Microbiology & Immunology Exam Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

what are the main components of a TCR?

A

1 antigen binding site • variable regions • constant regions • transmembrane region • α chain • β chain

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3
Q

what is the difference between a BCR and a TCR’s CD molecules?

A

on a B cell IgM and IgD are associated with CD79 • TCR is associated with CD3

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4
Q

what are the 2 classes of TCR?

A

α:β • γ:δ

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5
Q

how are gene rearrangements in a TCR similar to gene rearrangements in a BCR?

A

VDJ segments for beta and gamma chains • VJ segments for alpha and delta chains

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6
Q

unlike a B cell where a B cell carries IgM and IgD as antigen receptors, a T cell carries what?

A

either alpha beta receptor or gamma-delta receptor

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7
Q

which has more variation, V region of alpha and beta chain or V region of gamma and delta chains

A

V region of alpha and beta chains

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8
Q

generation of the variable region of TCR is generated the same way like in BCR, except what?

A

that TCR does not undergo somatic mutation

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9
Q

which enzymes are involved in TCR development?

A

RAG1 and RAG2 • the same enzymes involved in TCR development

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10
Q

generation of antigen-binding diversity for TCR depends on what?

A

the same somatic recombination and junctional mechanisms used for BCR diversity

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11
Q

How is diversity created in TCR?

A
  1. joining of VDJ segments for beta and gamma chains • 2. joining of VJ segments for alpha and delta chains • 3. RAG-1 and RAG-2 encoded recombinase and TdT are required for somatic recombination • 4. junctional diversity
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12
Q

is there somatic hypermutation in TCR?

A

NO

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13
Q

T cell progenitors originate from and develop where?

A

they originate from bone marrow and develop in the thymus

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14
Q

to what is the TCR’s source of diversity in antigen recognition similar?

A

BCR because of random rearrangements of gene fragments VDJ and VJ

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15
Q

what is the structure of TCR?

A

has 2 peptides • α and β

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16
Q

how many epitope receptors does a TCR have?

A

1

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17
Q

how many CD3’s is each TCR associated with?

A

2

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18
Q

what is the function of ζ peptides in TCR?

A

signal transduction

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19
Q

what are the co-receptor molecules of CDR’s?

A

CD4 • CD8

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20
Q

when is Pre-TCR found?

A

on immature T cells; expressed early in development

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21
Q

when is TCR found?

A

on mature T cells

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22
Q

what is the major difference between pre-TCR and TCR?

A

pre-TCR has an incomplete α peptide: • pTα

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23
Q

how do T cell receptors recognize processed epitope?

A

in association with MHC

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24
Q

TCR require which co-receptors?

A

CD4 • CD8

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25
Q

which T cell type has co-receptor CD4?

A

Helper T cell

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26
Q

which T-cell type has the co-receptor CD8?

A

cytotoxic T cell

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27
Q

what is the MHC restriction of Helper T cells?

A

MHC II

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28
Q

what is the MHC restriction of cytotoxic T cells?

A

MHC I

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29
Q

what is the function of helper T cells?

A

B cells help macrophage activation • help for CD8 T cell cytokine secretion

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30
Q

what is the function of cytotoxic T cells?

A

killing virus infected cells • killing tumor cells

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31
Q

what are the parts of a CD4 co-receptor?

A

D1 • D2 • D3 • D4

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32
Q

what are the parts of the CD8 co-receptor?

A

α • β

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33
Q

what is the immune consequence of DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

thymic hypoplasia

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34
Q

What CD is expressed on a lymphoid precursor that just entered the thymus?

A

CD34

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35
Q

in the subcapsular zone of the thymus the cell becomes committed to develop to T cells by expressing what?

A

CD2

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36
Q

what are the two lines of development of committed CD2+ cells in the subcapsular zone?

A

beta-alpha expressing TCR • gamma-delta expressing TCR

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37
Q

in the beta-alpha line of development, the genes for beta gene segments are rearranged first and if it is productive, what happens next?

A

it is transcribe and translated to a beta chain that gets associated with a pTα.

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38
Q

what does a preT cell of the beta-alpha line express?

A

β • PTα

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39
Q

what happens if the pre T cell expressing β and PTα is functional?

A

the cell is signaled to rearrange the gene segments for α chain.

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40
Q

what is expressed on double positive T cells and where are they found?

A

double positive CD4+, CD8+ express TCR (βα) and are found in the cortex

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41
Q

What is positive selection in T cell development of the αβ line?

A

the TCR is checked if it can interact with MHC alleles of the person. • thymic epithelial cells present self antigen on MHC to the TCR. T cells expressing TCR that can interact with the MHC of the individual survive, if not they die

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42
Q

what is MHC restriction also known as?

A

positive selection

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43
Q

where and by what cells is negative selection in T cell development carried out?

A

by dendritic cells in the corticomedullary junction

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44
Q

what happens in negative selection during T cell development?

A

dendritic cells present self antigens on MHC I and II to the double positive cells. T cells with high affinity die, T cell with weak or intermediate affinity live. T cells that survive either become CD4 or CD8 depending on their affinity to either MHC I or MHC II

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45
Q

what happens in terms of CD during T cell development, to T cells with affinity to MHC I molecules?

A

CD8 marker retained • CD4 will be lost

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46
Q

what happens in terms of CD during T cell development to T cells with affinity to MHC II molecules?

A

CD4 will be retained • CD8 will be lost

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47
Q

what are single positive T cells?

A

CD4+ or CD8+ and self tolerant

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48
Q

which type of T cells leave the thymus after T cell development?

A

single positive

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49
Q

what is AIRE?

A

autoimmune regulator gene that plays a role in negative selection to T lymphocytes specific to self antigens not found in the thymus

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50
Q

what is the purpose for AIRE’s existence?

A

not all self antigens are present in the thymus to cause deletion of self reacting lymphocytes • -AIRE gene induces the expression of such self antigens in the thymus-m so that they can be used in negative selection

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51
Q

what % of the T cell pool is CD4-, CD8-, γδ+?

A

2-10% of total T cell pool

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52
Q

where are CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ cells found?

A

in tissue just before the dermis

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53
Q

do CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells undergo selection?

A

no

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54
Q

how do CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells emigrate?

A

Emigrate as CD4CD8 to epithelial tissues in skin, intestines and lungs

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55
Q

what is the function of CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells ?

A

immunosurveillance of transformed, damaged, or stressed epithelial cells

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56
Q

what do CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells recognize?

A

non-peptides • lipids • not completely identified (microbes or stressed host cells

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57
Q

do CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells require APC?

A

no

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58
Q

what is the level of diversity of CD4-, CD8-, γδ+ T cells ?

A

limited diversity

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59
Q

what do naive T CD4 cells do upon exposure to antigens presented by APC?

A

differentiate into effector T CD4 cells

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60
Q

what are the effector T CD4 cells?

A

Th1 • Th2 • Th17 • Treg

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61
Q

the development of effector T CD4 cells depends on what?

A

cytokines in the environment, produced by the APC

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62
Q

what happens in naive T CD4 cells when they are exposed to the cytokines in the surroundings?

A

different transcription factors are activated

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63
Q

what do the effector T CD4 cells do?

A

produce a variety of cytokines that mediate different immunological activities

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64
Q

does clonal selection theory apply to T cell post antigen exposure development?

A

yes

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65
Q

What happens in development of Th1?

A

naive T CD4, under the influence of IL-12 and IFN-γ, induces T-bet, producing Th1

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66
Q

what are the cytokines produced by Th1?

A

IL-2 • IFNγ

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67
Q

what is the major effector function of Th1?

A

Cell mediated immunity, • intracellular pathogens • Activate macrophages • Activate B cells and CD8

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68
Q

what happens in development of The2?

A

Naive T CD4, under the influence of IL-4, induces GATA-3, producing Th2

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69
Q

what are the cytokines produced by Th2?

A

IL-4 • IL-5 • IL-13 • IL-10

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70
Q

what are the major effector functions of Th2?

A

Humoral immunity, • B cell activation • extracellular pathogens • parasites and allergy

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71
Q

what happens in the development of Th17?

A

Naive T CD4, under the influence of IL-23, IL-6, IL-1 induces RORyt, producing Th17

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72
Q

what cytokines are produced by Th17?

A

Proinflammatory: • inflamamtion • autoimmunity • response to fungi and extracellular bacteria

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73
Q

what happens in the development of Treg?

A

Naive T CD4, under the influence of TGF-β, induces FoxP3, producing Treg

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74
Q

what cytokines are produced by Treg?

A

TGF-β, IL-10

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75
Q

what are the major effector functions of Treg?

A

Down regulation: • Suppress other T cell subsets- anti-inflammatory activity

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76
Q

cytokines produced by Th1 act on what?

A

macrophages • NK cells • CD8 cells • B cells to switch to IgG1

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77
Q

cytokines produced by Th2 act on what?

A

eosinophils • B cells to switch to other class of IgG and IgE

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78
Q

cytokines produced by Th17 act on what?

A

neutrophils and epithelial cells

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79
Q

Treg acts on what cells?

A

other lymphocytes to prevent T cell proliferation

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80
Q

how many peptides in BCR?

A

4

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81
Q

how many peptides in TCR?

A

2

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82
Q

how many antigen binding regions in BCR?

A

2

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83
Q

how many antigen binding regions in TCR?

A

1

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84
Q

do TCR or BCR have variable and constant regions?

A

both have both

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85
Q

do TCR or BCR have gene segments and gene rearrangement?

A

both have both

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86
Q

what is the signal transducer molecule on BCR?

A

CD79

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87
Q

what is the signal transducer molecule on TCR?

A

CD3

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88
Q

Can BCR recognize free unprocessed antigen without MHC?

A

YES

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89
Q

can TCR recognize free unprocessed antigen without MHC?

A

NO

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90
Q

how does TCR recognize antigen?

A

recognize processed antigen in association with MHC on antigen presenting cells

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91
Q

what are the co-receptor molecules on TCR?

A

CD4 or CD8

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92
Q

from where does Tcell progenitor cell originate?

A

bone marrow

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93
Q

once a T cell progenitor migrates to the thymus, what can it develop into?

A
  1. γδ (CD4-, CD8-); • 2. αβ cells (CD4+ or CD8+) carrying TCR
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94
Q

how does the source of antigenic diversity of TCR relate to BCR?

A

source of antigenic diversity of TCR is similar to BCR

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95
Q

what is the difference between αβ and γδ T cell development?

A

α:β T lymphocytes undergo through positive and negative selection in the thymus while γδ cells do not

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96
Q

AIRE gene has a role in what type of disease?

A

autoimmune

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97
Q

CD3 and zeta associated with TCR serves as what?

A

signal transducer

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98
Q

CD4 and CD8 are coreceptors of what?

A

TCR

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99
Q

TCR recognizes epitopes associated with what?

A

MHC

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100
Q

Which CD interacts with which MHC in TCR?

A

CD4 interacts with MHC II and CD8 interacts with MHCI

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101
Q

under the influence of cytokines in the environment, naive CD4 (helper cells differentiate into what?

A

into Th1 • Th2 • Th17 • Treg

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102
Q

what is the function of Th1, Th2, Th17, and Treg?

A

these subsets of cells produce different set of cytokines with different roles in the immune system

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103
Q

what are the pre-antigen exposure B cell stages?

A

Pro B cell–> • Pre B cell –> • Immature B cell–> • mature B cell

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104
Q

what are the post antigen exposure B cell stages?

A

mature B cells become either Plasma cells or Memory cells

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105
Q

pre antigen b cell development involves what?

A

generation of antigen specific receptors which are immunoglobulin molecules of IgM and IgD isotypes

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106
Q

what is the specificity of BCR?

A

is antigen (epitope) specific

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107
Q

what type of immunoglobulin is BCR?

A

membrane immunoglobulin (mIg)

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108
Q

BCR is associated with which CD?

A

CD79 (Igα,β)

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109
Q

what is the function of CD79 (Igα,β)?

A

it’s a signal transducer

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110
Q

BCR belong to which two isotypes?

A

IgM • IgD

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111
Q

what is the similarity of the IgM and IgD on a single B cell clone?

A

both belong to the same idiotype (specific to a particular antigen)

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112
Q

the maturation stages of the B cell can be identified by what?

A
  1. changes in enzyme activity • 2. CD marker expression • 3. synthesis of BCR (IgM and IgD)
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113
Q

CD10, CD19, and CD20 are markers of what?

A

B cells

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114
Q

is CD 20 found on plasma cells?

A

no

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115
Q

what cells is CD 20 found on?

A

early to late B cell • lymphoma cells

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116
Q

how many B cell clones and repertoires can a person generate?

A

in any given individual it is possible to generate 10^9-10^10 different B cell clones, each with different epitope binding regions

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117
Q

construction of a unique variable region is possible by the process known as what?

A

somatic recombination

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118
Q

what factors contribute to somatic recombination?

A
  1. existence of multiple copies of gene segments that code for the variable regions • 2. combinatorial diversity generated by random selection and combination of gene segments • 3. junctional diversity generated by addition of deletion of bases • 4. random assortment of light and heavy chains
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119
Q

on which chromosome is the λ light chain locus?

A

chromosome 22

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120
Q

on which chromosome is the κ light chain locus?

A

chromosome 2

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121
Q

on which chromosome is the heavy chain locus?

A

chromosome 14

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122
Q

immunoglobulins are encoded by how many gene complexes?

A

3 gene complexes located on separate chromosomes

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123
Q

what are the functions of the 3 gene complexes located on separate chromosomes?

A

one for all heavy chains • one for κ chains • one for λ chains

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124
Q

how continuous are the gene complexes that code for immunoglobulins?

A

these genes are discontinuous and require translocations to be activated

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125
Q

what are the segments that encode the variable region of the light chain?

A

V • J

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126
Q

what are the segments that encode the variable region of the heavy chain?

A

V • D • J

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127
Q

what post-transcriptional processing do the gene complexes that encode immunoglobulin chains require?

A

DNA rearrangement • RNA splicing

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128
Q

what is the term for the process of gene rearrangement that occurs in generating BCR?

A

Cut and Paste process

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129
Q

RAG1 and RAG2 are what and what do they code for?

A

Recombination activating genes code for RAG1 and RAG2

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130
Q

what is an example of alternative splicing in gene selection for BCR?

A

the rearranged VDJ segment recombines first with Cμ segment creating the heavy chain μ for IgM, followed by Cδ segment creating the heavy chain δ for IgD

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131
Q

what is the reason for the alternative splicing seen in gene selection during synthesis of BCR?

A

in this way, both the IgM and IgD expressed on a B cell have the same VDJ

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132
Q

what are the 6 sources of BCR diversity?

A
  1. multiple copies of germline VDJ • 2. Random recombination of gene segments • 3. imprecision during cut and paste • 4. junctional diversity • 5. random reassortment of any light chain with any heavy chain • 6. somatic hypermutation
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133
Q

what is junctional diversity?

A

addition of sequence at the splice junction between V_D or D_J gene segments

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134
Q

what is somatic hypermutation?

A

fine tuning change after mutation

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135
Q

what is the cause of imprecise recombination in BCR formation?

A

the precise positions at which the genes for the V and J or VDJ segments are joined are not constant

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136
Q

imprecise DNA recombination can lead to what?

A

changes in the amino acid at the junctions

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137
Q

where does insertion of a new piece of DNA at the junctions take place?

A

at the junction of new segments

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138
Q

what is TdT?

A

terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

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139
Q

what is affinity maturation?

A

when somatic hypermutation improves the affinity of the antibody to the epitope

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140
Q

what is somatic hypermutation?

A

change in nucleotide in the rearranged variable gene segment of the light and heavy chain mainly in the CDR regions

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141
Q

the maturation stages of B cell development can be identified by what?

A

changes in enzyme activitiy • CD marker expression • synthesis of the BCR

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142
Q

what is allelic exclusion?

A

in a single B cell only one set of genes is expressed either maternal or paternal

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143
Q

what is Heavy chain rearrangement in the Pro B Cell?

A

DJ joined in both the chromosomes. Then VDJ is formed in one of the chromosomes

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144
Q

where do B cells develop?

A

in the fetal liver and adult bone marrow

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145
Q

when does heavy chain rearrangement take place?

A

in the pro B cell

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146
Q

what happens durring Ig Gene expression in the Pre B Cell?

A

VDJ get joined to the HCμ. μ chain together with surrogate chain is expressed

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147
Q

what is the μ chain together with the surrogate chain in the pre-Bcell called?

A

pre-B cell receptor

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148
Q

at the pro B cell level in the bone marrow, gene rearrangement of the H chain start with what?

A

a union of the D and J genes in both chromosomes (maternal and paternal)

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149
Q

what are the genes need to complete IgM?

A

VDJCμ

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150
Q

what happens if VDJCμ is productive- capable of being properly transcribed and translated?

A

further rearrangement of VDJ gene from the other chromosome is shut down, if not, the cell is given a second chance to use the other chromosome. if this fails, the cell dies by apoptosis

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151
Q

what is a surrogate light chain?

A

a false light chain

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152
Q

do the genes for VpreB and λ5 undergo rearrangement?

A

no

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153
Q

what do Igα and Igβ do in the pre-B cell?

A

singal the cell that has successfully rearranged its Ig H chain and has made functional μ chain to shut down further H chain rearragement

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154
Q

what is Bruton’s tyrosine Kinase?

A

one of the enzymes involved in intracellular signalling by Igα/β

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155
Q

mutation in the Btk gene results in what?

A

lack of differentiation to proB cell level

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156
Q

what is the condition caused by deficiency or defect in Btk?

A

X-linked agammaglobinemia

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157
Q

what happens if in the maturation of a B cell the cell is not self reactive?

A

alternative mRNA splicing of heavy chain gene transcripts then produces the δ and μ expressing both IgD and IgM

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158
Q

what happens once a functional pro-B cell receptor is produced?

A

rearrangement of the light chain genes start

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159
Q

which light chain genes rearrange first?

A

κ chain

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160
Q

what is central tolerance?

A

negative selection of self reacting immature B cells

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161
Q

what is receptor editing?

A

alteration of speecificity: • further round of light chain (V and J) gene rearrangement

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162
Q

what happens when an immature B cell recognizes a multivalent self molecule?

A

DELETION: • clonal deletion or receptor editing –> apoptosis

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163
Q

what happens when an immature B cell recognizes soluble self molecules?

A

ANERGY: • migrates to the periphery

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164
Q

what happens when an immature B cell recognizes low affinity non cross linking self molecule?

A

IGNORANT: • migrates to periphery • Mature B cell is clonally ignorant

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165
Q

what happens to an immature be cell with no self reaction?

A

FUNCTIONAL: • it migrates to the periphery and becomes mature

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166
Q

do anergic B cells express IgD?

A

yes

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167
Q

do clonally ignorant B cells express Ig?

A

yes, IgM and IgD

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168
Q

what is a clonally ignorant cell?

A

ligand is present but is not able to activate the cell

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169
Q

what are the cell stages of B cell maturation?

A
  1. Stem Cell • 2. Early Pro-B cell • 3. Late pro-B cell • 4. Large Pre-B cell • 5. small pre-B cell • 6. immature B cell • 7. Mature B cell
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170
Q

what is the status of the H-chain genes in a stem cell?

A

germ line

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171
Q

what is the state of the L chain genes in a stem cell?

A

germline

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172
Q

what is the state of surface Ig in a stem cell?

A

Absent

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173
Q

what is the state of H chain genes in an early pro-B cell

A

D-J rearranging

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174
Q

what is the state of L chain genes in an early pro-B cell?

A

Germline

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175
Q

what is the state of surface Ig in an early pro-B cell?

A

absent

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176
Q

what is the state of the H chain genes in a late pro B cell?

A

V-DJ rearranging

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177
Q

what is the state of the L chain genes in a late pro-B cell?

A

germline

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178
Q

what is the state of the surface Ig in a late pro-B cell?

A

absent

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179
Q

what is the state of the H chain genes in a large pre-B cell?

A

VDJ rearranged

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180
Q

what is the state of the L chain genes in a large pre-B cell?

A

germline

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181
Q

what is the state of surface Ig in a large pre-B cell?

A

μ chain transiently at surface as part of pre-B cell receptor. mainly intracellular

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182
Q

when does the μ + surrogate arrive in B cell maturation?

A

at the large pre-B cell stage

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183
Q

what is the state of the H chain genes in a small pre-B cell?

A

VDJ rearranged

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184
Q

what is the state of the L-chain genes in a small pre-B cell?

A

V-J rearranging

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185
Q

what is the state of the surface Ig in a small pre-B cell?

A

intracellular μ chain

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186
Q

at what stage in B cell maturation is the check to see if they recognize self antigens?

A

immature B cell stage

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187
Q

what is the state of the H chain genes in an immature B cell?

A

VDJ rearranged

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188
Q

what is the state of the L chain genes in an immature B cell?

A

VJ rearranged

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189
Q

what is the state of surface Ig in an immature B cell?

A

IgM expressed on cell surface

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190
Q

what is the state of the H chain genes in a mature B cell?

A

VDJ rearranged

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191
Q

what is the state of the L chain genes in a mature B cell?

A

VJ rearranged

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192
Q

what is the state of surface Ig in a mature B cell?

A

IgD and IgM made from alternatively spliced H-chain transcripts

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193
Q

what do naive B cells express on their surface?

A

IgM and IgD

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194
Q

what do plasma cells express on their surface?

A

plasma cells do not express surface Ig, but secrete Ig

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195
Q

what do memory cells express on their surface?

A

other Ig: • either IgG, IgA, or IgE

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196
Q

what is the clonal selection theory?

A

upon exposure to an antigen, a B cell with a BCR specific to that particular antigen proliferates to give rise to a clone of B cells expressing BCR of the same specificity

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197
Q

what happens in Ig class/isotype switch?

A

change of C domain, but not the VDJ because of alternative mRNA splicing

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198
Q

what does DNA recombination in isotype switch permit a cell to do?

A

enables the rearranged VDJ to be used with other heavy chain C chains

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199
Q

what is the first Ig produced after a B cell encounters an antigen?

A

IgM, followed by IgG or IgA with the same VDJ

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200
Q

what is affinity maturation?

A

mutation that takes place in the rearranged VDJ segment gives rise to antibodies with better affinity to epitopes

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201
Q

do antibodies produced in primary infection have more or less affinity for the epitope than Ab produced in subsequent infections?

A

less

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202
Q

what is detection of CD10/19/20 used for?

A

determine the developmental stage of leukemias and lymphomas of B cell origin

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203
Q

what does B cell coreceptor do?

