syndrome of clinical signs

42
Q

Morbidity

A

a condition of being diseased

43
Q

Mortality

A

quality of being moral; death

44
Q

Disease prevalence

A

total # of cases of the disease in a specific population at a specific time

45
Q

Disease incidence

A

of new cases of a disease in a specific population at a specific time

46
Q

Epidemiological surveillance

A

the discipline of continuously gathering, analyzing and interpreting data about diseases and communicating to organizations

47
Q

Why is epidemiological surveillance important?

A

prevention and control of disease

48
Q

What are the 3 principles of a surveillance program?

A
  1. collect and assess data
  2. transfer data
  3. apply data: prevention or treatment
49
Q

What are the 2 categories of testing?

A
  1. clinical exam
  2. diagnostic and screening exam
50
Q

Screening

A

the presumptive identification of unrecognizable disease or defect by the application of tests

51
Q

What is the purpose of screening tests?

A

sort animals into healthy vs not healthy

52
Q

What are the 3 formats of screening tests?

A
  1. mass screening
  2. selective screening
  3. multiple screening
53
Q

Multiple screening

A

combining single screening tests on selective groups in a population

54
Q

What are diagnostic tests based on?

A

Sensitivity and/or specificity

55
Q

Sensitivity

A

ability for a test to identify a sick animal

56
Q

Specificity

A

ability for a test to identify a healthy animal

57
Q

SNOUT

A

sensitivity high, rule out

58
Q

SPIN

A

specificity high, rule in

59
Q

Innate immunity

A

all bodily constituents an organism is born with and will always have available to protect
- rapid, non-specific, no memory

60
Q

Acquired immunity

A

more specialized defense that requires initial contact with a pathogen

61
Q

3 innate immunity mechanisms

A

1) phagocytosis helpers = opsonin which acts as a complement
2) extracellular killing via natural killer cells
3) biologically active substances

62
Q

4 cell types of acquired immunity

A

1) B cells
2) T cells
3) Antigen presenting cells: dendritic cells and macrophages
4) lymphocytes

63
Q

B cells

A

produce immunoglobins (antibodies) that bind to specific antigens
- humoral immunity
- IgG etc.

64
Q

T cells

A
  • cell mediated
  • T-helper, T-regulatory, Cytotoxic T cells
  • tell B cells to produce antibodies
65
Q

Primary antibody response

A
  • lag period: days - months (no memory B cells)
  • low antibody production
  • mainly IgM response
66
Q

Secondary antibody response

A
  • lag period: only days (memory B cells)
  • high antibody levels with better binding affinity to antigens
  • mainly IgG, IgA, IgE
67
Q

Herd immunity

A

protection to everyone in a community by high vaccination rates; provides protection to those unable to receive vaccinations

68
Q

What is the herd immunity rule for ag-vet med vs human med?

A
  • vet med: 70%
  • human med: 80%
69
Q

What are 5 reasons for vaccine avoidance

A
  1. critical
  2. religion
  3. political
  4. sanitary
  5. scientific
70
Q

Marker Vaccines

A

aka DIVA vaccines: Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals (using serology)
- structural proteins = vaccinated
- non-structural proteins = infected