microbiology exam 2 chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What factors determine the growth rates of microbes?

A

Microbial growth rates are determined by nutrition and niche-specific physical parameters like temperature and pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the growth rate range of microbes?

A

Microbes have both the fastest and the slowest growth rates of any known organisms, such as hot-spring bacteria (fast) versus deep-sea sediment microbes (slow).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do most bacteria divide?

A

Most bacteria divide by binary fission, where one parent cell splits into two equal daughter cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Do all bacteria divide symmetrically?

A

No, some bacteria divide asymmetrically, producing daughter cells that are not identical in size or function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the first step in binary fission?

A

In binary fission, the cell elongates and DNA is replicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What happens after DNA replication in binary fission?

A

he cell wall and plasma membrane begin to constrict as the cell prepares for division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are the two daughter cells formed in binary fission?

A

A cross-wall forms, completely separating the two DNA copies, and then the cells separate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the growth rate in microbiology?

A

The growth rate refers to the rate of increase in cell numbers or biomass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is the number of cells in binary fission related to the number of generations?

A

in binary fission, the number of cells is proportional to 2ⁿ, where n is the number of generations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is microbial growth rate called exponential?

A

It is called exponential because cell numbers double within a specific time interval, leading to an exponential curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is generation time in microbiology?

A

Generation time is the time it takes for a population to double in number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does generation time compare between bacteria and eukaryotes?

A

Generation time is shorter for most bacteria compared to eukaryotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What factors affect generation time?

A

Generation time depends on growth medium and incubation conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the formula to calculate cell number during binary fission?

A

The formula is:
N = No x 2ⁿ
Where:

N = final cell number
No = original cell number
n = number of generations (during exponential growth).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens to exponential growth in a batch culture system?

A

Exponential growth never lasts indefinitely due to changing environmental conditions in a batch culture system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a batch culture/closed system in microbiology?

A

A batch culture is a liquid medium in a closed system, where bacteria grow without the addition of fresh nutrients or removal of waste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do changing conditions in a batch culture affect bacterial growth?

A

The changing conditions in a batch culture significantly affect bacterial physiology and growth, showcasing bacteria’s ability to adapt to their environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

simplest wat to model the effects of a changing environment is to culture bacteria in a

A

batch culture/closed system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a key feature of a continuous culture?

A

In a continuous culture, all cells achieve a steady state, allowing detailed study of bacterial physiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of system is a continuous culture?

A

A continuous culture is an open system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the role of the chemostat in a continuous culture?

A

The chemostat ensures logarithmic growth by continuously adding and removing equal amounts of culture media.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What natural system is similar to a chemostat?

A

The human gastrointestinal tract functions similarly to a chemostat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the fresh medium in a continuous culture do?

A

The fresh medium is supplied from a reservoir to maintain nutrient levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of sterile air or other gas in a continuous culture?

A

Sterile air or gas provides oxygen and maintains proper gas exchange for microbial growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the flow-rate regulator control in a continuous culture system?

A

The flow-rate regulator controls the rate at which the medium enters and exits the culture vessel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the role of the gaseous headspace in a continuous culture?

A

The gaseous headspace allows for gas exchange, providing oxygen and removing CO2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens in the culture vessel of a continuous culture?

A

The culture vessel is where the microbial cells grow, maintained at steady conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is culture overflow in a continuous culture system?

A

Culture overflow is the excess effluent containing microbial cells that exits the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does a chemostat illustrate about dilution rate, cell mass, and generation time?

A

A chemostat shows the complex relationships between dilution rate, cell mass, and generation time, where each factor influences microbial growth and physiology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the method of direct counts for measuring microbial growth?

A

Direct counts involve counting all cells, living and dead, using a microscope or automated counter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the method of viable counts?

A

Viable counts measure only living cells by counting colony-forming units (CFUs) on agar plates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does spectrophotometry measure in microbial growth?

A

Spectrophotometry measures the turbidity (cloudiness) of a culture, which is proportional to the cell density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does turbidity measurement in spectrophotometry indicate?

A

Turbidity measurement is an indirect, rapid, and useful method to measure microbial growth, often referred to as optical density (OD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What must be established to relate a direct cell count to a turbidity value?

A

A standard curve must be established to relate a direct cell count to turbidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the advantages of using turbidity measurements for microbial growth?

A

Turbidity measurements are quick, easy to perform, and typically do not require destruction or significant disturbance of the sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a potential issue with turbidity measurements?

A

Turbidity measurements can be problematic if microbes form clumps or biofilms in the liquid medium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the normal growth conditions for most organisms?

A

Normal growth conditions are:

Sea level
Temperature: 20°C–40°C
Neutral pH
0.9% salt
Ample nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are extremophiles?

A

Extremophiles are organisms that live in conditions outside the normal growth conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the main criterion that determines the environment a species inhabits?