A

increaes the sensitivity of B cell response to an antigen in the presence of complement activation and deposition of C3d

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204
Q

what is C3d?

A

a fragment of C3b of complement component

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205
Q

what are the 2 important subsets of B cells?

A

B2 • B1 (CD5+)

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206
Q

when do B2 cells develop?

A

after birth

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207
Q

when are B1 cells produced?

A

in fetal life

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208
Q

which type of B cell has a poorly understood developmental pathway?

A

B1

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209
Q

which type of B cell comprises the majority of B cells?

A

B2

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210
Q

What percentage of B cells are B1 cells?

A

5%

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211
Q

where are B2 cells found?

A

in secondary lymphoid organs

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212
Q

where are B1 cells found?

A

in body cavities

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213
Q

which surface Ig do B2 cells express?

A

both sIgM and sIgD

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214
Q

which surface Ig do B1 cells express?

A

sIgM but little sIgD

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215
Q

what type of antigens do B2 cells respond to?

A

protein antigens

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216
Q

which type of antigens do B1 cells respond to?

A

carbohydrate antigens • T independent antigens

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217
Q

which B cells require T cell help?

A

B2 cells

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218
Q

which B cells do not require T cell help?

A

B1 cells

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219
Q

which B cells secrete mainly IgM?

A

B 1 cells

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220
Q

which B cells give rise to plasma cells that secrete IgM, IgG, and IgA?

A

B2

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221
Q

which B cells leave memory?

A

B2 cells

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222
Q

which B cells leave little to no memory?

A

B1

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223
Q

B cells develop where in the body?

A

fetal liver • adult bone marrow

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224
Q

stages of B cell differentiation are defined by what?

A

Ig gene rearrangement ‘status’ and expression of certain CD 10, 19, 20

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225
Q

what is essential to the clonal nature of immunity?

A

allelic exclusion

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226
Q

how many opportunities do B cells have to rearrange their antigen receptors?

A

several

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227
Q

what are the possible fates of self reacting immature B cells expressing only IgM?

A
  1. allowed for receptor editing • 2. deleted, made anergic or ignorant
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228
Q

why are IgM and IgD expressed simultaneously on mature B cells?

A

due to differential RNA splicing

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229
Q

what is the function of CD79?

A

signal transducer

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230
Q

what does a B cell do upon an exposure to an antigen?

A

proliferates and differentiates into plasma cells and memory cells

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231
Q

what is class switch and what does it refer to?

A

class switching is isotype switching and refers to changes in CH gene selection but with no change in other genes (V domains or antigen specificity) by alternative RNA splicing

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232
Q

what makes up B cell co-receptor?

A

CD19 • CD21 • CD81

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233
Q

what are the two subsets of B cell types?

A

B1 • B2

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234
Q

What are immunoglobulins/antibodies?

A

glycoprotein molecules produced by plasma cells in response to an immunogen that can recognize the immunogen/antigen

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235
Q

what is myeloma?

A

a cancer that affects B cells, the immune cells responsible for the production of antibodies

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236
Q

from where do immunoglobulins derive their name?

A

the finding that when antibody-containing serum is placed in an electrical field the antibodies migrated with the globular proteins

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237
Q

the Ig molecule is made up of how many proteins?

A

4 peptide chains

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238
Q

what is the composition of the 4 peptide chains in an Ig?

A

2 heavy identical chains • 2 light identical chains

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239
Q

what are the regions present in Ig molecules?

A

the chains have variable region and constant region

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240
Q

what are VL and CL?

A

variable and constant region of the light chain

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241
Q

what are VH and CH?

A

variable and constant region of the heavy chain

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242
Q

what are responsible for the folding in the domains of an Ig?

A

sulfide bonds

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243
Q

what makes up an Ig?

A
  1. 4 peptide chains with heavy and light chains with variable and constant regions • 2. hinge region • 3. domains folded by sulfide bonds • 4. oligosaccharides
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244
Q

what are Ig classes/isotypes?

A

5 different classes based on the differences in the amino acid sequences in the constant region of the heavy chain

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245
Q

what are the 5 different heavy chains that determine the Ig classes?

A
  1. γ • 2. μ • 3. α • 4. δ • 5. ε
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246
Q

What Ig is associated with the γ chain?

A

heavy chain of IgG

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247
Q

what Ig is associated with the μ chain?

A

heavy chain of IgM

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248
Q

what Ig is associated with the α chain?

A

heavy chain of IgA

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249
Q

what Ig is associated with the δ chain?

A

heavy chain of IgD

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250
Q

what Ig is associated with the ε chain?

A

heavy chain of IgE

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251
Q

what is the difference between the IgG subclasses?

A

differ in amino acid sequence in their constant region of H chain: • 1. IgG1- gamma 1 heavy chains • 2. IgG2- Gamma 2 heavy chains • 3. IgG3- Gamma 3 heavy chains • 4. IgG4- Gamma 4 heavy chains

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252
Q

what is the difference between IgA Subclasses?

A

differ in aa sequence in their H constant region: • 1. IgA1 • 2. IgA2

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253
Q

what are the 2 types of L chains of Ig?

A

Kappa- κ • Lambda- λ

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254
Q

what is the difference between κ and λ L chains of Ig?

A

they differ in amino acid sequences in their constant region

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255
Q

what is the prevalence of κ and λ chains in Ig?

A

both types occur in all classes of Ig, but any one Ig molecule contains only one of them, either λ or κ

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256
Q

how many subclasses of IgG?

A

4

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257
Q

how many classes of IgA?

A

2

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258
Q

What is the organization of H2L2 structures?

A

2 identical L chains • 2 identical H chains • the H chain defines the class (and subclass) of the Ig produced

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259
Q

what is the functional organization of H2L2 structures?

A
  1. variable N terminal regions define the antigen binding site • 2. constant regions of the heavy chains define the functions of the immunoglobulin
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260
Q

in humans, what is the ratio of immunoglobulins containing two kappa vs two lambda chains?

A

2:01

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261
Q

how can the distinct fragments of the heavy chains be isolated into distinct fragments?

A

proteolysis

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262
Q

what happens when you reduce and acidify immunoglobulin?

A

you get isolated chains separated at the sulfide bonds

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263
Q

what happens when you treat an immunoglobulin with papain?

A

you get papain fragments

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264
Q

what does the Fc region do?

A

determines the biological function of Ig

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265
Q

what does the Fc region of Ig bind to?

A

Fc receptors on: • 1. phagocytic cells • 2. NK cells • 3. eosinophils • 4. Mast cells • 5. complement C1q • 6. placental cells

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266
Q

what are the different kinds of Fc receptors on cells?

A

different Fc receptors on these cells for the different Ig classes: • FcγR- IgG • FcμR- IgM • FcαR- IgA • FcεR- IgE

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267
Q

why is an antibody able to bind a particular antigenic determinant?

A

because it has a particular combination of VH and VL

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268
Q

specificity of antigen binding is determined by what?

A

hypervariability regions within the variable region domain

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269
Q

how many hyper-variable regions per variable region?

A

3

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270
Q

each variable region has 3 hyper-variable regions also called what?

A

complementary determining regions (CDR)

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271
Q

how many CDR’s per antigen binding site?

A

an antigen binding site is composed of three light chain CDR’s and 3 heavy chain CDRs

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272
Q

different combinations of a VH and VL result in what?

A

antibodies that can bind a different epitope

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273
Q

what is the antigen binding region called?

A

Fab Region

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274
Q

how is variability distributed in V domains?

A

there are discrete regions of hypervariability in V domains

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275
Q

what are the positions of CDR in the 2-D and 3-D models of the light chain and heavy chain?

A

-CDRs are separated in the linear 2D model of the peptide chains • - the hypervariable regions of the light chain and heavy chain are brought together in the folded 3D form of the intact antibody molecule

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276
Q

together the CDRs constitute what?

A

the combining site, which is complementary to the epitope

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277
Q

the variability in CDRs provides what?

A

the diversity required for the function of antibodies of different specificities

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278
Q

what is affinity in an Ab/Ag interaction?

A

strength of interaction between one epitope and one epitope binding site (the region between the variable region of heavy chain and light chain)

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279
Q

what is avidity in Ag/Ab interaction?

A

strength of interaction of multiple epitopes on a multivalent antigen molecule such as a big protein and several epitope binding site

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280
Q

what are hinge options?

A

the ability of an antibody to bind more than one protein with variable spacing on the surface of a bacterium

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281
Q

what is the structure of IgG?

A

monomer (7S)

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282
Q

how do the subclasses of IgG differ?

A

number of disulfide bonds and length of the hinge region

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283
Q

which is the most versatile Ig molecule?

A

IgG isotype

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284
Q

why is IgG isotype the most versatile immunoglobulin?

A

because it is capable of carrying out all of the functions of immunoglobulin molecules

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285
Q

what is the major Ig in serum?

A

IgG

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286
Q

how much of serum Ig is IgG?

A

75%

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287
Q

which is the major Ig in the extravascular spaces?

A

IgG

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288
Q

what are the capabilities of IgG?

A
  1. neutralization • 2. fixes complement • 3. binding to cells • 4. opsonization
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289
Q

what is neutralization by IgG?

A

inhibit binding of toxins or pathogens on target cells

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290
Q

do all subclasses of IgG fix complement?

A

not all subclasses fix complement equally well; IgG4 does not fix complement

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291
Q

which IgG does not fix complement?

A

IgG4

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292
Q

which cells have Fc receptors for the Fc region of IgG?

A
  1. macrophages • 2. monocytes • 3. PMNs • 4. NK cells
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293
Q

do all subclasses of IgG bind to cells?

A

not all subclasses bind equally well; • IgG2 and IgG4 do not bind Fc receptors

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294
Q

describe opsonization by IgG

A

IgG is a good opsonin. • a consequence of binding to the Fc receptors on PMN’s, monocytes and macrophages is that the cell can now internalize the antigen better

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295
Q

what is the name for adaptive immune defense mediated by antibodies?

A

humoral immunity

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296
Q

which is the only Ig that crosses the placental barrier?

A

IgG

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297
Q

what is transfer of IgG across the placental barrier mediated by?

A

receptor on placental cells for the Fc region of IgG

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298
Q

do all IgG subclasses cross the placental barrier?

A

not all subclasses cross equally • IgG2 does not cross well

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299
Q

which IgG does not cross the placental barrier well?

A

IgG2

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300
Q

what is ADCC?

A

antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

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301
Q

NK cells have Fc receptors for which IgG?

A

IgG1 and IgG3

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302
Q

binding of NK cells to human cells coated with IgG1 an IgG3 results in what?

A

killing

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303
Q

ADCC targets what kind of cells?

A

tumor cells and virally infected human cells

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304
Q

why are tumor cells and virally infected human cells targeted by NK cells in ADCC?

A

they express antigens that are not found in normal cells

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305
Q

what are the steps of ADCC by NK cells?

A
  1. antibody binds antigens on the surface of target cells • 2. Fc receptors on NK cell recognize bound antibody • 3. cross-linking of Fc receptors signals the NK cell to kill the target cell • 4. target cell dies by apoptosis
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306
Q

what are the features of the structure of IgM?

A

Pentamer (19s) • extra domain (CH4) • J chain

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307
Q

in what 2 configurations can IgM exist?

A
  1. IgM normally exists as a pentamer (19S) in serum • 2. can exist as a monomer as antigen receptor on B lymphocytes
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308
Q

which is the third most common Ig in serum?

A

IgM

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309
Q

what is the valence of an Ig?

A

it’s epitope binding capacity

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310
Q

what is the similarity between chains in IgM when it is in its pentameric form?

A

all heavy chains are identical • all light chains are identical

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311
Q

what is the valence of IgM in its pentameric form?

A

10

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312
Q

what are the extra peptide features of IgM?

A
  1. extra domain on the μ chain (CH4) • 2. another protein covalently bound via S-S bond called the J chain
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313
Q

what is the J chain on IgM?

A

another protein covalently bound to IgM via S-S bonds

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314
Q

which chain functions in polymerization of the IgM molecule into a pentamer?

A

J chain

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315
Q

what is the first Ig to be synthesized by B cells during infection in adults?

A

IgM

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316
Q

what is the first Ig produced in fetal life?

A

IgM

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317
Q

in the newborn, an increased level of IgM is an indication of what?

A

in utero stimulation of the immune system by pathogens such as rubella virus, CMV, syphilis, toxoplasmosis

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318
Q

what are the pathogens that cause increased IgM in a newborn?

A
  1. rubella virus • 2. cytomegalovirus • 3. syphilis • 4. toxoplasmosis
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319
Q

which is the first type of antibody to appear in the primary response, between IgG and IgM?

A

IgM

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320
Q

what happens to IgG levels in the secondary response (compared to the primary response)?

A

IgG: • 1. appears earlier • 2. shows a more rapid rise • 3. has higher final concentration

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321
Q

what would happen if at the time of the second exposure to Ag1, a second, non-cross reacting Ag2 was injected?

A

a primary response to Ag2 would occur while a secondary response to Ag1 was occuring

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322
Q

how can the IgM Fc region affect complement?

A

the IgM Fc region can bind and activate complement

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323
Q

how many antigen binding sites does IgM pentamer have?

A

10

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324
Q

how many Fc regions for complement binding does an IgM pentamer have?

A

10

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325
Q

which Ig has the most efficient complement fixation?

A

IgM

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326
Q

which Ig is most efficient at agglutinating antigens?

A

IgM

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327
Q

how is the response of IgM to T cell independent (carbohydrate) antigens?

A

good

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328
Q

how is the structure of surface IgM different than serum IgM?

A
  1. exists as monomer • 2. lacks J chain • 3. extra 20 amino acids at the C terminal end to anchor it to the membrane
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329
Q

what is the function of cell surface IgM?

A

receptor for antigen on B cells

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330
Q

what is the structure of serum IgA?

A

monomr

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331
Q

what are the structural features of secreted IgA (sIgA)?

A

Dimer (11s) • J chain • secretory component

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332
Q

when IgA exists as a dimer, what is associated with it?

A

J chain

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333
Q

when IgA is found in secretions it also has, in addition to the J chain, what associated with it?

A

another protein called the secretory piece

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334
Q

what is IgA in secretions called?

A

sIgA

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335
Q

where is most of IgA made?

A

in the plasma cell

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336
Q

unlike the remainder of the IgA which is made in the plasma cell, the secretory piece is made where? and when?

A

in the epithelial cells and is added to the IgA as it passes into the secretions

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337
Q

what is the function of the secretory piece?

A

the secretory piece helps IgA to be transported across mucosa and also protects it from degradation by enzymes in the mucosal secretions

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338
Q

during which part of secretion of sIgA is the secretory component added?

A

during trancytosis between the extracellular space and the lumen

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339
Q

for transcytosis and association with the secretory component to take place, the IgA dimer must bind what?

A

a membrane bound Fc receptor (poly-Ig receptor)

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340
Q

what is the second most common serum Ig?

A

IgA

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341
Q

IgA is the major class of Ig in what?

A

secretions: • 1. tears • 2. saliva • 3. colostrum • 4. mucus

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342
Q

how is IgA transferred from mother to child?

A

breast feeding

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343
Q

what type of immunity transfer is breast feeding?

A

passive transfer of immunity

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344
Q

since it is found in secretions, sIgA is important in what type of immunity?

A

local (mucosal) immunity

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345
Q

does IgA fix complement?

A

normally IgA does not fix complement unless aggregated

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346
Q

how does IgA function in mucosal immunity?

A

IgA inhibit by neutralizing adhesion of pathogens/toxins to epithelial cell on mucosal surface

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347
Q

what are the structural components of IgD?

A

monomer • tail piece

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348
Q

how does IgD exist?

A

IgD exists only as a monomer

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349
Q

is IgD found in serum?

A

IgD is found in low levels in serum

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350
Q

what is the role of serum IgD?

A

role in serum is uncertain

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351
Q

where is IgD primarily found?

A

on B cell surfaces

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352
Q

what is the function of B cell bound IgD?

A

receptor for antigen

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353
Q

which Ig’s are found on the B cell surface?

A

IgD • IgM

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354
Q

IgD on the surface of B cells has what for anchoring to the membrane?

A

extra amino acids at C-terminal end

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355
Q

does IgD bind complement?

A

no

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356
Q

what are the structural components of IgE?

A

monomer • extra domain Cε4

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357
Q

which is the least common serum Ig?

A

IgE

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358
Q

why is IgE the least common serum Ig?

A

it binds very tightly to FcεR receptors on basophils and mast cells

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359
Q

IgE is primarily involved in what?

A

allergic reactions

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360
Q

why is IgE involved in allergic reactions?

A

as a consequence of its binding to basophils and mast cells

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361
Q

does IgE fix complement?

A

IgE does not fix complement

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362
Q

Binding of IgE to mast cell surface receptors does what?

A

primes the cell to respond to allergen

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363
Q

introduction of allergen and its subsequent binding to IgE on a mast cell induces what?

A

crosslinking of IgE and clustering of Fc receptors

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364
Q

clustering of Fc receptors on a mast cell post introduction of allergen does what?

A

initiates a signal transduction event that stimulates the mast cell to degranulate

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365
Q

besides allergic reactions, what does IgE play a role in?

A

parasitic helminth infections

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366
Q

what are the functions of IgE?

A

allergic reactions • parasitic helminth infections

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367
Q

why is measuring IgE levels helpful in diagnosing parasitic infections?

A

because serum IgE levels rise in parasitic diseases

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368
Q

how does IgE help kill parasites?

A

eosinophils have Fc receptors for IgE and binding of eosinophils to IgE-coated helminthes results in release of granular contents which kill the parasite

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369
Q

which Ig’s predominate in the blood?

A

IgM, IgG and monomeric IgA predominate in the blood

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370
Q

which are the major Ig’s in the extracellular fluid?

A

IgG and monomeric IgA

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371
Q

which Ig predominates in the secretions?

A

dimeric IgA

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372
Q

where is IgE found?

A

IgE is associated with mast cells and is therefore found in the connective tissue beneath epithelial surfaces, particularly of the skin, respiratory tract and the GI tract

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373
Q

which Ig’s are in the brain?

A

THE BRAIN IS DEVOID OF IMMUNOGLOBULIN

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374
Q

isotypes of Ig have variations in what?

A

the Fc region, constant heavy chain

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375
Q

what are allotypes of Ig?

A

alleles: • variations in the Fc region found in members of the same species

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376
Q

when is the allotype of Ig important?

A

tissue typing for transplantation

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377
Q

what are idiotypes of Ig?

A

variation in the variable region

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378
Q

what does the idiotype of an Ig determine?

A

antigen specificity

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379
Q

what differentiating class of an Ig is present in all individuals of a species?

A

isotype

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380
Q

which differentiating class of an Ig is different alleles within a species?

A

allotypic determinants

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381
Q

which differentiating Ig class determines the antigen binding site?

A

idiotypic determinants

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382
Q

What is the degree of neutralization functionality of IgM?

A

+

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383
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgD?

A

-

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384
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgG1?

A

+++

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385
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgG2?

A

+++

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386
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgG3?

A

+++

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387
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgG4?

A

+++

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388
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgA?

A

+++

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389
Q

what is the degree of neutralization function of IgE?

A

-

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390
Q

which Ig’s have + degree of neutralization function?

A

IgM

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391
Q

which Ig’s have - degree of neutralization function?

A

IgD • IgE

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392
Q

which Ig’s have +++ degree of neutralization function?

A

IgG1 • IgG2 • IgG3 • IgG4 • IgA

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393
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgM?

A

-

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394
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgD?

A

-

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395
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgG1?

A

+++

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396
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgG2?

A

* req complement

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397
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgG3?

A

++

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398
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgG4?

A

+

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399
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgA?

A

+

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400
Q

what is the degree of opsonization function of IgE?

A

-

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401
Q

which Ig’s have - degree of opsonization function?

A

IgM • IgD • IgE

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402
Q

which Ig’s have + degree of opsonization function?

A

IgG4 • IgA

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403
Q

which Ig’s have ++ degree of opsonization function?

A

IgG3

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404
Q

which Ig’s have +++ degree of opsonization function?

A

IgG1

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405
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgM?

A

-

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406
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgD?

A

-

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407
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgG1?

A

++

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408
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgG2?

A

-

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409
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgG3?

A

++

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410
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgG4?

A

-

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411
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgA?

A

-

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412
Q

what is the degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function of IgE?

A

-

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413
Q

which Ig’s have - degree of sensitization for killing by NK cells function?

A

IgM • IgD • IgG2 • IgG4 • IgA • IgE

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414
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgM?

A

-

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415
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgD?

A

-

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416
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgG1?

A

+

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417
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgG2?

A

-

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418
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgG3?

A

+

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419
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgG4?

A

-

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420
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgA

A

-

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421
Q

what is the degree of sensitization of mast cells function of IgE?

A

+++

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422
Q

which Ig’s have - degree of sensitization of mast cells function?

A

IgM • IgD • IgG2 • IgG4 • IgA

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423
Q

which Ig’s have + degree of sensitization of mast cells function?

A

IgG1 • IgG3

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424
Q

which Ig’s have +++ degree of sensitization of mast cells function?

A

IgE

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425
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgM?

A

+++

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426
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgD?

A

-

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427
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgG1?

A

++

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428
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgG2?

A

+

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429
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgG3?

A

+++

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430
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgG4?

A

-

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431
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgA?

A

+

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432
Q

what is the degree of activation of complement system function of IgE?

A

-

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433
Q

which Ig’s have - degree of activation of complement system function?

A

IgD • IgG4 • IgE

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434
Q

which Ig’s have + degree of activation of complement system function?

A

IgG2 • IgA

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435
Q

which Ig’s have ++ degree of activation of complement system function?

A

IgG1

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436
Q

which Ig’s have +++ degree of activation of complement system function?

A

IgM • IgG3

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437
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgM?

A

+

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438
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgD?

A

-

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439
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgG1?

A

-

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440
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgG2?

A

-

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441
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgG3?

A

-

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442
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgG4?

A

-

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443
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgA?

A

NAME?

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444
Q

what is the degree of transport across epithelium of IgE?

A

-

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445
Q

which Ig’s are not transported across epithelium?

A

IgD • IgG1 • IgG2 • IgG3 • IgG4 • IgE

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446
Q

which Ig’s are transported across epithelium to some degree?

A

IgM

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447
Q

which Ig’s are transported across epithelium A LOT?

A

sIgA

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448
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgM?

A

-

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449
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgD?

A

-

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450
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgG1?

A

+++

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451
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgG2?

A

+

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452
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgG3?

A

++

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453
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgG4?

A

++

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454
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgA?

A

-

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455
Q

what is the degree of transport across placenta of IgE?

A

-

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456
Q

what Ig’s are not transported across placenta?

A

IgM • IgD • IgA • IgE

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457
Q

which Ig’s are transported across placenta to some degree?

A

IgG2 (+)

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458
Q

which Ig’s are transported across placenta to a moderate degree?

A

IgG3 • IgG4 • (++)

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459
Q

which Ig’s are transported across placenta A LOT?

A

IgG1 (+++)

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460
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgM?

A

1.5

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461
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgD?

A

0.03

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462
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgG1?

A

9

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463
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgG2?

A

3

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464
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgG3?

A

1

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465
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgG4?

A

0.5

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466
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgA

A

2.5

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467
Q

what is the mean serum level (mg/mL) of IgE?

A

5 x 10^-5

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468
Q

what is an immunogen?

A

substance capable of inducing adaptive immune response

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469
Q

what is an antigen?

A

substance capable of being recognized by the adaptive immunity.

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470
Q

what is the relationship between antigens and immunogens?

A

All immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens

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471
Q

what is an epitope?

A

the region(s) of the antigen in direct contact with the antibody, B-Cell Receptor, or T-Cell Receptor

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472
Q

what is a synonym for epitope?

A

antigenic determinant

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473
Q

how many epitopes are there per antigen?

A

there may be one or more epitopes per antigen

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474
Q

what is a hapten?

A

a small molecule which can function as an antigen, but by itself is incapable of inducing an immune response

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475
Q

is a hapten an immunogen?

A

no

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476
Q

what are the 3 types of antigen/immunogen receptor molecules?

A
  1. BCR (b cell receptor) • 2. TCR (t cell receptor) • 3. MHC
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477
Q

of the 3 types of antigen/immunogen receptor molecules, which are surface immunoglobulins?

A

B-Cell Receptors

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478
Q

how many antigen recognition sites are there on a BCR?

A

two identical antigen recognition sites

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479
Q

how many antigen recognition sites are there on a TCR?

A

one antigen recognition site

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480
Q

where are MHC-I molecules expressed?

A

on all nucleated cells

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481
Q

where are MHC-II molecules expressed?

A

macrophages • dendritic cells • lymphocytes

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482
Q

which of the 3 types of antigen/immunogen receptor molecules is expressed on antigen presenting molecules?

A

MHC

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483
Q

which various antigens or sources of antigens are immunogens?

A
  1. parasites • 2. foreign proteins • 3. bacteria • 4. viruses • 5. fungi
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484
Q

antigens are big molecules- however, the area that triggers the specific immunity is a small part, known as what?

A

epitope

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485
Q

how big is an epitope?

A

an epitope in a protein antigen could be as few as 20 amino acids long

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486
Q

what is the shape of an epitope?

A

could be linear, conformational

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487
Q

what type of cells recognize a conformational epitope?

A

BCR only, not TCR

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488
Q

what is the difference between a linear and conformational epitope?

A

in a conformational epitope, the sequence of amino acids is discontinuous, but they are brought into proximity by the protein’s 3-D structure

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489
Q

what is a synonym for conformational epitope?

A

discontinuous epitope

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490
Q

when is there cross-reaction between different antigens?

A

when a different antigen has one identical determinant or a similar determinant

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491
Q

when is there no reaction between different antigens?

A

when there is no structural similarity

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492
Q

what is the receptor/binding activity of a BCR?

A

BCR–> Ag

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493
Q

what is the receptor/binding activity of a TCR?

A

TCR –> Ag/MHC

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494
Q

is MHC required for BCR?

A

no

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495
Q

is MHC required for TCR?

A

yes

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496
Q

does a BCR bind soluble antigen?

A

yes

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497
Q

does a TCR bind soluble antigen?

A

No

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498
Q

what is the chemical nature of BCR antigens?

A

protein • polysaccharides • lipids • nucleic acids

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499
Q

what is the chemical nature of TCR antigens?

A

proteins • some lipids, glycolipids

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500
Q

what type of epitope is recognized by BCR?

A

accessible, either linear or conformational

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501
Q

what type of epitope is recognized by TCR?

A

linear peptides (short)

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502
Q

what makes a good antigen/immunogen?

A
  1. physical size : > –> better • 2. complexity: chemical composition and structural complexity • 3. solubility or degradability by antigen processing cells, macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells • 4. foreignness to the individual
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503
Q

what size are the best immunogens?

A

>=100kD

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504
Q

what is the minimum size for active immunogens (proteins)

A

>30kD

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505
Q

how immunogenic is an immunogen that is <5-10kD?

A

minimally immunogenic, usually require carrier

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506
Q

what is an example of a <5-50kD immunogen that is minimally active and requires a carrier?

A

hapten

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507
Q

How do the categories of chemical compounds rank in terms of their immunogenicity based on complexity in descending order?

A

HIGH IMMUNOGENICITY: • 1. proteins and glycoproteins • 2. Polysaccharides • 3. nucleic acids, phospholipids • 4. haptens • LOW IMMUNOGENICITY:

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508
Q

are proteins and glycoproteins good immunogens?

A

yes

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509
Q

how complex are proteins and glycoproteins in terms of their immunogenicity?

A

complex in composition and structure

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510
Q

can proteins and glycoproteins induce immunity?

A

can induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity

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511
Q

how complex are polysaccharides in terms of their immunogenicity?

A

repeating structures, generally low affinity

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512
Q

what type of response do polysaccharide immunogens elicit?

A

IgM response

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513
Q

do polysaccharides stimulate a cell-mediated immune response?

A

cannot be processed and presented as linear epitopes for T cells, thus do not induce cell-mediated response

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514
Q

how foreign are nucleic acids and phospholipids in terms of their immunogenicity?

A

evolutionarily conserved; less foreign

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515
Q

how do nucleic acids and phospholipids become better immunogens?

A

conjugation with proteins or polysaccharides

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516
Q

how immunogenic are haptens?

A

insufficient in size to be immunogenic. need carrier

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517
Q

what examples of natural haptens?

A

hormones, lipids, simple sugars

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518
Q

what are examples of synthetic haptens?

A

chemicals, drugs (penicillin)

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519
Q

what types of drugs can act like haptens and be associated with severe, life threatening anaphylactic reactions?

A

antibiotics, particularly penicillins

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520
Q

how do penicillins act as haptens?

A

they form covalent bonds with proteins to produce protein-drug adducts that elicit an immune response (hypersensitivities) in some individuals

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521
Q

what are the 3 types of epitopes in a hapten-conjugate complex?

A
  1. the pure hapten • 2. the pure antigen • 3. the hapten-antigen complex
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522
Q

how can a hapten be made immunogenic?

A

immunizing with a hapten-carrier conjugate

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523
Q

do identical twins recognize each other’s proteins as foreign?

A

no. • they have the same genetic makeup and their immune systems would recognize eachother as self

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524
Q

what are examples of immunologically privileged anatomical sites (sequestration)?

A

corneal, spermatic, CNS cell antigens

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525
Q

What are the types of antigens?

A
  1. mitogens • 2. superantigens • 3. T cell independent • 4. T cell dependent
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526
Q

mitogens are characterized by what?

A

the same epitope repeated many times

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527
Q

how many types of B cells can mitogens activate?

A

more than one B cell type/clone

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528
Q

are mitogens B cell monoclonal or polyclonal activators?

A

B cell polyclonal activators

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529
Q

what are superantigens?

A

antigens that can activate more than one type of T cell

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530
Q

are superantigens polyclonal/monoclonal B/T cell activators?

A

polyclonal T cell activators

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531
Q

what effect do superantigens have on the immune system?

A

cause hyper activation of the immune system

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532
Q

what is an example of excessive T cell activation having drastic effects?

A

toxic shock syndrome

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533
Q

what does an antigen being T cell independent vs. T cell dependent depend on?

A

whether an anigen can stimulate B lymphocytes with or without the help from T lymphocytes

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534
Q

How do superantigens induce activation of multiple types of T cells?

A

they are polyclonal stimulators of T cells, binding to the MHC-TCRβ (on the outside of the polypeptide of TCR) complex, without regard for antigen specificity

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535
Q

How much of CD4 T cells are activated by super antigens?

A

up to 20%

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536
Q

what is the result of a superantigen activating up to 20% of circulating CD4 T cells?

A

massive production of cytokines such as IL1, IL2, and TNFα which causes systemic shock

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537
Q

what are examples of conditions that are caused by superantigens?

A

food poisoning • toxic shock syndrome

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538
Q

what microbes cause food poisoning and/or toxic shock syndrome?

A

bacterial exotoxins: • staphylococcal • enterotoxins • staphylococcal toxic shock toxin • staphylococcal exfoliating toxin • streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins

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539
Q

what forms a bridge between CD4 T cell’s receptor and the MHC II molecule?

A

superantigens

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540
Q

what do T cells do in response to a superantigen?

A

divide and differentiate into effector cells

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541
Q

what are T-independent antigens?

A

antigens which can directly stimulate B cells to produce antibody without the requirement for T cell help

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542
Q

do T independent antigens require to be presented by APC?

A

no

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543
Q

usually, T independent antigens are what?

A

mitogen and are resistant to degradation by antigen presenting cell

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544
Q

what are examples of T independent antigens?

A

pneumococcal polysaccharide • lipopolysaccharide • flagellar antigen

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545
Q

what are T dependent antigens?

A

antigens that require the help of T lymphocytes to activate be cells to produce antibody

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546
Q

are T dependent antigens degradable by antigen presenting cell?

A

yes

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547
Q

what type of compounds are T dependent antigens?

A

protein

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548
Q

in addition to size, molecular complexity and foreignness, immunogenicity of an antigen depends on what?

A
  1. physical form • 2. degradability • 3. route • 4. dose • 5. adjuvant
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549
Q

which physical form of an antigen is more immunogenic, particulate or soluble?

A

particulate > soluble

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550
Q

why are particulate antigens more immunogenic than soluble ones?

A

particulate form are more easily taken up by antigen presenting cells

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551
Q

which physical form is more immunogenic, denatured or native?

A

denatured > native

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552
Q

what speed of release is important for immune response?

A

slow release

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553
Q

what are the relative immunogenicities of routes of administration?

A

subcutaneous > intraperitoneal > intravenous > intragastric

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554
Q

what is the limitation of the oral route of administration’s immunogenicity?

A

oral route induces local mucosal immunity but not systemic immunity

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555
Q

what is low zone tolerance?

A

low doses appear to inhibit the specific antibody production

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556
Q

what is high zone tolerance?

A

very high doses of antigen inhibit immune responsiveness to a subsequent challenge

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557
Q

what is the effect of an adjuvant on immunogenicity?

A

substances mixed together with an antigen and enhance an immune response to an antigen

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558
Q

what is the difference between an adjuvant and a carrier molecule?

A

unlike carrier molecule an adjuvant does not form stable linkage with the antigen

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559
Q

what is an example of an adjuvant?

A
  1. complete Freund’s adjuvant • 2. aluminum hydroxide/aluminum phosphate
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560
Q

what is Complete Freund’s Adjuvant?

A

water in oil emulsion containing killed mycobacteria

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561
Q

how does an adjuvant increase immunogenicity of an antigen?

A
  1. insolubilize antigen for better phagocyte uptake • 2. insolubilize antigen for gradual release over time in lipid emulsions called liposomes with delayed time release of antigen • 3. stimulating the influx of phagocytic cells or other immune cells to the site
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562
Q

some adjuvants contain mycobacterial components capable of stimulating what?

A

the innate immunity- acitvation of macrophages

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563
Q

what can inflammation be thought of as?

A

a regulatory event aimed at mobilizing various innate immune effectors and trafficking them to the anatomic location where they can be most effective

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564
Q

what is the etymology of inflammation?

A

latin: inflammare- to set on fire

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565
Q

inflammation is initiated by the presence of what?

A

infectious agents • tissue damage • self (auto) antigens (autoimmunity)

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566
Q

in inflammation an innate or adaptive immune action?

A

combined action of several immune responses of both innate and specific immunity

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567
Q

inflammation leads to what?

A
  1. vascular dilation/ increased vascular permeability • 2. accumulation of inflammatory cells • 3. destruction of initiating agent • 4. tissue repair • 5. tissue damage/scarring
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568
Q

what are the symptoms of inflammation?

A

rubor • tumor • calor • dolor • functio laesa

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569
Q

what are the cellular players in acute inflammation?

A

tissues mast cell • neutrophil • macrophage

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570
Q

what cells, in addition to the cellular players in acute inflammation, may also be found at site of inflammation?

A

eosinophils • basophils

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571
Q

what are the functions of tissue mast cells in acute inflammation?

A

release of histamine and other mediators

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572
Q

what are the functions of neutrophils in acute inflammation?

A

phagocytosis and killing

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573
Q

what are the functions of macrophages in acute inflammation?

A

phagocytosis and killing • antigen presentation

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574
Q

what are the functions of eosinophils in acute inflammation?

A

killing of parasites

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575
Q

inflammatory stimuli do what?

A
  1. activate the complement system • 2. degranulate mast cells • 3. acitvate macrophages • 4. activate coagulation system
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576
Q

inflammatory stimulia activate the complement system, degranulate mast cells, activate macrophages and coagulation system leading to the production of what?

A

bradykinin, which increases vasodilation

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577
Q

in response to inflammatory stimuli, platelts are a mojor component of clotting, releasing what?

A

prostaglandins • hydrolytic enzymes • growth factors • other mediators that stimulate various cell types to contribute to antimicrobial defense, wound healing, and inflammation

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578
Q

microbes and/or their products that enter through a breach in the dermis induce what?

A

phagocytes to secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL1, TNFα), also activate complement leading to the expression of adhesion molecules by vascular endothelium

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579
Q

the net movement of WBC’s from circulation into tissue is called what?

A

extravasation

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580
Q

what are the steps of extravasation?

A
  1. Rolling Adhesion • 2. Firm Adhesion (tethering and tight binding, margination) • 3. diapedesis (transendothelial migration) • 4. Migration toward the site of infection
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581
Q

Extravasation is driven by what compounds?

A

TNFα • IL1 • IL8 • C3a • C5a

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582
Q

how does rolling in extravasation work?

A
  1. rolling uses selectins • 2. rolling is a low affinity adhesion • 3. E-selectin on endothelium bind to mucin like adhesion molecule on the phagocytic membrane briefly. • 4. force of blood moves rolling on
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583
Q

what are the proteins that bind in rolling during extravasation?

A

E-selectins on endothelium bind to mucin-like adhesion molecules (selectins/Sialyl Lewis sugars) on the phagocytic membrane briefly

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584
Q

what force causes rolling during extravasation to move on?

A

blood flow

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585
Q

describe activation by chemoattractants during extravasation

A

chemokines released during inflammation stimulate conformational change in integrin molecules in phagocytic membrane that incresae their affinity for ICAM adhesion molecules on the endothelium

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586
Q

what are the chemokines released during inflammation that stimulate conformational change in integrin molecules in phagocytic membrane that increase their affinity for ICAM adhesion molecules on the endothelium?

A

IL-8 • C5a

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587
Q

to what family of compounds does ICAM belong?

A

immunoglobulin superfamily

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588
Q

what proteins are associated with tethering and tight binding during extravasation?

A

integrins (LFA)

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589
Q

what is LFA?

A

lymphocyte function-associated antigen 1

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590
Q

what types of adhesions are formed in tethering and tight binding during extravasation?

A

firm adhesion to ICAMS

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591
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

transendothelial migration

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592
Q

diapedesis is mediated by what?

A

PECAM, now renamed CD31

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593
Q

what is PECAM?

A

platelet endothelial cellular adhesion molecule

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594
Q

where is CD31 expressed?

A

on endothelial cells and neutrophils

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595
Q

what happens to endothelial expression of E and P selectins under the influence of inflammatory stimuli?

A

endothelial expression of E and P selectins increases

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596
Q

to what family of compounds does LFA-1 belong?

A

part of the integrin family of leukocyte adhesin molecules

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597
Q

What is CD18?

A

common β chain of the leukocyte integrins

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598
Q

what does absence of CD18 cause?

A

leukocyte adhesion deficiency disease

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599
Q

what cytokine released by macrophages upregulate the expression of P selectin on endothelial cells?

A

TNFα

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600
Q

what do P and E selectin do?

A

together E and P selectin slow the motion of leukocytes through the bloodstream by causing them to roll along the endothelial surface, allowing other molecules to interact with the slowed leukocytes to stop them and promote their movement into the tissues.

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601
Q

what compounds stimulate E and P selectin expression?

A

IL-1 • LPS • TNFα

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602
Q

what is LPS a component of?

A

the membranes of many gram negative bacteria

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603
Q

what do LPS binding proteins on macrophages do when they come into contact with their ligand?

A

stimulate macrophages to release inflammatory cytokines

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604
Q

Both E and P selectins are known to bind with what?

A

Sialyl-Lewis x like glycans

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605
Q

where are Sialyl-Lewis x-like glycans expressed?

A

in relatively high numbers by circulating leukocytes

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606
Q

in addition to Sialyl Lewis glycans, what else does P selectin bind?

A

P-selectin glycoprotein ligand-1 (PSGL-1)

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607
Q

where is PGSL-1 expressed?

A

modestly expressed on human leukocytes

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608
Q

leukocyte recruitment by E and P selectin is analogous to what?

A

throwing a tennis ball at a velcro surface

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609
Q

tight adhesion to the rolling leukocyte is performed by what?

A

ICAM-1

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610
Q

what does ICAM-1 bind to?

A

integrins LFA-1 and CR3 on the leukocyte surface

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611
Q

what does ICAM-1 do?

A

binds to the Integrins LFA-1 and CR3 on the leukocyte surface and arrests the motion of the rolling leukocyte.

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612
Q

why does ICAM-1 stop the rolling leukocyte?

A

stopping the leukocyte allows it to enter the tissues by secreting proteases to breach the endothelial basement membrane

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613
Q

what is the acute phase response?

A

physiological processes that occur during inflammation or tissue damage, triggered by IL-1, IL-6, TNFα

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614
Q

which cytokines trigger the acute phase response?

A

IL-1 • IL-6 • TNF-α

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615
Q

on what systems do IL-1, IL-6, and TNFα act during the acute phase response?

A

hypothalamus • bone marrow • liver

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616
Q

what does the acute phase response cause by acting on the hypothalamus?

A

fever

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617
Q

what does the acute phase response cause by acting on the bone marrow?

A

stem cell differentiation and proliferation

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618
Q

what does the acute phase response cause by acting on the liver?

A

increase production of acute phase proteins

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619
Q

what are the purposes of the acute phase response?

A
  • provides replenishment of cells and acute phase proteins used during an inflammation response • - increase metabolic activity
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620
Q

what are acute phase proteins?

A

heterogenous group of serum proteins that increase during inflammation

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621
Q

what do acute phase proteins do?

A

replace exhausted components and reinforce innate defenses against infection

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622
Q

what are the important acute phase proteins?

A
  1. C-reactive protein • 2. mannose-binding lectin • 3. complement • 4. fibrinogen
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623
Q

what is CRP?

A

a protein found in the blood, the levels of which rise in response to inflammation

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624
Q

what does CRP do?

A
  1. acts as an opsonin AND • 2. it binds to phosphocholine expressed on the surface of dead or dying cells (and some types of bacteria) in order to activate the complement system via the C1q complex (classical pathway in the absence of antibody)
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625
Q

what are the relative levels of CRP and MBL in the plasma?

A

the levels of CRP and MBL are low in the plasma, but levels can increase by up to 1000 fold during the peak of the acute phase response

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626
Q

when is the peak of the acute phase response?

A

about 2 days after its start

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627
Q

CRP and MBL both bind to what?

A

distinct structures that are common features of pathogens and not features of human cells

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628
Q

what is the clinical application of CRP?

A

levels of CRP are routinely measured in clinical diagnostic laboratories to indicate an acute inflammation

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629
Q

what does MBL do?

A

acts as opsonin and triggers complement activation via lectin pathway

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630
Q

what does fibrinogen do?

A

plays a role in blood clotting, which limits the spread of pathogens

631
Q

IL1/IL6/TNFα elicit what acute phase response in the liver?

A

acute phase proteins (CRP, MBL)–> activation of complement/opsonization

632
Q

IL1/IL6/TNFα elicit what acute phase response in the bone marrow endothelium?

A

neutrophil mobilization –> phagocytosis

633
Q

IL1/IL6/TNFα elicit what acute phase response in hypothalamus?

A

increased body temperature –> decreased viral and bacterial replication

634
Q

IL1/IL6/TNFα elicit what acute phase response from fat, muscle?

A

protein and energy mobilization to generate increased body temperature–> decreased viral and bacterial replication

635
Q

what do pyrogens do?

A

increase body temperature

636
Q

what is the purpose of fever?

A
  1. increase metabolic activity • 2. inhibit multiplication of certain bacterial and viral agents • 3. human cells become more resistant to TNF-α
637
Q

what does the acute phase reponse do to the supply of the recognition molecules of innate immunity?

A

increases the supply of the recognition molecules of innate immunity

638
Q

what do bacteria do to induce synthesis of acute-phase proteins?

A

bacteria induce macrophages to produce IL-6, which acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute-phase proteins

639
Q

what does the liver do in response to IL-6?

A

synthesize CRP, MBL, fibrinogen

640
Q

what does CRP synthesized by the liver do to bacteria?

A

CRP binds phosphocholine on bacterial surfaces, acting as an opsonin and as a complement activator

641
Q

what does MBL do to bacteria?

A

MBL binds to carbohydrates on bacterial surfaces, acting as an opsonin and as a complement activator

642
Q

when does adaptive immunity play a role in inflammation?

A

in chronic inflammation: • non-digestible foreign material • chronic damage

643
Q

what are the causes of chronic inflammation?

A
  1. persistent infections and/or infections with resistant microorganisms such as mycobacterium • 2. autoimmune disease or malignancies (first response, acute followed by chronic) • 3. response to ‘un-digestible’ foreign material
644
Q

does chronic inflammation involve innate or adaptive immunity?

A

both

645
Q

what are the major cellular actors in chronic inflammation?

A

macrophages • Th1 (CD4) lymphocytes

646
Q

what do macrophages do in chronic inflammation?

A

continue to produce pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNFα, IL-1, IL-8) and seek help from Th1

647
Q

what do Th1 (CD4) lymphocytes do in chronic inflammation?

A

secrete several cytokines

648
Q

what do IFNγ and CD40 ligand do in chronic inflammation?

A

regulate and strengthen the intracellular killing by macrophages and neutrophils

649
Q

what does the secretion of TNFα, IL1, and IL8 by activated macrophages do in chronic inflammation?