A

The main criterion is the tolerance of the organism’s proteins and other macromolecular structures to the physical conditions within that niche.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Can organisms face multiple extremes in their environment?

A

Yes, multiple extremes in the environment can be met simultaneously by organisms.

40
Q

What environmental factors affect microbial growth?

A

The main environmental factors are:

Temperature
pH
Osmolarity
Oxygen

41
Q

How does temperature affect microbial growth?

A

Microbial growth is influenced by temperature, with different species having optimal growth at specific temperatures.

42
Q

How does pH affect microbial growth?

A

Microbial growth is sensitive to pH, with each species having an optimal pH range for growth.

43
Q

What is the effect of osmolarity on microbial growth?

A

Osmolarity affects microbial growth by determining the water availability, with microbes adapted to specific osmotic conditions.

44
Q

How does oxygen influence microbial growth?

A

Oxygen is essential for some microbes (aerobes) and toxic for others (anaerobes), with facultative anaerobes able to grow in both environments.

45
Q

How does temperature affect a bacterial cell?

A

A bacterial cell’s temperature matches that of its immediate environment, and changes in temperature impact every aspect of microbial physiology.

46
Q

What defines the growth limits of microorganisms in relation to temperature?

A

Each organism has an optimum temperature, as well as minimum and maximum temperatures that define its growth limits.

47
Q

How do higher temperatures impact microbial growth?

A

Microbes that grow at higher temperatures can typically achieve higher rates of growth.

48
Q

microbes can be classified by their

A

temperature

49
Q

What are psychrophiles?

A

Psychrophiles are microorganisms that thrive at low temperatures.

50
Q

What are mesophiles?

A

Mesophiles grow best at midrange temperatures, typically between 20°C and 45°C.

51
Q

What are thermophiles?

A

Thermophiles are microorganisms that grow best at high temperatures, typically between 45°C and 80°C.

52
Q

What are hyperthermophiles?

A

Hyperthermophiles thrive at very high temperatures, typically above 80°C.

53
Q

How do organisms adapt to different temperatures?

A

Each group of microorganisms has membranes and proteins that are specifically suited to their growth temperature.

54
Q

How do enzymes in psychrophiles adapt to cold environments?

A

Enzymes in psychrophiles function optimally at cold temperatures but are denatured or inactivated at higher temperatures.

55
Q

What structural adaptations do enzymes in psychrophiles have?

A

Psychrophile enzymes have more α-helix and less β-sheet, more polar and fewer hydrophobic amino acids, and fewer weak bonds.

56
Q

How does active transport occur in psychrophiles?

A

Active transport in psychrophiles is adapted to function at low temperatures.

57
Q

What are the membrane adaptations in psychrophiles?

A

Psychrophiles have cytoplasmic membranes with higher content of unsaturated fatty acids to maintain a semi-fluid state at low temperatures.

58
Q

What types of lipids are found in psychrophile membranes?

A

Some psychrophile membranes contain polyunsaturated fatty acids and long-chain hydrocarbons with multiple double bonds to maintain fluidity at low temperatures.

59
Q

How do enzymes in thermophiles adapt to heat?

A

Enzymes in thermophiles are stable at high temperatures due to critical amino acid substitutions that help resist denaturation.

60
Q

How do ionic bonds help thermophiles adapt to heat?

A

Thermophiles have an increased number of ionic bonds between basic and acidic amino acids, which help resist protein unfolding at high temperatures.

61
Q

What is the role of hydrophobic interiors in thermophile proteins?

A

Thermophile proteins have densely packed, highly hydrophobic interiors that help stabilize them at high temperatures.

62
Q

How do solutes contribute to thermophile stability?

A

Thermophiles produce solutes that help stabilize proteins and protect them from heat-induced damage.

63
Q

How are the protein synthesizing machinery and cytoplasmic membranes adapted in thermophiles?

A

The protein synthesizing machinery and cytoplasmic membranes in thermophiles are heat stable, allowing them to function in high-temperature environments.

64
Q

What is the role of saturated fatty acids in thermophile membranes?

A

Membranes in thermophiles are rich in saturated fatty acids, which form stronger bonds than unsaturated fatty acids, helping the membrane stay stable at high temperatures.

65
Q

What triggers the heat-shock response in organisms?

A

Rapid temperature changes during growth activate stress response genes, triggering the heat-shock response.

66
Q

What types of proteins are produced during the heat-shock response?

A

The heat-shock response produces chaperones to maintain protein shape and enzymes to modify membrane lipid composition.

67
Q

Has the heat-shock response been observed in all organisms?

A

Yes, the heat-shock response has been documented in all living organisms examined so far.

68
Q

danger zone for food preservation

A

50-20 degrees celsius

69
Q

What happens at high temperatures for food preservation?

A

High temperatures destroy most microbes, although lower temperatures take more time for the process.

70
Q

What happens during rapid growth temperatures for bacteria?

A

At rapid growth temperatures, bacteria grow quickly, and some may produce toxins.