A

promote recruitment of inflammatory cells to the area

650
Q

how do Th1 and macrophages interact during chronic inflammation?

A
  1. Th1 cell and infected macrophage come together • 2. T cell binds to and activates macrophage • 3. killing of intravesicular bacteria
651
Q

when do granuloma form?

A

when an intracellular pathogen resists elimination even after receiving help from CD4 Th1

652
Q

what do Th1 cells do when a pathogen resists intracellular killing?

A

play an important role in fighting such infections by producing different sorts of cytokines which bring more help to the macrophages

653
Q

what are conditions in which granuloma form?

A

MTB • Leishmania

654
Q

what cells make up and surround a granuloma?

A

macrophages make up the bulk of a granuloma and lymphocytes surround it

655
Q

which type of inflammation is pyogenic, acute or chronic?

A

acute

656
Q

which type of inflammation is granulomatous, acute or chronic?

A

chronic

657
Q

what are the typical triggers for acute inflammation?

A

staphylococci

658
Q

what are the typical triggers for chronic inflammation?

A

mycobacterial infecton • hepatitis B

659
Q

what are the initiating cells in acute inflammation?

A

mast cells • macrophages

660
Q

what are the initiating cells in chronic inflammation?

A

macrophages

661
Q

what are the effector cells in innate system during acute inflammation?

A

neutrophil

662
Q

what are the effector cells in the innate system during chronic inflammation?

A

macrophage • NK cell

663
Q

what are the effector cells in the adaptive system during acute inflammation?

A

none involved

664
Q

what are the effector cells in the adaptive system during chronic inflammation?

A

Th1

665
Q

what are the mediators of acute inflammation?

A

complement, • GM-CSF, • TNF, • chemokines

666
Q

what are the mediators of chronic immunity?

A

TNF • IL-12 • IL-18 • IFNγ • chemokines

667
Q

what are the systemic effects of acute inflammation?

A

pus formation, abscesses

668
Q

what are the systemic effects of chronic inflammation?

A

granuloma may be present

669
Q

What happens in local infection with gram-negative bacteria?

A
  1. macrophages activated to secrete TNF-α in the tissue • 2. Increased release of plasma proteins into tissue. Increased phagocyte and lymphocyte migration into tissue. Increased platelet adhesion to blood vessel wall • 3. phagocytosis of bacteria. local vessel occlusion. containment of infection. Antigens drain or are carried to local lymph node. • 5. survival. stimulation of adaptive immune system.
670
Q

what happens in systemic infection with gram-negative bacteria?

A
  1. macrophages activated in the liver and spleen secrete TNF-α into the bloodstream • 2. systemic edema causes decreased blood volume, hypoproteinemia, and neutropenia, followed by neutrophilia. decreased blood volume causes collapse of vessels. • 3. disseminated intravascular coagulation leads to wasting and multiple organ failure: septic shock. • 4. death
671
Q

what do vascular endothelial cells make in response to TNF-α and what does it do to blood?

A

platelet activating factor, which triggers blood clotting and blockage of the local blood vessels.

672
Q

what is the benefit of PAF released in response to TNFα by vascular endothelial cells?

A

restricts the leakage of pathogens into the circulation and prevents disseminated infection.

673
Q

infection of the blood is known as what?

A

sepsis, septicemia

674
Q

mutation of what has been linked to development of septic shock in patients?

A

mutation of TLR4 (a receptor for LPS on phagocytic cells)

675
Q

What are the 3 classes of cellular effectors?

A
  1. Degranulating Cells • 2. NK Cells • 3. Phagocytic Cells
676
Q

What cells make up the degranulating cellular effectors of the innate immune system?

A

Mast Cells • Eosinophils

677
Q

What cell line gives rise to NK Cells?

A

Lymphoid Line

678
Q

with what degree of specificity do NK cells kill?

A

nonspecific killing

679
Q

do NK cells participate in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

lymphoid line, but part of innate immune system

680
Q

what do NK cells target?

A

intracellular pathogens • tumor cells

681
Q

what do phagocytic cells target?

A

extracellular pathogens

682
Q

what cells make up the phagocytic cellular effectors of the innate immune system?

A

neutrophils (PMNs) • monocytes/macrophages

683
Q

part of the inflammatory response is the recruitment of what type of cells (the main line of defense in the non-specific immune system) to site of infection?

A

polymorphonuclear • eosinophils • macrophages

684
Q

what are LAK cells?

A

Lymphokine Activated Killer Cells

685
Q

what do NK and LAK cells do?

A

NK and LAK cells can nonspecifically kill virus infected and tumor cells

686
Q

what do PMN cells do once they are recruited to the site of infection?

A
  1. they phagocytose invading organisms and kill them intracellularly • 2. they contribute to collateral tissue damage that occurs during inflammation
687
Q

what is the function of tissue macrophages and newly recruited monocytes which differentiate into macrophages in innate immunty?

A
  1. phagocytosis and intracellular killing of microorganisms • 2. macrophages- contribute to tissue repair and act as antigen-presenting cells, which are required for the induction of specific immune responses
688
Q

how do mast cells and eosinophils function in the innate immune response?

A
  1. have proteins in granules that are effective at helping to recruit and enhance ann immune response • 2. eosinophils- killing certain parasites
689
Q

where are mast cells found?

A

found posted throughout the body tissue

690
Q

Mast cells can be stimulated to degranulate by what?

A
  1. direct injury/ trauma • a. physical • b. chemical • 2. cross linking of IgE receptors • 3. activated complement proteins • a. C3a • b. C5a
691
Q

what are the forms of chemical direct injury that cause mast cells to degranulate?

A
  1. opioids • 2. alcohols • 3. certain antibiotics (polymyxins)
692
Q

what are the inflammatory mediators released by the degranulation of mast cells?

A
  1. histamine • 2. platelet activating factor • 3. prostaglandins • 4. leukotrienes
693
Q

the degranulation of mast cells results in what?

A
  1. recruitment of immune cells • 2. increase in vasopermeability
694
Q

where are eosinophils found?

A

found circulating or in tissue

695
Q

how are eosinophils recruited to the site of infection?

A

get recruited to the site of infection by cytokines

696
Q

Eosinophils have receptors for which complement product?

A

C3b

697
Q

what does C3b do to eosinophils?

A

stimulates degranulation

698
Q

what types of cells are targeted by eosinophils?

A

big parasites

699
Q

how do eosinophils kill big parasites?

A
  1. producing oxygen radicals • 2. forming pores on target cells
700
Q

are eosinophils phagocytic?

A

may be phagocytic and assist in clearing of foreign material at the site of injury or infection

701
Q

how do eosinophils stain?

A

stain with acid dyes

702
Q

chemotaxis of eosinophils to sites of infection is in response to what?

A

cytokines: • - IL8 • - Others belonging to chemokine family CXC and CC

703
Q

NK cells participate in the recognition and killing of what target cells?

A

damaged or altered self cells • virally infected cells

704
Q

what is the activation state of circulating NK cells?

A

circulate in partially activated state

705
Q

what are the 2 mechanisms by which killing by NK is mediated?

A
  1. secretion of perforins and granzymes lead to apoptosis of target cells • 2. FAS ligand mediated ‘apoptosis’
706
Q

what is the most important cytokine produced by NK cells?

A

IFN-γ

707
Q

what are the CD markers present on NK cells?

A

CD16 • CD56

708
Q

why do NK cells respond quickly to infection?

A

because they circulate in partly activated state, as seen from their large size and their cytoplasmic granules loaded with toxic effector molecules

709
Q

what does stimulation of NK cells with IFN-α and IFN-β favor?

A

the development of the cell’s killer functions

710
Q

what does stimulation of NK cells with IL-12 favor?

A

the production of cytokines

711
Q

what is the principal cytokine released by NK cells?

A

IFN-γ/ type II interferon

712
Q

what is a major function of IFN-γ?

A

to activate macrophages

713
Q

what are the receptors on NK Cells?

A
  1. KAR- Killer activating receptor • 2. KIR- killer inhibiting receptor
714
Q

what ligands on target cells are recognized by NK cells?

A

KAL- Killer activating ligand

715
Q

what are some examples of KAL?

A

viral antigens • tumor antigens (stress protein) • MICA, MICB

716
Q

killing by NK cells is regulated by binding of what to what?

A

KAR to KAL • KIR to MHC I

717
Q

if a target cell expresses MHC I, will it be killed by NK or LAK cells?

A

no • MHC I binds Killer Inhibiting Receptor

718
Q

what types of cells express MHC-I?

A

normal cells constitutively express MHC-I molecules on their surface

719
Q

how do viruses and tumor affect MHC-I?

A

virus infected and malignant cells down regulate expression of class I MHC

720
Q

Infection of cells may lead to the surface expression of what?

A

stress molecules

721
Q

in response to viral infection, host cells may express what?

A

stress molecules: • MICA and MICB • and reduce surface expression of MHC-I

722
Q

what are MICA and MICB?

A

MHC class I chain-related Genes

723
Q

expression of MICA and MICB can be detected by what?

A

NK cells that seek to eliminate virally infected cells

724
Q

what happens if both KIR and KAR on the NK cell are bound?

A

if insufficient KIR-MHC-I binding occurs, the NK cell will proceed to kill the target host cell. • sufficient binding by KIRs will override the KAR kill signal, sparing the life of the host cell

725
Q

where are the MICA and MICB genes located?

A

within the HLA class I region of chromosome 6

726
Q

are MICA and MICB similar to HLA class I genes?

A

their organization, expression and products differ considerably from classical HLA class I genes.

727
Q

MICA and MICB are considered to be markers of what?

A

stress in the epithelia

728
Q

what do MICA and MICB act as?

A

ligands for cells expressing a common activatory natural killer cell receptor • —KALs—

729
Q

is the FasL on the NK cell or the target cell?

A

the NK cell

730
Q

is the Fas Receptor on the NK cell or the target cell?

A

target cell

731
Q

what are the 2 NK cell killing mechanisms?

A
  1. Granzymes • 2. FasL/FasR
732
Q

what is the mechanism of cell death induced by NK cells?

A

apoptosis

733
Q

what cell is responsible for phagocytosis of debris generated by NK cell killing?

A

macrophage

734
Q

Absent NK activity is a component of what disease?

A

immunodeficiency disease Chediak-Higashi syndrome

735
Q

what are the professional phagocytic cells?

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophils • mononuclear monocytes/macrophages

736
Q

which class of professional phagocytic cell are granulocytes?

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophils

737
Q

which class of professional phagocytic cells are agranulocytes?

A

mononuclear monocytes/macrophages

738
Q

do professional phagocytic cells circulate in blood?

A

PMN- circulate in blood • monocytes- circulate in blood • macrophages-reside in tissues

739
Q

which of the professional phagocytic cells is more committed to phagocytic activity?

A

PMNs- mainly phagocytic • Mononuclear monocytes- have function other than phagocytosis

740
Q

what are the functions of mononuclear monocytes/macrophages other than phagocytosis?

A
  1. produce inflammatory cytokines • 2. clear debris and damaged tissue • 3. link innate to adaptive immunity
741
Q

what is the lifespan of the professional phagocytic cells?

A

PMN’s live <2days • MM/M’s live months-years

742
Q

what are the inflammatory cytokines produced by MM/M’s

A

IL8 • IL1 • IL6 • TNFα

743
Q

what is the morphology of PMN’s?

A

variable and irregular shape of nucleus, contain granules

744
Q

when are PMN’s found in the tissues?

A

not found in healthy tissue, but when there is infection they enter tissue

745
Q

what calls the PMN’s to enter the tissues?

A

cytokines produced by the macrophages

746
Q

which professional phagocytic cells set the stage for tissue repair?

A

macrophages

747
Q

which professional phagocytic cells clear tissue of products of inflammation and of remaining microbes?

A

macrophages

748
Q

What are the 2 major mechanisms by which immune cells recognize pathogens in innate immunity?

A
  1. Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR) • 2. Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMP)
749
Q

where are PRR’s found?

A

on the surface of immune cells and soluble molecules

750
Q

what are some examples of cellular PRR’s?

A
  1. Toll Like Receptors (TLR’s) • 2. Complement Receptors (CR3 and CR4) • 3. Mannose Receptor • 4. Glucan Receptor • 5. CD14, LPS Receptor • 6. Receptor/Scavenger Protein
751
Q

what is an example of a soluble PRR?

A

complement

752
Q

where are PAMP’s found?

A

on the surfaces of microbes or microbial products

753
Q

what are examples of PAMP’s?

A
  1. LPS of gram negatives • 2. Lipoteichoic acid of gram positives • 3. Lipoarabinoman of acid fast bacteria • 4. Mannose in glycolipids and glycopeptides (surface antigens) • 5. N-Formyl methionine peptides (soluble factor) • 6. dsRNA, ssDNA of viruses • 7. bacterial and viral unmethylated CpG DNA • 8. Bacterial Flagellin • 9. Glucans from fungal cell walls
754
Q

which PAMP is associated with gram negative bacteria?

A

LPS

755
Q

which PAMP is associated with gram positive bacteria?

A

Lipoteichoic acid • peptidoglycan

756
Q

which PAMP is associated with acid fast bacteria?

A

Lipoarabinomannan

757
Q

which PAMP’s are assciated with surface antigens?

A

mannose in glycolipids and glycopeptides (surface antigens)

758
Q

which PAMP is evidence of prokaryotic proteins?

A

N-formyl methionine

759
Q

what is innate immunity designed to recognize?

A

molecules shared by groups of related microbes that are essential for the survival of those organisms and are not found associated with mammalian cells.

760
Q

what are PAMP’s?

A

unique molecules shared by groups of related microbes that are essential for the survival of those organisms and are not found associated with mammalian cells

761
Q

what molecules on human cells can act as PAMP’s?

A

DAMP’s (Damage Associated Molecular Pattern)

762
Q

how do toll like receptors sense infections?

A

with a horseshoe shaped structure- transmembrane polypeptides with pathogen recognition domain and a signalling domain

763
Q

where might TLR’s be expressed?

A
  1. cell surface • 2. endosomes in the cytoplasm
764
Q

what are the structural variations possible in TLR’s?

A
  1. single polypeptide • 2. homodimer • 3. heterodimer
765
Q

which TLR is typically found as homodimer?

A

TLR4-TLR4

766
Q

which TLR is typically found as heterodimer?

A

TLR1-TLR2

767
Q

what are the ligands of the TLR1:TLR2 heterodimer?

A

Lipopeptides • GPI

768
Q

what are the microorganisms recognized by TLR1:TLR2 heterodimer?

A

Bacteria • Parasites like trypanosomes

769
Q

what cells carry the TLR1:TLR2 heterodimer?

A

monocytes • dendritic cells • eosinophils • basophils • mast cells

770
Q

what are the ligands of the TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer?

A

lipoteichoic acid • zymosan

771
Q

what are the microorganisms recognized by the TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer?

A

gram-positive bacteria • yeasts (fungi)

772
Q

what are the cells carrying the TLR2:TLR6 heterodimer?

A

monocytes • dendritic cells • eosinophils • basophils • mast cells

773
Q

what is the ligand of TLR3?

A

viral dsRNA

774
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by TLR3?

A

viruses (west nile)

775
Q

what cells carry TLR3?

A

NK cells

776
Q

what is the ligand of the TLR4:TLR4 homodimer?

A

lipopolysaccharide

777
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by the TLR4:TLR4 homodimer?

A

gram-negative bacteria

778
Q

what cells carry the TLR4:TLR4 homodimer?

A

macrophages • dendritic cells • mast cells • eosinophils

779
Q

what is the ligand of TLR5?

A

Flagellin

780
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by TLR5?/

A

motile bacteria havign a flagellum

781
Q

what cells carry TLR5?

A

intestinal epithelia

782
Q

what is the ligand of TLR7?

A

viral ssRNA

783
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by TLR7?

A

viruses like HIV

784
Q

what cells carry TLR7?

A

plasmacytoid dendritic cells • NK cells • eosinophils • B cells

785
Q

what is the ligand of TLR8?

A

viral ssRNA

786
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by TLR8?

A

viruses like influenza

787
Q

what cells carry TLR8?

A

NK cells

788
Q

what is the ligand of TLR9?

A

unmethylated CpG-rich DNA

789
Q

what microorganisms are recognized by TLR9?

A

Bacteria • viruses like herpes

790
Q

what cells carry TLR9?

A

plasmacytoid dendritic cells • B cells • eosinophils • basophils

791
Q

what is the ligand and microorganism of TLR10 homodimer and heterodimers with TLR1 and TLR2?

A

unknown

792
Q

which cells carry TLR10?

A

plasmacytoid dendritic cells • basophils • eosinophils • B cells

793
Q

what TLRs are carried by NK cells?

A

TLR3 • TLR7 • TLR8

794
Q

what TLRs are carried by monocytes?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6

795
Q

what TLRs are carried by dendritic cells?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6 • TLR4:TLR4

796
Q

what TLRs are carried by eosinophils?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6 • TLR4:TLR4 • TLR7 • TLR9 • TLR10 • TLR10:TLR1 • TLR10:TLR2

797
Q

what TLRs are carried by basophils?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6 • TLR9 • TLR10 • TLR10:TLR1 • TLR10:TLR2

798
Q

what TLRs are carried by mast cells?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6 • TLR4:TLR4

799
Q

what TLRs are carried by macrophages?

A

TLR4:TLR4

800
Q

what TLRs are carried by plasmacytoid dendritic cells?

A

TLR7 • TLR9 • TLR10 • TLR10:TLR1 • TLR10:TLR2

801
Q

what TLRs are carried by intestinal epithelia?

A

TLR5

802
Q

what TLRs are carried by B cells?

A

TLR7 • TLR9 • TLR10 • TLR10:TLR1 • TLR10:TLR2

803
Q

which TLRs are found on cell surfaces?

A

TLR1:TLR2 • TLR2:TLR6 • TLR5 • TLR4

804
Q

which TLRs are found inside the cytoplasm in endosome?

A

TLR7 • TLR8 • all the TLRs that recognize viral nucleic acids

805
Q

What are the 2 possible fates of PRR+PAMP (danger signal)?

A
  1. phagocytosis and killing • 2. cytokine production (inflammatory cytokines)
806
Q

what do SOS signals include?

A

PAMP containing peptides released by bacteria • clotting system peptides • complement products • cytokines released from tissue macrophages that have encountered bacteria

807
Q

phagocytic cells have what receptors on their cell membranes through which infectious agents bind to the cells?

A
  1. complement receptors • 2. scavenger receptors • 3. toll like receptors
808
Q

which component of complement do phagocytic cells have a receptor for?

A

C3b

809
Q

binding of C3b coated bacteria to the receptor on phagocytic cells results in what?

A

enhanced phagocytosis and stimulation of the respiratory burst

810
Q

what do scavenger receptors on phagocytic cells bind to?

A

a wide variety of polyanions on bacterial surfaces, resulting in phagocytosis of the bacteria

811
Q

binding of infectious agents via toll like receptors on phagocytic cells results in what?

A

phagocytosis and the release of inflammatory cytokines by the phagocytes

812
Q

what are the inflammatory cytokines released by phagocytic cells in response to TLR binding?

A

IL1 • TNFα • IL6

813
Q

how does the Fc receptor work in adaptive initiation?

A

bacteria with IgG antibody on their surface have the Fc region exposed and this part of the Ig molecule can bind to the receptor on phagocytes

814
Q

binding of IgG coated bacteria to Fc receptors on phago cytic cells results in what?

A

enhanced phagocytosis and activation of the metabolic activity of phagocytes (respiratory burst)

815
Q

what does PAMP-PRR engagement do to phagocytes?

A

activates phagocytes to ingest and degrade the microbes

816
Q

what happens in phagocytosis of a bacterium?

A
  1. attachment of bacterium • 2. phagocyte begins to extend pseudopods around the bacterium • 3. pseudopods surround and engulf the bacterium • 4. bacterium is enclosed in a phagosome • 5. granules or lysosomes of the phagocyte fuse with the phagosome and empty their contents • 6. result is beacterium engulfed in phagolysosome which contains the contents of the granules or lysosomes
817
Q

sensing of LPS by TLR4 on macrophages leads to what?

A

activation of the transcription factor NFκB and the synthesis of inflammatory cytokines

818
Q

what does NFκΒ do in the nucleus of a macrophage?

A

activates transcription of genes for inflammatory cytokines, which are synthesized in the cytoplasm and secreted via the ER

819
Q

PRR+PAMP sends signaling –> what?

A

cytokine production

820
Q

what are the steps in phagocytosis by PMN’s?

A
  1. bacterium is phagocytosed by neutrophil • 2. phagosome fuses with azurophilic and specific granules • 3. pH of phagosome rises, antimicrobial response is activated, bacterium is killed • 4. pH of phagosome decreases, fusion with lysosome allows acid hydrolases to degrade the bacterium completely • 5. neutrophil dies by apoptosis and is phagocytosed by macrophage
821
Q

why do neutrophils die?

A

the mature neutrophil cannot replenish its granule content, so once they are used up the neutrophils die by apoptosis and are cleared by macrophages

822
Q

what do the contents of neutrophils’ granules kill?

A
  • microbes intracellularly during phagocytosis • - released extracellularly where they kill not only microbes but also surrounding cells and tissue
823
Q

what are the 2 major types of neutrophil granules?

A
  1. primary (azurophil) • 2. secondary (specific)
824
Q

what are the contents of a primary granule in a neutrophil?

A
  1. proteases • a. elastase • b. cathepsin G • 2. hydrolases • 3. myeloperoxidase • 4. defensins • 5. lysozyme • 6. BPI (bactericidal permeability increasing protein)
825
Q

what keeps the contents of a primary granule inactive in a resting neutrophil ?

A

low pH

826
Q

what are the contents of a secondary granule in a neutrophil?

A
  1. lactoferrin • 2. lysozyme • 3. collagenase • 4. components of the NADPH oxidase system
827
Q

what does BPI do?

A

binds to LPS and kills gram negative bacteria

828
Q

what 2 mechanisms make up intracellular killing in neutrophils?

A
  1. preformed compounds • 2. production of antimicrobial compounds
829
Q

do preformed compounds in intracellular killing by neutrophils require oxygen?

A

no they are oxygen independent

830
Q

where are preformed compounds in intracellular killing in neutrophils stored?

A

they are stored in cytoplasmic granules

831
Q

do the antimicrobial compounds produced in intracellular killing in neutrophils require oxygen?

A

they are oxygen dependent • RESPIRATORY BURST

832
Q

what is bystander damage?

A

when compounds involved in intracellular killing by neutrophils are released to the surrounding tissue and cause damage

833
Q

what are the oxygen independent preformed microcidal compounds found in neutrophils that damage microbial membranes?

A
  1. Cathepsin G • 2. Low molecular weight defensins • 3. high molecular weight cationic proteins • 4. bactericidal permeability • 5. BPI
834
Q

what are the oxygen independent microcidal compounds in neutrophils that split mucopeptide in bacterial cell walls?

A

lysozyme

835
Q

what oxygen independent microcidal compounds in neutrophils complex with iron?

A

lactoferrin

836
Q

what oxygen independent microcidal compounds in neutrophils digest killed organisms?

A

proteolytic enzymes • other hydrolytic enzymes

837
Q

how does lactoferrin exert its microcidal effect?

A

it chelates iron, which deprives bacteria of this required nutrient

838
Q

which intracellular killing mechanism is more efficient, oxygen dependent or independent?

A

oxygen dependent

839
Q

can patients with defects in oxygen dependent mechanism of itnracellular killing still kill bacteria?

A

yes

840
Q

patients with defects in oxygen dependent microcidal pathways have what problem?

A

they are more susceptible and get more serious infections

841
Q

What are three reactions involving superoxide and hydrogen peroxide in the oxygen dependent respiratory burst?

A

-

842
Q

how is glucose metabolized during phagocytosis?

A

via the Pentose phosphate pathway and NADPH is formed

843
Q

what is the respiratory burst

A

the increase in glucose and oxygen consumption during phagocytosis

844
Q

what is the consequence of the respiratory burst?

A

a number of oxygen containing compounds are produced which kill the bacteria being phagocytosed

845
Q

what are the 2 types of oxygen dependent intracellular killing?

A
  1. oxygen dependent myeloperoxidase-independent intracellular killing • 2. oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase-dependent intracellular killing
846
Q

what is the role of cytochrome B in oxygen-dependent myeloperoxidase-independent intracellular killing?

A

cytochrome B, which was part of the specific granule, combines with the plasma membrane NADPH oxidase and activates it

847
Q

what does NADPH oxidase do?

A

the activated NADPH oxidase uses oxygen to oxidize the NADPH, resulting in the production of a superoxide ion, some of which is converted to H2O2 and singlet oxygen by superoxide dismutase

848
Q

what is the product of the reaction between H2O2 and superoxide?

A

hydroxyl radical and singlet oxygen

849
Q

what are the toxic oxygen species produced in oxygen dependent myeloperoxidase independent intracellular killing?

A

O2- (superoxide ion) • H2O2 • OH* (hydroxyl radical)

850
Q

when is myeloperoxidase released into the phagolysosome in oxygen dependent myeloperoxidase dependent intracellular killing?

A

as the azurophilic granules fuse with the phagosome

851
Q

what does myeloperoxidase do?

A

utilized H2O2 and halide ions (Cl-) to produce hypochlorite, a highly toxic substance

852
Q

what happens when some of the hypochlorite produced in oxygen dependent myeloperoxidase dependent intracellular killing breaks down spontaneously?

A

yields singlet oxygen

853
Q

what are the toxic species produced in oxygen dependent myeloperoxidase dependent intracellular killing?

A

OCl- • singlet oxygen

854
Q

activated macrophages (via PRR or INFγ) express high levels of what enzyme?

A

nitric oxide synthase

855
Q

is NO+O2- more or less toxic?

A

NAME?

856
Q

which TNF is associated with increased expression of iNOS by macrophages?

A

TNFα

857
Q

how does TNFα affect production of Nitric Oxide?

A

TNF acts in an autocrine manner to induce the expression of the iNOS gene, resulting in the production of NO

858
Q

what is the toxicity of NO in macrophages?

A

nitric oxide released is toxic and can kill microorganisms in the vicinity of the macrophage

859
Q

what are the pro-inflammatory cytokines released by macrophages?

A

IL6 • TNF α • IL1β • CXCL8 • IL12

860
Q

what are the systemic effects of IL6 released by macrophages?

A
  1. fever • 2. induces acute phase protein production by hepatocytes
861
Q

what are the local effects of TNFα released by macrophages?

A

activates vascular endothelium and increases vascular permeability, which leads to increased entry of complement and cells to tissues and increased fluid drainage into lymph nodes

862
Q

what are the systemic effects of TNFα released by macrophages?

A
  1. Fever • 2. Mobilization of metabolites • 3. Shock
863
Q

what are the local effects of IL1β released by macrophages?

A
  1. activates vascular endothelium • 2. activates lymphocytes • 3. local tissue destruction • 4. increases access of effector cells
864
Q

what are the systemic effects of IL1β released by macrophages?

A
  1. fever • 2. production of IL6
865
Q

what are the local effects of CXCL8 released by macrophages?

A

chemotactic factor recruits neutrophils and basophils to site of infection

866
Q

what are the local effects of IL12 released by macrophages?

A

activates NK cells

867
Q

what was CXCL8 previously known as?

A

IL8

868
Q

where does oxygen independent and dependent intracellular killing take place?

A

inside phagolysosome

869
Q

where does nitric-oxide dependent killing take place?

A

inside phagolysosome and cytosol

870
Q

what does a defect in NADPH oxidase cause?

A

chronic granulomatous disease

871
Q

what are the 8 steps of phagocytosis of a bacterium by a phagocyte?

A
  1. chemotaxis • 2. adherence through PAMP recognition • 3. membrane activation through danger signal • 4. initiation of phagocytosis • 5. phagosome formation • 6. fusion • 7. killing and digestion • 8. release of degradation products
872
Q

at what step of phagocytosis does tissue damage known as bystander damage take place?

A

release of degradation products

873
Q

what does the complement system consist of?

A

several proteins, about 30, circulating in blood plasma, lymph and extracellular fluids

874
Q

how are complement proteins designated?

A

C#…C1, C2, C3 • factor ALPHA… factor B, factor H

875
Q

what produces complement proteins?

A

liver cells • monocytes • macrophages • gut epithelial cells

876
Q

are complement proteins heat stable or heat labile?

A

heat-labile

877
Q

how are complement proteins activated?

A

most of these are proenzymes, inactive until they are cleaved (complement activation)

878
Q

what triggers complement activation?

A

microbial substances • immune complex (antigen + antibody)

879
Q

how are cleavage products of complement activation designated?

A

split products are distinguished from the parent pro-enzyme by suffix lower case letters: • C3–> C3a + C3b

880
Q

what happens to complement proteins when they are cleaved?

A

they become active enzymes, proteases, “convertase” that act on other complement components

881
Q

In what fashion does complement activation take place?

A

in a sequential fashion

882
Q

describe the cascade fashion in which complement activation takes place

A

many components of the system serve as the substrate of a prior component and then as an enzyme to activate a subsequent component

883
Q

what does C’-fixation mean?

A

utilization of C’ by antigen-antibody complexes

884
Q

what are the 3 activation pathways of the complement system?

A
  1. classic • 2. alternative • 3. lectin/mannan pathway
885
Q

in which type of immunity are the 3 activation pathways of the complement system involved?

A

innate and adaptive immunity

886
Q

what are the major functions of the 3 activation pathways of the complement system?

A
  1. inflammation- vasodilation • 2. chemotaxis- attraction of cells of the immune system • 3. killing of pathogen cells by lysis • 4. opsonization- enhancing phagocytosis
887
Q

what is an opsonin?

A

any molecule that targets an antigen for an immune response

888
Q

what happens in the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

pathogen surface creates local environment conducive to complement activation

889
Q

which of the pathways of complement activation is first to act?

A

alternative pathway

890
Q

what happens in the lectin pathway of complement activation?

A

mannose binding lectin binds to pathogen surface

891
Q

which of the pathways of complement activation is second to act?

A

lectin pathway

892
Q

what happens in the classical pathway of complement activation?

A

C-reactive protein or antibody binds to specific antigen on pathogen surface

893
Q

which of the pathways of complement activation is the 3rd to act?

A

Classical Pathway

894
Q

what happens in complement activation as a result of all 3 pathways of complement activation?

A

cleavage of C3 to C3a and C3b • C3b covalently bound to surface components of pathogen

895
Q

what 3 things happens as a result of C3 cleavage and C3b binding to surface components of pathogen?

A
  1. recruitment of inflammatory cells • 2. opsonization of pathogens, facilitating uptake and killing by phagocytes • 3. perforation of pathogen cell membranes • …which collectively cause the death of the pathogen
896
Q

what are the key steps in all pathways of complement activation?

A
  1. initiation • 2. formation of the C3 convertase • 3. formation of the C5 convertase • 4. all pathways feed into terminal or membrane attack complex formation
897
Q

is the alternative pathway part of the innate or adaptive immune response?

A

part of the innate immune response

898
Q

what happens in the initiation of the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

spontaneous cleavage of C3 at low rate in plasma: • - C3b gets inactivated in plasma, but: • –if it binds human cells, it is inactivated by complement regulator proteins produced by host cells. • – if it binds to the surface of foreign microorganisms, it gets stabilized

899
Q

what are examples of specific molecules on the surface of microorganism required for the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A
  1. peptidoglycan • 2. teichoic acids • 3. lipolysaccharides
900
Q

what triggers the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

C3 hydrolysis directly on the surface of a pathogen

901
Q

what does the alternative pathway of complement activation not rely on, that the other pathways do rely on?

A

pathogen-binding protein

902
Q

where is C3 produced and cleaved in the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

protein C3 is produced in the liver and is then cleaved into C3a and C3b by enzymes in the blood

903
Q

what happens to C3a and C3b if there is no pathogen in the blood?

A

the C3a and C3b protein fragments will be deactivated

904
Q

what happens in the alternative pathway if there is a nearby pathogen?

A
  1. some of the C3b is bound to the plasma membrane of the pathogen. • 2. it will bind factor B • 3. this complex will be cleaved by factor D into Ba and the alternative pathway C3-convertase, Bb
905
Q

what does C3bBb do?

A

The C3bBb complex, which is ‘hooked’ onto the surface of the pathogen, will act like a chain saw, catalyzing the hydrolysis of C3 in the blood to C3a and C3b, which positively affects the number of C3bBb hooked onto a pathogen.

906
Q

what happens after hydrolysis of C3 in the alternative pathway of complement activation/

A

C3b complexes to become C3bBbC3b, which cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b.

907
Q

C5a and C3a are known to trigger what?

A

mast cell degranulation

908
Q

what is a membrane attack complex and how is it formed?

A

C5b, with C6, C7, C8, C9 (C5b6789) complex to form the MAC, which is inserted into the cell membrane, punches a hole, and initiates cell lysis.

909
Q

which pathway provides another means of protection against certain pathogens before an antibody response is mounted?

A

the alternative pathway of C activation

910
Q

what does a deficiency of C3 cause?

A

increased susceptibility to the organisms that activate the alternative pathway

911
Q

which is the most primitive of the complement activation pathways?

A

alternative pathway

912
Q

what are the benefits of the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

provides a means of non-specific resistance against infection without the participation of antibodies and hence provides a first line of defense against a number of infectious agents.

913
Q

which protein has been extensively studied for its ability to activate the alternative pathway ?

A

cobra venom factor (CVF)

914
Q

what happens when C3b associates with C3bBb?

A

C3BbCBb is formed

915
Q

what is C3bBbCBb?

A

a C5 convertase

916
Q

what kind of organisms activate the alternative pathway?

A
  1. many Gram-negative bacteria (most significantly, Neisseria meningitidis and N. gonorrhoea) • 2. some Gram-positive • 3. certain viruses and parasites
917
Q

In serum there is a low level of spontaneous hydrolysis of C3 to produce what?

A

iC3

918
Q

Factor B binds to iC3 and becomes what?

A

susceptible to Factor D

919
Q

what does factor D cleave factor B into?

A

Bb

920
Q

what does the iC3Bb complex do?

A

acts as a convertase and cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b

921
Q

What does factor B do once Cb is formed by cleavage of C3?

A

Factor B will bind to C3b and becomes susceptible to cleavage by factor D, resulting in a C3bBb complex.

922
Q

what does the C3bBb complex generate?

A

more C3b, thus amplifying C3b production

923
Q

what happens if C3 activation continues unchecked?

A

consumption of all C3 in the serum

924
Q

what role does properdin play in alternative pathway control?

A

properdin stabilizes C3 convertase C3bBb

925
Q

what are the roles of factors H and I in the control of the alternative pathway?

A

destabilization/destruction: • inactivation of C3b by factor H and I to give fragment iC3b

926
Q

what does deficiency of factor H and I lead to?

A

depletion of C • fail to control infections

927
Q

what role does DAF, MCP play in control of the alternative pathway

A

destabilization/destruction: • DAF and MCP disrupt C3 convertase C3bBb on a human cell surface

928
Q

what does deficiency of DAF, MCP lead to?

A

destruction of self cells

929
Q

What is DAF?

A

decay accelerating factor

930
Q

What is MCP?

A

membrane co-factor protein

931
Q

how do factor H and I avoid excessive usage and depletion of C3 from the plasma?

A

by inactivating C3b and preventing further cleavage of C3

932
Q

when faced with bacterial infection, patients with factor H/I deficiency run out of C3 and fail to control infections, especially with WHICH TYPE of bacteria?

A

capsulated bacteria which require opsonization for elimination by phagocytic cells

933
Q

what is the role of i3Cb?

A

deposited on surface of pathogens • serves as opsonin • facilitate phagocytosis by binding to CR3 and CR4 (complement receptors) on phagocytic cells.

934
Q

what are the 2 main features of membrane attack complex formation (pathway)?

A
  1. initiated by the formation of C5 convertase • 2. requires the presence of an accessible phospholipid membrane on the target cell on which to build the pore complex
935
Q

what does formation of the c5 convertase trigger in the MAC formation (pathway)?

A

the association of a group of complement proteins which do not undergo cleavage but are active as intact proteins which build a transmembrane pore (MAC) in the target cell, resulting in leakage of cytoplasmic contents

936
Q

what are examples of microbes resistant to MAC?

A
  1. encapsulated bacteria • 2. gram positive bacteria • 3. un-enveloped viruses
937
Q

what happens in the Membrane Attack (lytic) Pathway?

A
  1. C5 convertase from the alternative (C3bBb3b) pathway cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b. • 2. C5a remains in the fluid phase and the C5b rapidly associates with C6 and C7 and inserts into the membrane. • 3. C8 binds, followed by several molecules of C9. • 4. The C9 molecules form a pore in the membrane through which the cellular contents leak and lysis occurs.
938
Q

is membrane attack pathway lysis an enzymatic process?

A

no: • it is thought to be due to physical damage to the membrane

939
Q

what is the complex consisting of C5bC6C7C8C9 referred to as?

A

the membrane attack complex

940
Q

what are some of the potent biological activities of C5 generated in the lytic pathway?

A
  1. it is the most potent anaphylotoxin • 2. it is a chemotactic factor for neutrophils and stimulates the respiratory burst in them • 3. it stimulates inflammatory cytokine production by macrophages
941
Q

the activities of C5 generated in the lytic pathway are controlled by what?

A

carboxypeptidase B (C3-INA)

942
Q

what intermediate of the lytic pathway can dissociate from the membrane and enter the fluid phase?

A

C5b67, the dissociation of which could cause damage to bystander cells

943
Q

damage to bystander cells by C5b67 from the lytic pathway which has dissociated from the membrane is prevented by what?

A

Protein S (vitronectin): • Protein S binds to soluble C5b67 and prevents it from binding other cells

944
Q

what binds to the C5b678 complex on human cells and prevents recruitment of C9 to form the pore?

A

CD59

945
Q

what are the main features of the lectin (mannan) pathway?

A
  1. part of the innate immune response • 2. nonspecific • 3. initiated when MBL binds to mannose or GlcNAc residues on microorganisms
946
Q

what does initiation of the lectin (mannan) pathway activate?

A

MBL-associated serine proteases (MASPs) which split C4 and C2 to form C3 convertase

947
Q

what happens after the initiation of the lectin (mannan) pathway creates the C3 convertase?

A
  1. C3b is produced • 2. the C5 convertase (C4b, C2a, C3b) is formed and the MAC complex begins
948
Q

To which other complement activation pathway is the Lectin pathway most similar?

A

the classical pathway

949
Q

how is the Lectin pathway initiated?

A

by the binding of MBL to bacterial surfaces with mannose containing polysaccharides.

950
Q

what are mannans?

A

mannose containing polysaccharides

951
Q

binding of MBL to a pathogen results in what?

A

association of 2 serine proteases: • 1. MASP-1 • 2. MASP-2

952
Q

what other proteins are MASP-1 and MASP-2 similar to?

A

C1r and C1s

953
Q

what protein is MBL similar to?

A

C1q

954
Q

formation of the MBL/MASP-1/MASP-2 trimolecular complex results in what?

A

the activation of the MASP’s and subsequent cleavage of C4 into C4a and C4b

955
Q

what happens to the C4a/b fragments formed by cleavage of C4 in the Lectin pathway?

A
  1. the C4b fragment binds to the membrane • 2. C4a fragment is released into the microenvironment
956
Q

in addition to cleaving C4 in the Lectin pathway, MASP’s also cleave what?

A

C2 into C2a and C2b

957
Q

what do C2a and C2b cleaved by the MASP’s in the Lectin pathway do?

A
  1. C2a binds to the membrane in association with C4b. • 2. C2b is released into the microenvironment
958
Q

what is the function of the C4bC2a complex in the Lectin pathway?

A

it is a C3 convertase which cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b

959
Q

what happens to C3a and C3b formed from cleavage by C4bC2a in the Lectin pathway?

A
  1. C3b binds to the membrane in association with C4b and C2a. • 2. C3a is released into the microenvironment
960
Q

what is the function of C4bC2aC3b complex in the Lectin pathway?

A

C5 convertase

961
Q

what is the end of the Lectin pathway?

A

generation of the C5 convertase

962
Q

What are Ficolins?

A

a group of oligomeric lectins with subunits consisting of both collagen (Col)-like long thin stretches and fibrinogen (Fi)-like globular domains with lectin (Lin) activity usually specific for N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc)

963
Q

what are Ficolins similar to?

A

ficolins are homologous to MBL and function via MASP in a similar way

964
Q

what do ficolins do in non-vertebrates without an adaptive immune system?

A

ficolins are expanded and their binding specificities diversified to compensate for the lack of pathogen-specific recognition molecules

965
Q

the biological activities and the regulatory proteins of the Lectin pathway are the same as those of what pathway?

A

the classical pathway

966
Q

Is the classical pathway part of innate or adaptive immunity?

A

both

967
Q

why is the classical pathway ‘specific’?

A

due to the requirement of antibodies bound to the surface of particulate antigen

968
Q

the classical pathway is activated by what?

A

Antigen-Antibody

969
Q

the ‘innate’ classical pathway is activated by what?

A

C-reactive protein bound to pathogens

970
Q

what complement protein does the classical pathway require?

A

C1

971
Q

what is C1 composed of?

A

C1q • C1r • C1s

972
Q

what is the best activator of the classical pathway?

A

IgM

973
Q

what are the weaker activators of the classical pathway?

A

some classes of bound IgG: • IgG3,1,2

974
Q

What does the C1-complex consist of?

A

one molecule of C1q and two molecules of C1r and C1s

975
Q

how is the classical pathway triggered?

A

by activation of the C1 complex

976
Q

how is the C1-complex activated?

A
  1. C1q’a binding to antibodies from classes M and G complexed with antigens • or • 2. binding of C1q to the surface of the pathogen
977
Q

the binding of C1q to the antibodies or the surface of the pathogen leads to what?

A
  1. conformational changes in C1q molecule, which leads to the activation of two C1r molecules. • 2. then C1r cleaves C1s
978
Q

what does the C1-complex do after 2 C1r’s cleave 2 C1s’s in the classical pathway?

A

the complex now binds to and splits C2 and C4, producing C2a and C4b

979
Q

the inhibition of C1r and C1s is controlled by what?

A

C1-inhibitor

980
Q

in the classical pathway, what molecules bind to form the C3 convertase?

A

C4b and C2a

981
Q

which protein is larger, C2a or C2b?

A

C2a

982
Q

what signals the end of the classical pathway?

A

production of the C3 convertase, but cleavage of C3 by this enzyme brings us to the start of the Alternative pathway

983
Q

to what 2 things does C1 bind in the same way?

A

IgM and C-reactive protein

984
Q

what are the 2 types of C3 convertase?

A
  1. Lectin and Classical- C4bC2a • 2. Alternative- C3bBb
985
Q

what are the types of C5 convertase?

A
  1. Lectin and Classical- C2a4b3b • 2. Alternative- C3bBb3b
986
Q

what does C4-BP inhibit?

A

C4b

987
Q

What are the components of the Alternative pathway?

A

C3 • Factor B • Factor D • Properdin

988
Q

what are the components of the Classical Pathway?

A

C1 • C4 • C2 • C3

989
Q

what are the components of the Lectin pathway?

A

MBL • MASP-1 • MASP-2 • C4 • C2 • C3

990
Q

is the Alternative pathway antibody initiated?

A

NO

991
Q

is the Classical Pathway Antibody initiated?

A

YES

992
Q

is the Lectin Pathway Antibody Initiated?

A

NO

993
Q

is the alternative pathway initiated by pathogen surfaces?

A

yes

994
Q

is the classical pathway initiated by pathogen surfaces?

A

Yes via antibody attachment or CRP

995
Q

is the Lectin pathway initiated by pathogen surfaces?

A

yes

996
Q

is there anaphylotoxin generation in the alternative pathway?

A

yes

997
Q

is there anaphylotoxin generation in the classical pathway?

A

yes

998
Q

is there anaphylotoxin generation in the lectin pathway?

A

yes

999
Q

what is anaphylotoxin?

A

C3a • C5a

1000
Q

does the alternative pathway feed into the MAC?

A

yes

1001
Q

does the classical pathway feed into the MAC?

A

yes

1002
Q

does the Lectin pathway feed into the MAC?

A

yes

1003
Q

what are the regulatory components of the alternative pathway?

A

Factor H • Factor I • DAF • CR1

1004
Q

what are the regulatory factors of the classical pathway?

A

C1-INH • C4-BP • Factor I

1005
Q

what are the regulatory components of the Lectin pathway?

A

C1-INH • C4-BP • Factor I

1006
Q

what type of pathogens do opsonization and MAC lysis target?

A

extracellular pathogens

1007
Q

what are anaphylotoxins?

A

inflammatory mediators

1008
Q

what type of anaphylotoxin is C4a?