71
Q

What happens at refrigerator temperatures for bacteria?

A

Refrigerator temperatures slow bacterial growth; spoilage bacteria may grow slowly, but very few pathogens can grow.

72
Q

What happens at freezing temperatures for bacteria?

A

At freezing temperatures, there is no significant growth of bacteria.

73
Q

What is Thermus aquaticus?

A

Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic bacterium that can survive in extremely high temperatures, often found in hot springs and thermal vents.

74
Q

How does pH affect microbial growth?

A

The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) or hydronium ions (H3O+) directly affects the cell’s macromolecular structures, and extreme pH values can limit growth.

75
Q

why do extreme pH values limit microbial growth?

A

Extreme concentrations of hydronium (H3O+) or hydroxide ions (OH-) can disrupt cell processes and damage cellular structures, limiting growth.

76
Q

How does microbial tolerance to pH compare to other chemical substances?

A

Microbial cells can tolerate a greater range of hydrogen ion (H+) concentration than almost any other chemical substance in the environment.

77
Q

What are acidophiles?

A

Acidophiles are microorganisms that thrive in acidic environments, typically with a pH of 3 or lower (e.g., acidic soils, gastric fluids, or lemon juice).

78
Q

What are alkaliphiles?

A

Alkaliphiles are microorganisms that thrive in alkaline environments, typically with a pH of 9 or higher (e.g., alkaline lakes, soap solutions, or household ammonia).

79
Q

Which environments are suitable for acidophiles?

A

acidophiles can grow in volcanic soils, acid mine drainage, gastric fluids, lemon juice, and rhubarb, with pH values ranging from 1 to 5.

80
Q

Which environments are suitable for alkaliphiles?

A

Alkaliphiles grow in environments like alkaline lakes, soda lakes, household ammonia, and lime solutions, with pH values ranging from 9 to 14.

81
Q

At what pH level is neutrality in the pH scale?

A

Neutrality occurs at a pH of 7, where the concentrations of H+ and OH- ions are equal.

82
Q

What are the optima, minima, and maxima in enzyme activity with regard to pH

A

Enzyme activity is affected by pH, and each enzyme has a pH optimum where it functions best, a minimum pH where the enzyme activity slows down, and a maximum pH where the enzyme activity stops.

83
Q

How do bacteria regulate internal pH?

A

Bacteria actively regulate their internal pH to maintain a stable environment for enzymes and cellular functions, often using ion pumps or other mechanisms to prevent harmful changes in pH.

84
Q

Why are weak acids used to preserve food?

A

Weak acids can pass through microbial cell membranes, disrupting the internal pH balance and killing the cells, making them useful in food preservation to prevent spoilage.

85
Q

What role do buffers play in microbial culture media?

A

Buffers in microbial culture media help to maintain a constant pH, preventing harmful fluctuations that could affect microbial growth and enzyme activity.

86
Q

What happens when weak acids enter microbial cells?

A

When weak acids pass through microbial membranes, they disrupt the internal pH balance, leading to cell damage or death by affecting pH homeostasis.

87
Q

What pH range do Neutralophiles grow in?

A

neutralophiles grow in the pH range of 5–8 and include most pathogens. Most bacteria grow between pH 6.5 and 7, while molds and yeasts grow between pH 5 and 6.

88
Q

What defines Acidophiles, and what is critical for their survival?

A

Acidophiles grow at pH less than 6. Some are obligate acidophiles. Their cytoplasmic membrane stability is critical for survival, as they must maintain their internal pH in acidic environments.

89
Q

What defines Alkaliphiles, and how do they differ from other organisms?

A

Alkaliphiles grow at pH greater than 9. Some alkaliphiles use a sodium motive force instead of the typical proton motive force to maintain cellular functions in alkaline environments.

90
Q

What is the pH range and salt concentration of saline soda lakes?

A

Saline soda lakes have high salt concentrations and pH values as high as pH 11.

91
Q

What types of organisms are found in saline soda lakes?

A

Saline soda lakes contain alkalophiles such as:

The archaeon Halobacterium salinarum
The cyanobacterium Spirulina

92
Q

What distinctive feature does Spirulina have in saline soda lakes?

A

Spirulina has high carotene concentrations, giving it a distinct pink color

93
Q

What is the significance of Spirulina in the food chain?

A

spirulina is a major food source for the famous pink flamingo.

94
Q

What does water activity (aw) measure?

A

Water activity (aw) measures how much water is available for use in a solution. It is defined as the ratio of the solution’s vapor pressure relative to that of pure water.

95
Q

What is the required water activity level for most bacteria?

A

Most bacteria require water activity levels > 0.91 for growth.

96
Q

What is the required water activity level for fungi?

A

Fungi can tolerate water activity levels > 0.86.

97
Q

What is the typical water condition in microbial cells?

A

The cytoplasm of microbial cells typically has a higher solute concentration than the surrounding environment, causing water to move into the cell.