A

a weak anaphylotoxin

1009
Q

what do anaphylotoxins do?

A
  1. mediate degranulation of mast cells, basophils, eosinophils- release of biologically active mediator (eg histamine) • 2. promote smooth muscle contraction- increase vasodilation and vascular permeability (edema, low BP) • 3. mediate chemotaxis of leukocytes to sites of infection- activate macrophages and neutrophils • 4. promote platelet aggregation
1010
Q

what does C5a do to C’ receptors?

A

increases expression of CR’s on inflammatory cells (neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, B cells)

1011
Q

describe the dose dependent action of anaphylotoxins

A

beneficial in low doses, cause anaphylaxis at high doses

1012
Q

What types of cells have C3a and C5a receptors?

A
  1. smooth muscle cells • 2. Mast cells • 3. basophils • 4. eosinophils • 5. endothelial cells • 6. phagocytic cells • 7. platelets
1013
Q

what is the effect of anaphylotoxins increasing vascular permeability?

A
  1. increased permeability allows increased fluid leakage from blood vessels and extravasation of complement and other plasma proteins at the site of infection • 2. Migration of monocytes and neutrophils from blood into tissue is increased
1014
Q

what is the binding action of the complement receptors on phagocytic cells?

A

CR1 binds to C3b • CR3 and CR4 binds to iC3b

1015
Q

what are the steps of opsonization and phagocytosis of bacteria?

A
  1. complement activation leads to deposition of C3b on the bacterial cell surface • 2. CR1 on macrophage binds C3b on bacterium • 3. endocytosis of the bacterium by the macrophage • 4. macrophage membranes fuse, creating a membrane-bounded vesicle, the phagosome • 5. Lysosomes fuse with the phagosomes forming the phagolysosome
1016
Q

Describe step-wise the role of complement in clearing immune complexes from the circulation

A
  1. circulating immune complexes become substrates for the activation of the classical pathway • 2. complement fragment C3b attaches to these immune complexes, mediating attachment of the complexes to RBCs via CR1. • 3. The RBC circulates the liver where CR1 acts as a cofactor for Factor I mediated cleavage of fragment C3b, forming the 2 products iC3b and C3f. • 4. iC3b is not bound by CR1, and so the RBC releases the immune complex, which is immediately bound by macrophages via CR3 or CR4. • 5. The macrophage ingests the immune complex
1017
Q

in the liver, CR1 acts as a cofactor for what cleavage reaction?

A

Factor I mediated cleavage of C3b

1018
Q

what are the products of factor I mediated cleavage of C3b in the liver?

A

iC3b • C3f

1019
Q

what happens to the complement level in the blood of patients with immune complex diseases?

A

patients with immune complex diseases will deplete their complement level in the blood

1020
Q

what is used in diagnosis of immune complex disease?

A

measurement of C2 and C4

1021
Q

What is the activity of C2b?

A

prokinin, accumulation of fluids

1022
Q

what is the effect of C2b?

A

edema

1023
Q

what are the control factors for C2b?

A

C1-INH

1024
Q

what is the activity of C3a?

A
  1. basophil and mast cell degranulation • 2. ennhanced vascular permeability • 3. enhanced smooth muscle contraction
1025
Q

what is the effect of C3a?

A

anaphylaxis

1026
Q

what are the control factors of C3a?

A

C3a-INA

1027
Q

what is the activity of C3b?

A

opsonin, phagocyte activation

1028
Q

what is the effect of C3b?

A

phagocytosis

1029
Q

what are the control factors of C3b?

A

Factors H and I

1030
Q

what is the activity of C4a?

A
  1. Basophil and mast cell degranulation • 2. enhanced vascular permeability • 3. enhanced smooth muscle contraction
1031
Q

what is the effect of C4a?

A

anaphylaxis (least potent)

1032
Q

what are the control factors of C4a?

A

C4-BP and Factor I

1033
Q

what is the activity of C5a?

A
  1. basophil and mast cell degranulation • 2. enhanced vascular permeability • 3. enhanced smooth muscle contraction • 4. chemotaxis • 5. stimulation of respiratory burst • 6. activation of phagocytes • 7. stimulation of inflammatory cytokines
1034
Q

what are the effects of C5a?

A

anaphylaxis (most potent) • inflammation

1035
Q

what are the anaphylactic activities of C5a?

A
  1. basophil and mast cell degranulation • 2. enhanced vascular permeability • 3. enhanced smooth muscle contraction
1036
Q

what are the inflammatory activities of C5a?

A
  1. chemotaxis • 5. stimulation of respiratory burst • 6. activation of phagocytes • 7. stimulation of inflammatory cytokines
1037
Q

what are the control factors of C5a?

A

C3a-INA

1038
Q

what happens to prokinin?

A

cleaved by plasmin to yield kinin, which results in edema

1039
Q

Which has a higher plasma concentration, complement control proteins or complement proteins?

A

complement control proteins

1040
Q

what is an example of a control protein present on the membrane of self-cells preventing them from being targeted by complement?

A

CD59, which inhibits C9 polymerization during formation of the MAC

1041
Q

What syndromes/disease states are caused by deficiency of Factors B or D in the alternative pathway?

A

susceptibility to pyogenic bacterial infections

1042
Q

what is the mechanism of disease developing in deficiency of Factors B or D in the alternative pathway?

A

Lack of sufficient opsonization of bacteria

1043
Q

what is caused by deficiency of C3 in the alternative pathway?

A

susceptibility to bacterial infections • glomerulonephritis • SLE

1044
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of C3 in the alternative pathway?

A

lack of opsonization and inability to utilize the membrane attack pathway

1045
Q

what is the most severe complement deficiency in the alternative pathway?

A

C3

1046
Q

what is caused by deficiency of C5, C6, C7, C8, C9 in the alternative pathway?

A

susceptibility to gram-negative bacterial infections

1047
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of C5,6,7,8,9 in the alternative pathway?

A

inability to attack the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria

1048
Q

what is caused by deficiency of properdin in the alternative pathway?

A

susceptibility to meningococcal meningitis

1049
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of properdin in the alternatie pathway?

A

lack of opsonization of bacteria

1050
Q

what is caused by deficiency of factors H and I in the alternative pathway?

A

C3 deficiency and susceptibility to bacterial infections

1051
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of factors H and I in the alternative pathway?

A

uncontrolled activation of C3 via alternative pathway resulting in depletion of C3

1052
Q

what is caused by deficiency of C1-INH in the classical pathway?

A

Hereditary Angioedema

1053
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of C1-INH in the classical pathway?

A

overproduction of C2b (prokinin)

1054
Q

what is caused by deficiency of C1, C2, C4 in the classical pathway?

A

predisposition to SLE

1055
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in the deficiency of C1,2,4 in the classical pathway?

A

opsonization of immune complexes helps keep them soluble, deficiency results in increased precipitation in tissues and inflammation

1056
Q

what is caused by deficiency of MBL in the Lectin pathway?

A

susceptibility to bacterial infections in infants or immunosuppressed

1057
Q

what is the mechanism of disease development in deficiency of MBL in the Lectin pathway?

A

inability to initiate the Lectin pathway

1058
Q

It is though that the complement system might play a role in what diseases with an immune component?

A
  1. Barraquer-Simons Syndrome • 2. Alzheimer’s disease • 3. asthma • 4. SLE • 5. various forms of arthritis • 6. autimmune heart disease • 7. multiple sclerosis
1059
Q

deficiencies in the terminal pathway predispose to what?

A

both autoimmune disease and infections (particularly meningitis)

1060
Q

what does host protective factor C1-INH do?

A

down-regulates the activity of the classical pathway of complement, the coagulation and kinin cascade

1061
Q

what is another name for C1-INH and how does it work?

A

AKA: Serpin • Serpin displaces C1rs from the C1qrs complex

1062
Q

how is Hereditary Angioneurotic Edema treated?

A

Danazol- promotes C1-INH production • ε-amino caproic acid- decreases plasmin activity

1063
Q

Does innate immunity refer to nonspecific or specific defense mechanisms?

A

nonspecific

1064
Q

does innate immunity have a limited or unlimited repertoire of recognition molecules?

A

limited

1065
Q

what is the timeframe for action of innate immunity?

A

acts immediately or within several hours

1066
Q

which is the immunity one is born with?

A

innate immunity

1067
Q

which immunity is the initial response by the body to eliminate microbes and prevent infection?

A

innate immunity

1068
Q

does innate immunity leave memory?

A

no

1069
Q

what are the 4 steps of the major function of innate immunity?

A
  1. recognition of the presence of a pathogen (foreign) • 2. recruitment of destructive effectors- mechanisms that kill and eliminate pathogens • 3. create communication mechanisms between the different parts of immune system- via cytokines • 4. activation of the specific immunity
1070
Q

what is included in the destructive effectors recruited in the 2nd step of the major function of innate immunity?

A

cells of different types • a battery of serum proteins

1071
Q

what are the general terms for the 3 layers of immunity?

A
  1. innate • 2. NK cells, eosinophils • 3. Adaptive
1072
Q

what makes up the nonspecific defenses, in general terms?

A
  1. Innate immunity • 2. NK cells, eosinophils
1073
Q

What makes up the specific defenses, in general terms?

A

adaptive immunity

1074
Q

which lines of defense make up the nonspecific defenses?

A
  1. First line • 2. Second line
1075
Q

what lines of defense make up the specific defenses?

A
  1. Third Line
1076
Q

what makes up the 1st line of defense in the layers of immunity?

A
  1. skin • 2. mucous membranes • 3. chemicals
1077
Q

what makes up the second line of defense in the layers of immunity?

A
  1. phagocytosis • 2. complement • 3. interferon • 4. inflammation • 5. fever
1078
Q

what makes up the 3rd line of defense in the layers of immunity?

A
  1. lymphocytes • 2. antibodies
1079
Q

What are the 4 classes of components of innate immunity?

A
  1. External Barriers • 2. Chemical Factors (soluble factors) • 3. Cellular Components • 4. Inflammation
1080
Q

what types of barriers make up the external barriers component of innate immunity?

A
  1. physical • 2. mechanical • 3. chemical • 4. microbiological (normal flora)
1081
Q

what makes up the chemical (soluble) factors component of innate immunity?

A
  1. interferons • 2. cytokines • 3. complement system • 4. acute phase proteins
1082
Q

what makes up the cellular component of innate immunity?

A
  1. degranulating cells • 2. non-phagocytic killing cells • 3. professional phagocytic cells
1083
Q

what types of cells make up the degranulating cells in innate immunity?

A
  1. mast cells • 2. eosinophils • 3. basophils
1084
Q

what do the degranulating cells of innate immunity do?

A

release biologically active mediators

1085
Q

what are the non-phagocytic killing cells of innate immunity?

A
  1. natural killer cells • 2. eosinophils
1086
Q

what are the professional phagocytic cells of innate immunity?

A
  1. neutrophils • 2. monocytes/macrophages • 3. dendritic cells
1087
Q

what does the inflammation component of innate immunity do?

A

brings the “actors to the stage” (site of infection or damaged tissue)

1088
Q

what structures and tracts make up the external barriers of innate immunity?

A
  1. hair • 2. skin • 3. nails • 4. eyes • 5. mammary glands • 6. respiratory tract • 7. gastrointestinal tract • 8. urogenital tract
1089
Q

what structures that make up the respiratory tract contribute to the external barrier component of innate immunity?

A
  1. sinuses • 2. trachea • 3. lungs
1090
Q

what structures of the urogenital tract contribute to the external barrier component of innate immunity?

A
  1. kidneys • 2. bladder • 3. vagina
1091
Q

what structures of the gastrointestinal tract contribute to the external barrier component of innate immunity?

A
  1. oral cavity • 2. esophagus • 3. stomach • 4. intestines
1092
Q

what makes up the mechanical component of the skin’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. epithelial cells joined by tight junctions • 2. flow of fluid • 3. perspiration • 4. sloughing off of skin
1093
Q

what makes up the chemical component of the skin’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. Sebum • 2. Defensins • 3. Lactoferrin • 4. Transferrin
1094
Q

What makes up Sebum?

A
  1. fatty acids • 2. lactic acid • 3. lysozyme
1095
Q

what makes up the microbiological component of the skin’s function as an external barrier?

A

normal flora of the skin

1096
Q

what are the mechanical components of the GI tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. epithelial cells joined by tight junctions • 2. flow of fluid, mucus, food, saliva
1097
Q

what are the chemical components of the GI tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. acidity • 2. enzymes (proteases) • 3. defensins • 4. Lactoferrin • 5. Transferrin
1098
Q

what are the microbiological components of the GI tract’s function as an external barrier?

A

normal flora of the GI tract

1099
Q

what involuntary actions contribute to the GI tact’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. vomiting • 2. diarrhea
1100
Q

what are the mechanical components of the respiratory tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. epithelial cells joined by tight junctions • 2. flow of fluid and mucus (by cilia) • 3. Air flow
1101
Q

what are the chemical components of the respiratory tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. lysozyme in nasal secretions • 2. defensins • 3. lactoferrin • 4. transferrin
1102
Q

what are the microbiological components of the repiratory tract’s function as an external barrier?

A

Normal Flora of the respiratory tract

1103
Q

what are the involuntary actions that contribute to the respiratory tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. coughing • 2. sneezing • 3. surfactants
1104
Q

what are the mechanical components of the urogenital tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. epithelial cells joined by tight junctions • 2. flow of fluid, urine, mucus, sperm
1105
Q

what makes up the chemicall component of the urogenital tract’s function as an external barrier?

A
  1. acidity in vaginal secretions • 2. spermine and zinc in semen • 3. defensins • 4. lactoferrin • 5. transferrin
1106
Q

what makes up the microbiological component of the urogenital tract’s function as an external barrier?

A

normal flora of the urogenital tract

1107
Q

what makes up the mechanical component of the eyes’ function as an external barrier?

A
  1. epithelial cells joined by tight junctions • 2. flow of fluid, tears
1108
Q

what makes up the chemical component of the eyes’ function as an external barrier?

A
  1. lysozyme in tears • 2. defensins • 3. lactoferrin • 4. transferrin
1109
Q

what makes up the microbiological component of the eyes’ function as an external barrier?

A

normal flora of the eyes

1110
Q

what mechanical component is common to the function as an external barrier of the skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, GU tract, eyes?

A

epithelial cells joined by tight junctions

1111
Q

what chemical component is common to the function as an external barrier of the skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, GU tract, Eyes?

A
  1. defensins • 2. lactoferrin • 3. transferrin
1112
Q

What are the mechanisms by which normal flora contribute to immunity?

A
  1. competitive exclusion • 2. space and nutrition • 3. pH • 4. bacteriocins • 5. stimulation of the immune system (physiological inflammation in the gut)
1113
Q

describe cytokines in terms of their size and solubility

A

cytokines are small soluble proteins

1114
Q

what is the specificity with which cytokines are produced and secreted?

A

cytokines are produced then secreted by many cell types: cells of the immune system and other cells

1115
Q

what is the function of cytokines in the immune system?

A

serve as messengers (hormones) of the immune system- • means of communication

1116
Q

how are cytokines generally synthesized and released?

A

most are synthesized and released upon cellular activation (induced) but a few are stored in a preformed state

1117
Q

what is the half life of cytokines like?

A

have a brief and limited half life

1118
Q

what do cytokines bind to?

A

specific receptors expressed on the membrane of a target cell or cells

1119
Q

what does the binding of cytokines to membrane receptors trigger?

A

triggers intracellular signaling cascades leading to changes in the target cell

1120
Q

what do cytokines do to the innate and adaptive immune responses?

A

induce, regulate and coordinate the innate and adaptive immune responses

1121
Q

cytokines can be divided into what 3 types of molecules?

A
  1. interleukins • 2. interferons • 3. chemokines
1122
Q

what are interleukins?

A

cytokines produced by leukocytes which act to regulate other leukocytes

1123
Q

what are interferons?

A

cytokines made by leukocytes and virally infected cells

1124
Q

what do interferons do?

A

contribute to cellular immunity to viral infection

1125
Q

what are chemokines?

A

cytokines that direct the flow of leukocytes movement (chemotactic activities)

1126
Q

what is the significance of the chemotaxis controlled by chemokines?

A

movement to site of infection, during development, and recirculation through lymphoid organs

1127
Q

how are interleukins that were named recently designated?

A

IL#

1128
Q

what are some examples of recently named interleukins?

A

IL1, IL6

1129
Q

how are interleukins that were named less recently designated?

A

they carry their original name

1130
Q

what are some examples of interleukins that carry their original name?

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor-α (TNF-α), Transforming Growth Factor-ß (TGF-ß)

1131
Q

how are interferons named?

A

Carry interferon designation plus α, β, γ, ..etc

1132
Q

what is an example of an interferon?

A

IFN-γ

1133
Q

how are chemokines named?

A

different groups based on the arrangement of pairs of cysteine residues

1134
Q

how are cysteines arranged in chemokines?

A

chemokines are small peptides with pairs of cysteine residues which are either adjacent (CC) or separated by another amino acid (CXC)

1135
Q

what are some examples of chemokines?

A

CC, CXC, CX3C

1136
Q

what is autocrine target activity?

A

bind to a receptor on the same cell that secreted it

1137
Q

what is paracrine target activity?

A

bind to a receptor on a target cell in close proximity to the cell that secreted it

1138
Q

what is endocrine target activity?

A

cytokine binds to target cells at distant sites from the cell that secreted it

1139
Q

what is the most common type of cytokine target activity?

A

paracrine

1140
Q

what is pleiotropy as it relates to cytokines?

A

one cytokine has different biological effects on different target cells

1141
Q

what is redundancy as it relates to cytokines?

A

two or more cytokines mediate similar or identical functions by binding to receptors on the same target cell

1142
Q

what is synergy as it relates to cytokines?

A

the combined effects of two or more cytokines on a target cell is greater than the additive effects of the individual cytokines

1143
Q

what is antagonism as it relates to cytokines?

A

the effects of one cytokine decrease or totally inhibit the effects of another cytokine

1144
Q

what does IL-4 do to a B cell?

A

Alter the form of the antibody molecule produced by an activated B cell to alter its biological properties

1145
Q

which interleukins show redundancy in that they all stimulate the proliferation of B cells?

A

IL-2 • IL-4 • IL-5

1146
Q

what is the effect of the synergistic action of IFN-gamma and TNF?

A

increased expression of class I MHC molecules on many cell types

1147
Q

what is the relationship between IFN-gamma and IL-10 in the way that they afffect macrophages?

A

IFN-gamma stimulates macrophage activation • IL-10 inhibits the activation of macrophages • —they are antagonists

1148
Q

how are cytokine receptors classified?

A

as families of receptors on the basis of structural composition

1149
Q

what are some examples of chemokine receptors?

A

CCR • CXCR

1150
Q

what family do interleukin receptors bind?

A

immunoglobulin superfamily

1151
Q

what is the signaling mechanism stimulated by binding to chemokine receptors?

A

signaling via G proteins/MAPK pathway

1152
Q

what is the signaling pathway stimulated by binding of interleukins?

A

JAK/STAT pathway

1153
Q

why are the receptor components of interleukin receptors members of the immunoglobulin family

A

due to the presence of an immunoglobulin fold

1154
Q

what are the steps of intracellular signaling using the jak-stat pathway?

A
  1. cytokine receptors consist of at least two chains, the cytoplasmic domains of which bind JAKs • 2. cytokine binding dimerizes the receptor, bringing together the cytoplasmic JAKs, which activate each other and phosphoylate the receptor • 3. STATs bind to the phosphorylated receptors and are in turn phosphorylated by the activated JAKs • 4. phosphorylated STATs form dimers and move into the nucleus to initiate gene transcription
1155
Q

type I interferon comprises what?

A

IFN α • IFN ß

1156
Q

what triggers type I interferon?

A

triggered by viral infection or signaling via a receptor

1157
Q

what is an example of something that triggers Type I interferon?

A

Ds RNA

1158
Q

what produces Type I interferon?

A

produced by cells infected by viruses

1159
Q

what does Type I interferon target?

A

targets intracellular pathogens such as viruses

1160
Q

what type I interferon interfere with ?

A

viral replication in an infected cell

1161
Q

what does type I interferon do to non infected neighboring cells?

A

warn non infected neighboring cells to get prepared

1162
Q

what does type I interferon do to infected cells?

A

makes infected cells more vulnerable for elimination by natural killer cells as well as cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8)

1163
Q

How does type I interferon stop viral replication by both infected and uninfected cells?

A

by inducing the production of proteins that: • 1. destroy viral mRNA • 2. inhibit protein synthesis by inactivating eIF-2

1164
Q

How does Type I interferon increase sensitivity to CD8?

A

increased expression of MHC I

1165
Q

What are the important classes of cytokines?

A

I. Growth Factors • II. Interleukins • III. Tumor Necrosis Factors • IV. Interferons • V. Chemokines

1166
Q

What are the Growth Factors relevant to the study of immunology?

A
  1. Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (G-CSF) • 2. Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony Stimulating Factor (GM-CSF) • 3. Transforming Growth Factor -β (TGF-β)
1167
Q

what are the interleukins relevant to the study of immunology?

A
  1. IL-1 • 2. IL-2 • 3. IL-3 • 4. IL-4 • 5. IL-5 • 6. IL-6 • 7. IL-7 • 8. IL-10 • 9. IL-12 • 10. IL-13 • 11. IL-17 • 12. IL-23
1168
Q

What are the Tumor Necrosis Factors relevant to the study of immunology?

A
  1. TNF- α • 2. TNF- β
1169
Q

What are the type I interferons relevant to the study of immunology?

A
  1. IFN-α • 2. IFN-β • 3. IFN-κ
1170
Q

what are the type II interferons relevant to the study of immunology?

A

IFN-γ

1171
Q

what are the chemokines relevant to the study of immunology?

A
  1. RANTES • 2. MIP-1α, MIP-1β • 3. CXCL8 (IL-8)
1172
Q

What are the other names for G-CSF?

A
  1. Colony Stimulating Factor β • 2. Pluripoietin- β
1173
Q

What secretes G-CSF?

A
  1. bone marrow stromal cells • 2. macrophages • 3. endothelial cells
1174
Q

what are the functions of G-CSF?

A
  1. stimulates the development of neutrophils and other granulocytes • 2. stimulates the proliferation and migration of endothelial cells
1175
Q

what are the other names of GM-CSF?

A
  1. Colony Stimulating Factor α • 2. Pluripoietin-α
1176
Q

what secretes GM-CSF?

A
  1. T cells • 2. macrophages • 3. endothelial cells • 4. fibroblasts
1177
Q

what are the functions of GM-CSF?

A
  1. stimulates the differentiation of granulocyte and monocyte progenitors • 2. stimulates the growth of endothelial cells
1178
Q

what secretes TGF-β?

A
  1. platelets • 2. macrophages • 3. lymphocytes • 4. mast cells
1179
Q

what are the functions of TGF-β?

A
  1. stimulate epithelial and mesenchymal cell growth • 2. down-regulates pro-inflammatory activities • 3. induce class switch to IgA by plasma cells
1180
Q

What secretes IL-1?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. dendritic cells • 4. endothelial cells • 5. B-cells • 6. fibroblasts • 7. keratinocytes • 8. chondrocytes
1181
Q

does IL-1 play a role in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

both

1182
Q

What the role played by IL-1 in innate immunity?

A
  1. Enhances NK cell activity • 2. increases expression of ICAMS on vascular endothelial cells • 3. chemotactically attracts macrophages and neutrophils • 4. induces synthesis of acute-phase proteins by hepatocytes • 5. induces fever by acting on the hypothalamus (endogenous pyrogen)
1183
Q

what role does IL-1 play in adaptive immune response?

A
  1. costimulates the activation of T helper cells • 2. promotes maturation and clonal expansion of B cells • 3. additional roles: • a. stimulation of the secretion of IL-6 and IL-8 • b. induction of the expression of IL-2R
1184
Q

what secretes IL-2?

A

activated T cells

1185
Q

what is another name for IL-2?

A

often referred to as the T Cell growth factor

1186
Q

does IL-2 play a role in innate immunity of adaptive immunity?

A

both

1187
Q

what is the role of IL-2 in the innate immune response?

A
  1. stimulates growth of monocytes and macrophages • 2. enhances proliferation and activation of NK cells
1188
Q

what is the role of IL-2 in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. induces the proliferation and activation of antigen primed T cells • 2. Acts on B cells to stimulate proliferation and antibody production
1189
Q

what secretes IL-3?

A
  1. T cells • 2. NK cells • 3. eosinophils • 4. mast cells
1190
Q

does IL-3 play a role in the innate or adaptive immune response?

A

both

1191
Q

what role does IL-3 play in the innate immune response?

A
  1. supports growth and differentiation of hematopoietic cells (myeloid) • 2. stimulates growth and histamine production by mast cells
1192
Q

what is the role of IL-3 in the adaptive immune response?

A

promotes growth of monocytes and B cells

1193
Q

What secretes IL-4?

A
  1. T cells • 2. NK Cells • 3. Mast Cells
1194
Q

does IL-4 play a role in the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

both

1195
Q

what role does IL-4 play in the innate immune response?

A
  1. regulates some stages of hematopoiesis • 2. acts with other cytokines to stimulate mast cell proliferation (innate and adaptive)
1196
Q

what is the role of IL-4 in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. role in the regulation of Th1-Th2 axis, pushes terminal differentiation of Th cells to Th2 (humoral arm) • 2. upregulates MHCII expression, antigen presentation and phagocytosis by macrophages • 3. stimulates proliferation, differentiation and activation of antigen activated B cells • 4. induces antibody class switching to IgE and IgG4 • 5. Acts to increase expression of MHC II on resting B cells • 6. Induces proliferation of thymocytes and T cells
1197
Q

What secretes IL-5?

A
  1. T-Cells • 2. Mast Cells • 3. Eosinophils
1198
Q

does IL-5 play a role in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

adaptive

1199
Q

what is the role of IL-5 in adaptive immunity?

A
  1. promotes growth and differentiation of eosinophils (also helps innate) • 2. costimulates the proliferation and differentiation of activated B cells • 3. induces antibody class switching to IgA
1200
Q

what secretes IL-6?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. T cells • 4. B cells • 5. keratinocytes • 6. fibroblasts • 7. endothelial cells • 8. bone marrow stromal cells
1201
Q

does IL-6 play a role in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

plays a major role in innate immune response

1202
Q

what role does IL-6 play in the innate immune response?

A
  1. induces synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes • 2. act on hypothalamus to induce fever (endogenous pyrogen) • 3. promotes differentiation of myeloid cells • 4. promotes terminal differentiation of proliferating B cells into plasma cells (antibody secreting cells) • 5. Stimulates antibody secretion by plasma cells
1203
Q

what is the other name for IL-7?

A

Lymphopoietin

1204
Q

what secretes lymphopoietin?

A
  1. bone marrow stromal cells • 2. thymus stromal cells
1205
Q

does IL-7 play a role in adaptive or innate immunity?

A

adaptive immune response

1206
Q

what role does IL-7 play in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. induces differentiation of lymphoid stem cells into progenitor progenitor B and T cells • 2. increases expression of IL-2 and it’s receptor on resting T cells
1207
Q

what secretes IL-10?

A

secreted by monocytes, macrophages, keratinocytes and T cells

1208
Q

does IL-10 play a role in the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

adaptive

1209
Q

what is the role of IL-10 in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. blocks production of cytokines by macrophage (downregulates cell mediated response) • 2. Shuts down transcription of TNF-α (downregulates inflammatory response) • 3. downregulates MHCII expression on antigen presenting cells
1210
Q

What secretes IL-12?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. dendritic cells and B cells
1211
Q

does IL-12 play a role in adaptive or innate immunity?

A

both

1212
Q

what role does IL-12 play in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. Regulation of the Th1:Th2 axis (promotes Th1 production) • 2. costimulates differentiation of active CD8+ cells into CTL’s
1213
Q

what roles does IL-12 play in both innate and adaptive immunity?

A
  1. stimulates proliferation of NK and LAK cells and antigen activated Th1 cells • 2. stimulates the production of IFN-γ by NK cells and CTL’s
1214
Q

what produces IL-13?

A

T cells

1215
Q

what are the functions of IL-13?

A
  1. anti-inflammatory • 2. enhances B cell activation
1216
Q

what produces IL-17?

A

T cells; particularly the CD4 T cells in the peripheral blood

1217
Q

does IL-17 play a role in the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

innate

1218
Q

what role does IL-17 play in the innate immune response?

A
  1. induces production of IL-6 and IL-8 • 2. Enhances surface expression of ICAM-1 on human fibroblasts • 3. regulates expression of complement proteins • 4. chemotactic for neutrophils
1219
Q

What produces IL-23

A

dendritic cells

1220
Q

what is the function of IL-23?

A

activation of memory T cells

1221
Q

what secretes TNF-α?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. fibroblasts • 4. B cells • 5. T cells • 6. NK cells
1222
Q

does TNF-α play a role in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

innate response

1223
Q

what is the role of TNF-α in innate immune response?

A
  1. induces cytokine secretion by inflammatory cell • 2. increases expression of CAMS on vascular endothelial cells • 3. Increases expression of ligands on circulating neutrophils • 4. causes smooth muscle contraction • 5. induces production of acute phase proteins (C-reactive Protein and mannose binding protein) • 6. cytotoxic effect on tumor cells
1224
Q

what is the other name for TNF-β?

A

lymphotoxin (LT)

1225
Q

does TNF-β play a role in innate or adaptive immunity?

A

both

1226
Q

what role does TNF-β play in the innate immune response?

A
  1. has cytotoxic effects on tumor cells • 2. enhances phagocytic activity of macrophages and neutrophils • 3. inhibits proliferation of lymphoid and hematopoietic cells
1227
Q

what role does TNF-β play in the adaptive immune response?

A
  1. secreted by Th1 and CTL cells
1228
Q

what secretes TNF-β?

A
  1. Th1 • 2. CTL
1229
Q

what secretes IFN-α?

A
  1. macrophages • 2. monocytes • 3. lymphocytes
1230
Q

what secretes IFN-β?

A
  1. fibroblasts • 2. epithelial cells
1231
Q

what secretes IFN-κ?

A

keratinocytes

1232
Q

how do type I interferons promote the production of antiviral agents by uninfected cells?

A

induce production of the Double Stranded Activated Inhibitor of Translation (aka: DAI or RNA-dependent protein kinase)

1233
Q

what do type I interferons do to MHC I on virally infected cells?

A

increase expression of MHC I on virally infected cells

1234
Q

What secretes IFN-γ?

A
  1. Th1 cells • 2. CTL’s • 3. NK cells
1235
Q

what are the functions of IFN-γ?

A
  1. enhances intracellular killing by macrophages • 2. increases expression of MHC I and II on many cells • 3. regulates Th1-Th2 terminal differentiation • 4. excess amounts inhibit proliferation of Th2 cells • 5. Excess amounts down regulate humoral immune response: • 6. mediates effects important in a Th1 driven DTH • 7. promote the production of antiviral agents by uninfected cells by enhancing and inducing production of 2’,5’ adenylate synthetase, ribonucleases, Mx protein (also blocks capsid assembly
1236
Q

What are RANTES?

A

Regulated upon Activation, Normal T-cell Expressed and Secreted

1237
Q

what are the functions of RANTES?

A

enhances extravasation by promoting chemotaxis of monocytes, basophils, and eosinophils

1238
Q

what are MIP-1α, MIP-1β?

A

Monocyte/Macrophage Inflammatory Proteins

1239
Q

what are the functions of MIP-1α/β?

A

enhances extravasation by promoting chemotaxis of monocytes and macrophages

1240
Q

what secretes CXCL8?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. Macrophages • 3. fibroblasts • 4. endothelial cells • 5. epithelial cells • 6. keratinocytes • 7. B cells • 8. T cells
1241
Q

what is the role of CXCL8 in innate immune response?

A
  1. acts as a chemokine to promote extravasation • 2. stimulates angiogenesis
1242
Q

how does CXCL8 act as a chemokine to promote extravasation?

A
  1. recruits neutrophils to site of injury • 2. Induces neutrophil adherence to endothelium
1243
Q

how does IFN-γ in excess amounts decrease humoral immune response?

A
  1. induces class switch to IgA2a (ADCC via Th1 axis) • 2. Blocks IL-4 induced class switch to IgE and IgG1
1244
Q

what does G-CSF do to the development of neutrophils and other granulocytes?

A

stimulates

1245
Q

what does G-CSF do to the proliferation and migration of endothelial cells?

A

stimulates

1246
Q

what does GM-CSF do to granulocyte and monocyte progenitors?

A

stimulates the differentiation of granulocyte and monocyte progenitors

1247
Q

what does GM-CSF do to endothelial cells?

A

stimulates the growth of endothelial cells

1248
Q

what does TGF-β do to epithelial and mesenchymal cells?

A

stimulates epithelial and mesenchymal cell growth

1249
Q

what does TGF-β do to pro-inflammatory activities?

A

down-regulates pro-inflammatory activities

1250
Q

what does TGF-β do to plasma cells?

A

induce class switch to IgA by plasma cells

1251
Q

what does IL-1 do to NK cell activity?

A

enhances NK cell activity

1252
Q

what does IL-1 do to ICAMS on vascular endothelial cells?

A

increases expression of ICAMS on vascular endothelial cells

1253
Q

what does IL-1 do to macrophages and neutrophils?

A

chemotactically attracts macrophages and neutrophils

1254
Q

what does IL-1 do to acute phase proteins?

A

induces synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes

1255
Q

what does IL-1 do in the hypothalamus?

A

induces fever

1256
Q

what does IL-1 do to Th cells?

A

costimulates activation of Th cells

1257
Q

what does IL-1 do to B cells?

A

promotes maturation and clonal expansion of B cells

1258
Q

what does IL-1 do to IL-6 and IL-8?

A

stimulates the secretion of IL-6 and IL-8

1259
Q

what does IL-1 do to IL-2R?

A

induces the expression of IL-2R

1260
Q

what does IL-2 do to monocytes and macrophages?

A

stimulates growth of monocytes and macrophages

1261
Q

what does IL-2 do to NK cells?

A

enhances proliferation and activation of NK cells

1262
Q

what does IL-2 do to antigen primed T cells?

A

induces the proliferation, activation of antigen primed T cells

1263
Q

what does IL-2 do to B cells?

A

Acts on B cells to stimulate proliferation and antibody production

1264
Q

what does IL-3 do to hematopoietic cells?

A

supports growth and differentiation of hematopoietic cells (myeloid)

1265
Q

what does IL3 do to mast cells?

A

stimulates growth and histamine prroduction by mast cells

1266
Q

what does IL3 do to monocytes and B cells?

A

promotes growth of monocytes and B cells

1267
Q

what does IL4 do to hematopoiesis?

A

regulates some stages of hematopoiesis

1268
Q

what does IL4 do to mast cells?

A

acts with other cytokines to stimulate mast cell proliferation

1269
Q

what is the role of IL4 in the regulation of the Th1-Th2 axis?

A

pushes terminal differentiation of Th cells to Th2 (humoral arm)

1270
Q

what does IL4 do to macrophages?

A

upregulates MHCII expression, antigen presentation, and phagocytosis by macrophages

1271
Q

what does IL4 do to B cells?

A

stimulates proliferation, differentiation, and activation of antigen activated B cells

1272
Q

what does IL4 do to antibody class switching?

A

induces antibody class switching to IgE and IgG4

1273
Q

what does IL4 do to MHCII on resting B cells?

A

acts to increase expression of MHCII on resting B cells

1274
Q

what does IL4 do to thymocytes and T cells

A

induces proliferation of thymocytes and T cells

1275
Q

what does IL5 do to eosinophils?

A

promotes growth and differentiation of eosinophils

1276
Q

what does IL5 do to activated B cells?

A

costimulates the proliferation and differentiation of activated B cells

1277
Q

what does IL5 do to antibody class switching?

A

induces antibody class switching to IgA

1278
Q

What does IL6 do to acute phase proteins?

A

induces synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes

1279
Q

which interleukins induce synthesis of acute phase proteins by hepatocytes?

A

IL1 • IL6

1280
Q

which interleukins induce fever?

A

IL1 • IL6

1281
Q

what does IL6 do to myeloid stem cells?

A

promotes differentiation of myeloid stem cells

1282
Q

what does IL6 do to proliferating B cells?

A

promotes terminal differentiation of proliferating B cells into plasma cells (antibody secreting cells)

1283
Q

what does IL6 do to plasma cells?

A

stimulates antibody secretion by plasma cells

1284
Q

what does IL7 do to lymphoid stem cells?

A

induces differentiation into progenitor B and T cells

1285
Q

what does IL7 do to IL2?

A

increase expression of IL2 and IL2R on resting T cells

1286
Q

what does IL10 do to macrophages?

A

blocks production of cytokines by macrophages

1287
Q

what does IL10 do to TNFα?

A

shuts down transcription of TNF α

1288
Q

what does IL10 do to antigen presenting cells?

A

down regulates MHCII expression on antigen presenting cells

1289
Q

what does IL 12 do to the Th1:Th2 axis?

A

regulates; promotes Th1 production

1290
Q

what dos IL12 do to CD8+ cells?

A

costimulates differentiation of activated CD8+ cells into CTLs

1291
Q

what does IL12 do to NK, LAK, and antigen activated Th1 cells?

A

stimulates proliferation of NK and LAK cells and antigen activated Th1 cells

1292
Q

what does IL12 do to IFNγ?

A

stimulates the production of IFN γ by NK cells and CTLs

1293
Q

`what effect does IL13 have on inflammation

A

it is anti-inflammatory

1294
Q

what does IL13 do to B cell activation?

A

enhances B cell activation

1295
Q

what does IL17 do to IL6 and IL8?

A

induces the production of IL6 and IL8

1296
Q

which interleukins affect IL6 and IL8?

A

IL1- stimulates secretion • IL17- induces production

1297
Q

what does IL17 do to human fibroblasts?

A

enhances surface expression of ICAM-1 on human fibroblasts

1298
Q

what does IL17 do to complement proteins?

A

regulates expression of complement proteins

1299
Q

how does IL17 affect neutrophils?

A

chemotactic for neutrophils

1300
Q

what does IL23 do to T cells?

A

activation of memory T cells

1301
Q

what does TNF-α do to inflammatory cells?

A

induces cytokine secretion by inflammatory cells

1302
Q

what does TNF-α do to vascular endothelial cells?

A

increases expression of CAMS on vascular endothelial cells

1303
Q

what does TNF-α do to circulating neutrophils?

A

increased expression of ligands on circulating neutrophils

1304
Q

what does TNF-α do to smooth muscle?

A

causes smooth muscle contraction

1305
Q

what does TNF-α do to acute phase proteins?

A

induces production of acute phase proteins CRP and MBP

1306
Q

what is the effect of TNF-α on tumor cells?

A

cytotoxic effect on tumor cells

1307
Q

what does effect does TNF-β have on tumor cells?

A

cytotoxic effect on tumor cells

1308
Q

which cytokines have a cytotoxic effect on tumor cells?

A

TNF-α • TNF-β

1309
Q

what does TNF-β do to macrophages and neutrophils?

A

enhances phagocytic activity of macrophages and neutrophils

1310
Q

what does TNF-β do to lymphoid and hematopoietic cells?

A

inhibits proliferation of lymphoid and hematopoietic cells

1311
Q

what does IFN-γ do to macrophages?

A

enhances intracellular killing by macrophages

1312
Q

what does IFN-γ do to MHC I and II?

A

increases expression of MHC I and II on many cells

1313
Q

what does IFN-γ do to Th1 and Th2?

A

regulates Th1-Th2 terminal differentiation

1314
Q

what does IFN-γ in excess amounts do to Th2 cells?

A

inhibit proliferation of Th2 cells

1315
Q

what does excess IFN-γ do to the humoral immune response?

A

suppresses humoral immune response

1316
Q

what does IFN-γ go to DTH?

A

mediates effects important in a Th1 driven delayed type hypersensitivity

1317
Q

what does IFN-γ do to the production of antiviral agents by uninfected cells?

A

promote the production of antiviral agents by uninfected cells by enhancing and inducing productino of 2’-5’ adenylate synthetase, ribonucleases, Mx protein

1318
Q

how does IFN-γ affect capsid assembly?

A

blocks capsid assembly

1319
Q

what does CXCL8 do to neutrophils?

A

recruit neutrophils to site of injury • induce neutrophil adherence to endothelium

1320
Q

what does CXCL8 do to blood supply?

A

induces angiogenesis

1321
Q

What are the cells of the immune system?

A
  1. Agranulocytes • 2. Granulocytes • 3. Lymphocytes • 4. Natural Killer Cells • 5. Mast Cells • 6. Platelets
1322
Q

with respect to the nucleus of the cell, what type of cells are agranulocytes?

A

Mononuclear Cells

1323
Q

with respect to the nucleus of the cell, what type of cells are granulocytes?

A

polymorphonuclear cells

1324
Q

Agranulocytes comprise what classes of cells?

A
  1. monocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. dendritic cells • 4. Langerhans cells
1325
Q

Granulocytes comprise what classes of cells?

A
  1. neutrophils • 2. basophils • 3. eosinophils
1326
Q

Lymphocytes are comprise what classes of cells?

A
  1. T Lymphocytes • 2. B Lymphocytes
1327
Q

What is CD34?

A

s a cluster of differentiation molecule present on certain cells within the human body. It is a cell surface glycoprotein and functions as a cell-cell adhesion factor.

1328
Q

What is the main tissue site of hematopoeisis?

A

Bone Marrow

1329
Q

Hematopoiesis is under the influence of what?

A

cytokines: • Colony Stimulating Factors

1330
Q

hematopoietic stem cells are the direct precursors to what 3 cells in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. common lymphoid progenitor • 2. common myeloid progenitor • 3. common erythroid megakaryocyte progenitor
1331
Q

the common lymphoid progenitor is the direct precursor to what 2 types of cells in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. B cell • 2. NK/T cell precursor
1332
Q

the common myeloid progenitor is the direct precursor of what 2 types of cells in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. common granulocyte precursor • 2. unknown precursor
1333
Q

the common erythroid megakaryocyte progenitor is the direct precursor of which 2 cell types in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. megakaryocyte • 2. erythroblast
1334
Q

the B cell is the direct precursor of what type of cell in hematopoiesis?

A

plasma cell

1335
Q

the NK/T cell precursor is the direct precursor of which 2 cell types in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. T cell • 2. NK cell
1336
Q

the T cell is the direct precursor of what cell type in hematopoiesis?

A

effector T cell

1337
Q

the common granulocyte precursor gives rise to which 3 cell types in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. neutrophil • 2. eosinophil • 3. basophil
1338
Q

the unknown precursor directly gives rise to which 2 cell types in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. monocyte • 2. mast cell
1339
Q

the monocyte gives rise to which 2 cell types in hematopoiesis?

A
  1. dendritic cell • 2. macrophage
1340
Q

the megakaryocyte gives rise to what type of cells in hematopoiesis?

A

platelets

1341
Q

the erythroblast gives rise to what type of cells in hematopoiesis?

A

erythrocyte

1342
Q

are granular leukocytes mostly adaptive or mostly innate immunity?

A

innate

1343
Q

are agranular leukocytes mostly innate or mostly adaptive immunity?

A

adaptive

1344
Q

which 2 cell types link innate and adaptive immunity?

A

monocytic cells: • 1. monocytes/macrophages • 2. dendritic cells

1345
Q

what are the categories of cells that arise from the myeloid lineage?

A
  1. thrombocytic • 2. erythroid • 3. granulocytic • 4. monocytic
1346
Q

what categories of cells arise from the lymphoid lineage?

A

lymphocytic

1347
Q

What are the thrombocytic cells?

A

platelets

1348
Q

what are the erythroid cells?

A

erythrocytes

1349
Q

what are the granulocytic cells?

A
  1. eosinophils • 2. basophils • 3. neutrophils
1350
Q

what are the monocytic cells?

A
  1. macrophages/ monocytes • 2. dendritic cells
1351
Q

what are the lymphocytic cells?

A
  1. NK cells • 2. T cells • 3. B cells –> Plasma cells
1352
Q

what are leukocytes?

A

white blood cells

1353
Q

plasma makes up what % of blood?

A

55%

1354
Q

White blood cells and platelets make up what % of blood?

A

<1%

1355
Q

Red Blood Cells make up what % of blood?

A

45%

1356
Q

neutrophils make up what % of leukocytes?

A

40-75%

1357
Q

eosinophils make up what % of leukocytes?

A

1-6%

1358
Q

monocytes make up what % of leukocytes?

A

2-10%

1359
Q

lymphocytes make up what % of leukocytes?

A

20-50%

1360
Q

basophils make up what % of leukocytes?

A

<1%

1361
Q

agranulocytes mainly reside where?

A

in tissues

1362
Q

macrophages arise from what in blood?

A

monocytes

1363
Q

macrophages are mainly found in what compartment?

A

in the tissues

1364
Q

what are the functions of macrophages?

A

recognize pathogens, engulf, process and present antigen to specific immune system

1365
Q

dendritic cells have a major role in what?

A

recognizing and processing antigens, • initiating specific immunity

1366
Q

what is the primary function of mast cells?

A

allergy and against parasites

1367
Q

do monocytes have a long or short life span?

A

short life span

1368
Q

what do monocytes do when they enter the tissues?

A

transform into macrophages

1369
Q

do tissue macrophages have a long or short life span?

A

long life span

1370
Q

which are more destructive, macrophages or monocytes?

A

macrophages

1371
Q

which have more phagocytic activity, macrophages or monocytes?

A

macrophages

1372
Q

what is the purpose of monocytes?

A

circulating precursor to macrophage

1373
Q

what is the purpose of macrophages?

A
  1. phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms • 2. activation of T cells and initiation of immune response
1374
Q

what are phagocytes called in the liver?

A

Kupffer Cells

1375
Q

what are phagocytes called in the kidney?

A

Mesangial cells

1376
Q

what are phagocytes called in the CNS?

A

microglial cells

1377
Q

what are phagocytes called in the connective tissue?

A

histiocytes

1378
Q

what are phagocytes called in the synovial joints?

A

A cells

1379
Q

what are phagocytes called in bone?

A

osteoclasts

1380
Q

what are phagocytes called in the lung alveoli?

A

alveolar macrophages

1381
Q

what are phagocytes called in the spleen?

A

splenic macrophages

1382
Q

what are phagocytes called in the blood?

A

monocytes

1383
Q

what are phagocytes called in the lymph nodes?

A

resident and recirculating macrophages

1384
Q

where are the precursors to the phagocytes?

A

bone marrow

1385
Q

what class of cells are dendritic cells?

A

mononuclear phagocytes

1386
Q

what are the distinct structural features of dendritic cells?

A

several projections into the cytoplasm

1387
Q

where are dendritic cells found?

A

potential portals of microbial entry in lymphoid tissues and under skin

1388
Q

what are the main engulfing actions of dendritic cells?

A

phagocytosis and macropinocytosis

1389
Q

can dendritic cells travel?

A

can travel from infected tissue to lymphoid tissue

1390
Q

what is the profession of the dendritic cell?

A

professional antigen presenting cell

1391
Q

what is the main role of dendritic cells?

A

priming of naive T lymphocytes in the initiation of the immune response

1392
Q

what compounds do dendritic cells produce and why?

A

they produce cytokines which are attractants to T lymphocytes

1393
Q

what types of cells are resident tissue granulocytes?

A

Mast Cells

1394
Q

where are mast cells found?

A

connective tissue

1395
Q

what is the function of mast cells?

A

expulsion of parasites from body through release of histamine and other active agents

1396
Q

what does polymorphonuclear mean?

A

have lobed irregularly shaped nucleus

1397
Q

how are granulocytes divided into categories?

A

on the basis of how their cytoplasmic granules stain with acidic and basic dyes

1398
Q

what are the non-phagocytic granulocytes?

A
  1. basophils • 2. eosinophils
1399
Q

which are the phagocytic granulocytes?

A

neutrophils

1400
Q

what is the function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms

1401
Q

what are the structural features of neutrophils?

A

multilobed (3-5) nucleus

1402
Q

what is the most common and most lethal granulocyte?

A

neutrophils

1403
Q

are neutrophils capable of traveling?

A

capable of leaving the blood and entering tissue

1404
Q

what is the lifespan of a neutrophil?

A

short lived (2-3 days)

1405
Q

where are neutrophils stored and when are they released?

A

large reserves of neutrophils are stored in the bone marrow and are released when needed to fight an infection

1406
Q

what do neutrophils do in the case of a bacterial infection?

A

neutrophils travel to and enter the infected tissue where they engulf and kill bacteria. the neutrophils die in the tissue and are engulfed and degraded by macrophages

1407
Q

what type of cells are responsible for pus formation in infected tissue?

A

dead neutrophils

1408
Q

what is the function of eosinophils

A

killing of antibody-coated parasites through release of granule contents

1409
Q

what are the structural features of eosinophils?

A

bilobed, many granules • stain red with acidic dyes

1410
Q

when do eosinophils increase in number?

A

during parasitic infection –> eosinophilia

1411
Q

are eosinophils capable of phagocytosis?

A

yes but it is not their main function

1412
Q

when do eosinophils release their contents?

A

upon stimulation

1413
Q

What is the major function of basophils?

A

controlling immune responses to parasites

1414
Q

what are the structural features of basophils?

A

contain deep violet granules, stained with basic dyes

1415
Q

are basophils phagocytic cells?

A

no

1416
Q

what happens when basophils are activated?

A

release numerous compounds such as histamine and heparin

1417
Q

are basophils associated with allergic responses?

A

yes

1418
Q

what type of lymphoid cells are in the bone marrow during lymphocyte maturation?

A

Lymphoblast, gives rise to: • 1. B lymphocyte • 2. CD4- CD8- T lymphocyte precursor • 3. Natural Killer Lymphocyte

1419
Q

what types of lymphoid cells move into the blood during lymphocyte maturation?

A
  1. B lymphocytes • 2. CD4- CD8- T lymphocyte precursor • 3. Natural Killer lymphocyte
1420
Q

which lymphoid cell types continue maturation in the thymus and what is the end product of maturation of these types?

A

CD4- CD8- T lymphocyte precursor matures in the thymus and gives rise to: • 1. CD4+ lymphocyte • 2. CD8+ lymphocyte

1421
Q

what are the destination tissues of mature lymphoid cells?

A
  1. connective tissue • 2. epithelia • 3. secondary lymphoid organs • 4. Blood
1422
Q

what does CD stand for?

A

cluster of differentiation

1423
Q

what are cluster of differentiation?

A

surface molecules

1424
Q

how do T and B lymphocytes express CD?

A

T and B cells express different kinds of CD at different levels of maturation

1425
Q

what are the structural features of lymphocytes?

A

the nucleus is round and big in that it almost covers the cytoplasm

1426
Q

what are plasma cells and what do they do?

A

fully differentiated form of B cell that secretes antibodies

1427
Q

what are the types of small lymphocytes?

A
  1. B cells • 2. T cells
1428
Q

What are the functions of small lymphocytes?

A
  1. Production of antibodies (B cells) • 2. cytotoxic and helper functions (T cells)
1429
Q

what is the function of natural killer cells?

A

kills cells infected with certain viruses

1430
Q

what % of blood granular lymphocytes are natural killer cells?

A

15%

1431
Q

what major role does the natural killer cell play?

A
  1. innate immunity • 2. early response to pathogenic organisms
1432
Q

what types of cells do natural killer cells attack?

A
  1. virally infected cells • 2. cells lacking MHC I • 3. Tumor
1433
Q

into what are the cells of the immune system organized and why?

A

organized into tissues and organs in order to perform their function effectively

1434
Q

the tissues and organs of the immune system are collectively known as what?

A

lymphoid system

1435
Q

what are the 2 branches of the lymphoid system?

A
  1. Primary (central) • 2. Secondary (peripheral)
1436
Q

what makes up the primary lymphoid system?

A
  1. bone marrow • 2. thymus
1437
Q

what happens in the primary lymphoid system?

A

sites where mature lymphocytes are developed

1438
Q

what makes up the secondary lymphoid system?

A
  1. spleen • 2. lymphatic tissues
1439
Q

what happens in the secondary lymphoid system?

A

sites where specific immune responses to pathogens or molecules are induced

1440
Q

what does it mean when specific immune responses to pathogens or molecules are induced?

A

proliferation of lymphocytes • differentiation to effector functions

1441
Q

what is the course of the T cell progenitor?

A

T cell progenitor moves from bone marrow to the thymus and develops further into mature T cells

1442
Q

what lymphoid system cells orginate in the bone marrow?

A

T and B cells progenitor

1443
Q

what lymphoid cell matures in the bone marrow?

A

B cell

1444
Q

what is the origin of lymphocytes, central or peripheral lymphoid system?

A

primary/central

1445
Q

do mature (but still naive) lymphocytes reside in the primary or secondary lymphoid organs/tissues?

A

secondary

1446
Q

do mature (but still naive) lymphocytes originate in the primary or secondary lymphoid organs/tissues?

A

primary

1447
Q

which mature (but still naive) lymphocyte originates in the thymus?

A

T cell: • 1. T CD4 • 2. T CD8

1448
Q

which mature (but still naive) lymphocyte originates in the bone marrow?

A

B cell

1449
Q

what does lymphocyte maturation involve and is it fast or slow?

A

maturation is a gradual process involving changing of surface molecule markers: • 1. CD • 2. Antigen receptor

1450
Q

do lymphocytes meet antigen in primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

secondary

1451
Q

do lymphocytes proliferate in primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

secondary

1452
Q

do lymphocytes differentiate into effector and memory cells in primary or secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

secondary

1453
Q

into what do T CD4 differentiate in secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

Th1 and Th2 memory cells

1454
Q

into what do T CD8 differentiate in secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

effector cytotoxic cell and memory cell

1455
Q

into what do B cells differentiate in secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

plasma cell and memory cell

1456
Q

does elimination of lymphocytes with potential of reacting against self antigens occur in primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?

A

primary

1457
Q

what are the mechanisms by which elimination of lymphocytes with potential of reacting against self antigens occurs?

A
  1. negative selection • 2. make them non functional
1458
Q

describe the life cycle of a lymphocyte and infection response in 3 steps

A
  1. during development, progenitor cells give rise to large numbers of lymphocytes, each with a different specificity. • 2. During infection lymphocytes with receptors that recognize the pathogen are activated. • 3. proliferation and differentiation of pathogen-activated lymphocytes give effector cells that terminate the infection
1459
Q

what part of the life cycle of a lymphocyte in response to infection takes place in the primary lymphoid organs?

A

expression of antigen specific receptors: • maturation

1460
Q

what part of the life cycle of a lymphocyte in response to infection takes place in the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

meet antigen, proliferate and differentiate further into effector cells and memory cells

1461
Q

what part of the life cycle of a lymphocyte in response to infection takes place at the site of infection?

A

elimination of pathogens

1462
Q

what happens to the thymus with age?

A

it involutes

1463
Q

what are the 3 major secondary lymphoid organs?

A
  1. spleen • 2. lymph nodes • 3. unencapsulated lymphoid tissues
1464
Q

is the spleen encapsulated?

A

yes

1465
Q

does the spleen have blood supply?

A

yes

1466
Q

does the spleen have lymphatic supply?

A

limited, if any

1467
Q

what is the sieving activity of the spleen?

A

sieves blood borne antigens

1468
Q

are the lymph nodes encapsulated?

A

yes

1469
Q

do the lymph nodes have blood supply?

A

yes

1470
Q

do the lymph nodes have lymphatic supply?

A

afferent and efferent lymphatics

1471
Q

what is the sieving activity of the lymph nodes?

A

sieves lymph borne antigens

1472
Q

describe the spleen

A

an encapsulated organ with a blood supply and very limited, if any lymphatic supply

1473
Q

describe the lymph nodes

A

encapsulated organs with a blood supply and efferent and afferent lymphatics

1474
Q

do the unencapsulated lymphoid tissues have a blood/lymphatic supply?

A

have both a blood supply and lymphatic drainage

1475
Q

what are the unencapsulated lymphoid tissues?

A
  1. tonsils • 2. adenoid tissue • 3. appendix • 4. peyer’s patches • 5. mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) • 6. skin associated lymphoid tissues (SALT)
1476
Q

where are lymph nodes located?

A

close to the major junctions of the lymphatic channels

1477
Q

lymph nodes are loaded with what?

A
  1. lymphocytes • 2. macrophages • 3. other immune cells
1478
Q

what are lymph nodes good at?

A

highly efficieny at trapping antigen that enters afferent lymphatic channel

1479
Q

what enters the afferent lymphatic vessels?

A
  1. pathogen • 2. dendritic cells carrying pathogen from infected tissue
1480
Q

where do the B and T cells enter the lymph node from the circulation?

A

post capillary high endothelial venule

1481
Q

what leaves the lymph node through the efferent lymphatics?

A
  1. effector cells • 2. antibodies
1482
Q

can lymphocytes cross the high endothelial venule wall?

A

yes

1483
Q

what is the largest secondary lymphoid organ?

A

spleen

1484
Q

what does splenic red pulp do?

A

filters blood • removes damaged/old RBC

1485
Q

what is the splenic white pulp?

A

lymphocyte aggregate around blood vessel: • T cell and B cell area

1486
Q

what happens in the splenic white pulp?

A
  1. filters pathogens from blood • 2. macrophages and dendritic cells in the spleen pick up pathogens from blood and present them to lymphocytes- initiate the adaptive immunity • 3. major organ in antibody synthesis
1487
Q

what is an important part of the splenic white pulp?

A

periarteriole lymphoid sheath (PALS)

1488
Q

what are the main type of lymphocytes that populate the PALS?

A

T cells

1489
Q

what are the main types of lymphocytes that populate the lymphoid part of the white pulp of the spleen?

A

B cells

1490
Q

what is colony stimulating factor?

A

a major cytokine that stimulated mitosis

1491
Q

how are platelets involved in the immune system?

A

platelets are indirectly involved in the immune system because they induce inflammation

1492
Q

what is the site of origin of white blood cells?

A

bone marrow

1493
Q

what does a pluripotential cell do in hematopoiesis?

A

a pluripotential cell differentiates into progenitor cells and then into precursor cells for the myeloid, lymphoid, and erythroid cell lines.

1494
Q

differentiation of the stem cell from bone marrow is mediated by what?

A
  1. cell to cell interaction • 2. cytokines
1495
Q

what cells secrete colony stimulating factor and why?

A

cells of the bone marrow, endothelial cells, and others secrete colony stimulating factors that promote hematopoiesis

1496
Q

monocyte and macrophage formation is stimulated by what?

A

M-CSF from osteoblasts

1497
Q

what does GM-CSF do?

A

stimulates the formation of all three granulocytes and myeloid cells

1498
Q

how are innate and adaptive immune cells classified?

A

classified by the absence (agranular) or presence (granular) of cytoplasmic inclusions or granules

1499
Q

which cells serve as a link between the innate and adaptive immunity?

A

monocytes and dendritic cells

1500
Q

in addition to their difference in appearance, cells of innate and adaptive immunity can be distinguished by what?

A

by molecules on their surface, surface markers, known as CD markers

1501
Q

what is the relationship between CD and cell maturity?

A

cells express different types of CD at different level of developmental stage

1502
Q

how are WBC separated from RBC?

A

WBC can be separated from RBC by chemical treatment and centrifugation

1503
Q

do monocytes and macrophages have different functions?

A

function of monocytes and macrophages is the same

1504
Q

where do macrophages reside for the most part?

A

in tissues

1505
Q

what type of cell cleans up cellular debris?

A

macrophage

1506
Q

how long do macrophages live?

A

macrophages live long in tissues, up to years

1507
Q

are dendritic cells fixed?

A

no

1508
Q

are dendritic cells found under the skin?

A

yes

1509
Q

how do dendritic cells act?

A

they act like messengers

1510
Q

what do dendritic cells do for lymphoid organs?

A

they carry pathogens to the lymphoid organs

1511
Q

what do dendritic cells do when they encounter a pathogen?

A

once they encounter a pathogen in tissues - dendritic cells act as messengers by carrying the pathogen to the nearby lymphoid tissue

1512
Q

do you find mast cells in the circulation?

A

no

1513
Q

what do mast cells do to parasites?

A

mast cells recognize and kill large parasites

1514
Q

do macrophages and neutrophils die after they kill an invader?

A

macrophages kill but do not die • neutrophils kill and then die

1515
Q

what is the rate of release and lifespan of neutrophils?

A

are released from bone marrow at the rate of several million per minute • short lived 2-3 days

1516
Q

are eosinophils similar to mast cells?

A

similar to mast cells. kill big parasites

1517
Q

when do lymphoid cells express surface antigen receptor?

A

once fully developed

1518
Q

B lymphocytes in the blood mature into what?

A

plasma cells

1519
Q

what is the relationship between plasma cells and antibodies?

A

produce antibodies

1520
Q

what cellular organelle other than the nucleus is visible in plasma cells and why?

A

plasma cells are full of ER for protein synthesis (antibodies/ immunoglobulins)

1521
Q

what types of cells do NK cells target?

A

targets virally infected cells, cells lacking MHC1, and tumor

1522
Q

what are the morphological differences between NK cells and B and T lymphocytes?

A

NK cells are morphologically indistinguishable from lymphocytes

1523
Q

what % of lymphocytes in the blood are NK cells?

A

15%

1524
Q

where does the lymphocyte meet the pathogen and where does the immune response take place?

A

secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs

1525
Q

how is the lymphoid system arranged?

A

in either discretely encapsulated organs or accumulation of diffuse lymphoid tissue

1526
Q

what are the major lymphoid organs?

A
  1. bone marrow • 2. thymus • 3. spleen adenoids • 4. tonsils • 5. appendix • 6. lymph nodes • 7. peyer’s patches
1527
Q

what are peyer’s patches?

A

They are aggregations of lymphoid tissue that are usually found in the lowest portion of the small intestine, the ileum

1528
Q

how many types of antigens are associated with one cell in primary lymphoid organs?

A

one cell= one type of antigen

1529
Q

what happens to B and T lymphocytes after maturation in the primary lymphoid organs?

A

after maturation in the primary organs both B and T lymphocytes circulate through and accumulate in secondary lymphoid organs

1530
Q

how many lobes in the thymus?

A

2, thymus is bilobed

1531
Q

what are the subdivisions of the lobes of the thymus?

A

lobules

1532
Q

how many regions per lobule in thymus?

A

2: cortex, medulla

1533
Q

where are the immature lymphocytes in the lobules of the thymus?

A

cortex

1534
Q

what are the cells found in the thymus?

A
  1. T lymphocytes • 2. epithelial cells • 3. dendritic cells • 4. macrophages
1535
Q

which cells are responsible in the maturation process of T lymphocytes in the thymus?

A

epithelial cells and dendritic cells

1536
Q

what is the role of macrophages in the thymus?

A

clean dead cells

1537
Q

what is thymus tissue replaced with as it involutes with age?

A

fat

1538
Q

growth of the thymus continues until when?

A

puberty

1539
Q

what happens to the thymus after puberty?

A

there after it undergoes atrophy with aging

1540
Q

when does T lymphocyte maturation mainly occur?

A

mainly occurs during fetal development and a short time after birth

1541
Q

what percent of the T cell progenitor survive and leave the thymus as mature T cells?

A

5-10%

1542
Q

what are the highly organized secondary lymphoid organs?

A
  1. lymph nodes • 2. spleen
1543
Q

what peripheral lymphoid organs are the less organized accumulations of lymphoid organs scattered strategically throughout the body?

A
  1. tonsils and adenoids • 2. appendix • 3. GALT (including Peyer’s patches) • 4. BALT in bronchi • 5. MALT • 6. SALT beneath the skin
1544
Q

what does the secondary lymphatic system include?

A
  1. lymph nodes (glands) • 2. connecting lymph vessels
1545
Q

between where do lymphocytes circulate?

A

between the blood and lymphatic tissues

1546
Q

into what are the lymph nodes divided?

A

follicles

1547
Q

which cells dominate the lymphocyte population in the cortex of the lymph node?

A

B lymphocytes

1548
Q

which cells dominate the paracortical region of the lymph nodes?

A

T cells

1549
Q

what types of cells bring components of pathogens to the B and T cells in the lymph nodes?

A

dendritic cells and macrophages

1550
Q

dendritic cells and macrophages bringing components of pathogens to the lymph nodes allows the B cells to do what?

A

convert into plasma cells and proliferate into germinal centers

1551
Q

what aids in the conversion of B cells to plasma cells?

A

T cells

1552
Q

T cells cooperate with B cells in the synthesis of what, meanwhile some T cells leave the nodes to provide other functions elsewhere in the immune response?

A

synthesis of immunoglobulins

1553
Q

where in the lymph nodes are the effector cells?

A

the medulla

1554
Q

through what do the antibodies exit the lymph nodes?

A

efferent vessels

1555
Q

Do lymphocytes and dendritic cells enter the lymph nodes by the same route?

A

no, they enter by different routes

1556
Q

how do most lymphocytes enter the lymph nodes?

A

most lymphocytes migrating to lymph nodes enter from the peripheral blood

1557
Q

which types of cells can extravasate through HEVs?

A

although various types of leukocyte are found in the arteries of lymph nodes, only lymphocytes can interact with and extravasate through HEVs

1558
Q

what happens to T cells and B cell after they extravasate through HEVs?

A

T and B cells subsequently segregate into T cell zones and B cell zones

1559
Q

how do most dendritic cells, together with small numbers of lymphocytes, enter lymph nodes?

A

through the afferent lymphatics

1560
Q

what types of cells are fixed in lymph nodes?

A

lymph nodes contain fixed macrophages and dendritic cells

1561
Q

what do the fixed dendritic cells and macrophages do?

A
  1. trap the antigens and present them to T lymphocytes • 2. produce cytokines that would influence the activities of lymphocytes
1562
Q

how do naive lymphocytes travel between primary and secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Naïve lymphocytes leave the primary lymphoid organs and enter the blood circulation and enter • the secondary lymphoid organs through the artery and leave the circulation through the HEV and • stay in these organs for some time

1563
Q

what happens to lymphocytes if they do not meet the specific antigen?

A

they re-enter the circulation

1564
Q

what happens to lymphocytes if they do meet the specific antigen?

A

proliferate and differentiate

1565
Q

what are the lymphocytes that have met antigen and subsequently proliferate and differentiate called?

A

primed lymphocytes

1566
Q

what do primed lymphocytes do?

A

leave the nodes through the circulation and concentrate at the site of infection

1567
Q

is red pulp of spleen part of the immune system?

A

no

1568
Q

what happens to people that lose spleen?

A

they become immunodeficient

1569
Q

what is the largest secondary lymphoid organ?

A

spleen

1570
Q

what immune components does the spleen contain?

A
  1. many reticular fibers that support fixed macrophages and dendritic cells • 2. ever changing populations of circulating B and T lymphocytes
1571
Q

at what is the immune part of the spleen highly efficient?

A

trapping and concentrating foreign substances carried by blood

1572
Q

what is the major organ in which antibodies are synthesized?

A

spleen

1573
Q

what MALT cells allow the passage of pathogens through them?

A

M cells

1574
Q

which tissue tracts are loaded with MALT?

A
  1. GI tract • 2. respiratory tract