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Veterinary medicine year 2 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What does mycoplasma look like?

A

Spherical filamentous cells with no cell walls

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2
Q

What stain is used in gram staining?

A

Crystal violet or methylene blue
Stains the peptidoglycan cell wall = positive = purple
Negative= pink or red

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3
Q

Properties of gram positive bacteria?

A

Thick peptidoglycan wall
Outer liposaccharide membrane

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4
Q

What are fimbria?

A

Long filamentous polymeric protein structures located at the surface of epithelial cells
Allow binding

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5
Q

What is an endospore?

A

Differentiated cell within gram positive bacteria
Very resistant

Genus bacillius
Genus clostridium

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6
Q

What are the classifications of haemolysis in culture?

A

Beta- Complete
Alpha- Partial
Gamma- none

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7
Q

Agglutination test?

A

H antigen- associated with flagella
O antigen- form liposaccharide membrane

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8
Q

Baltimore classification system

A

(Group I); single-stranded DNA viruses

(Group II); double-stranded RNA viruses

(Group III); positive single-stranded RNA viruses

(Group IV); negative single-stranded RNA viruses

(Group V); positive single-stranded RNA viruses with DNA intermediates

(Group VI), commonly known as retroviruses;

the double-stranded DNA retroviruses (Group VII)

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9
Q

What are the key stages in virus infection?

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Penetration
  3. Un-coating
  4. Gene expression
  5. Replication
  6. Assembly
  7. Release
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10
Q

What methods can be used to detect viruses?

A

Serologic assay
PCR
Haemagglutination assays
ELISA

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11
Q

What are the defence systems of the GI tract?

A

Adaptive
Innate
Bile salts
Defensins
Acidity
Peristalsis
Mucys
Bacterial interference

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12
Q

HOw can GI disease be investigated?

A

Homogenisation, dilution and plating faeces
Choose selective media
Indicator media for closely related bacteria

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13
Q

What is molecular detection of bacteria?

A

Detecting species by quantitating of their nucleic acid
Can be used to quantitavely count or show presence of bacteria

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14
Q

What is the miles Misra method?

A

Technique to determine the number of colony forming units in a bacterial suspension or homogenate

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15
Q

How is the gut flora established

A

Sterile until birth
Neonate acquires organisms from the surface parts of the birth canal and env
Compete for the niche in the gut
Complexity inc with time
Stabilises

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16
Q

How can flora development due to ageing affect infection risk?

A

Maternal immunity, bottle feeding and pre ruminant GI affect flora
Acquired immunity affects flors
Weaning increases flora so less likely infection
Old age reduces immunity

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17
Q

What are the colonisation factors?

A

Surface structures
LPS and membrane integrity
Motility -> niches
General gene regulation
Transporters of nutrients
Invasion to sustain colonisation

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18
Q

How might anatomy affect bacteria at different sites

A

Free living or attached to villi or deep in villus crypts

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19
Q

What do bacteria compete for?

A

Space
Co factors
Electron acceptors
Carbon sources

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20
Q

How can antimicrobials affect the flora?

A

Remove sensitive organisms from niche
Intrinsically resistant bacteria left
Causes overgrowth of unwanted organisms

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21
Q

What are the nutritional benefits of the GI flora in pigs?

A

B12 production
Synthesised by clostridium butyricum

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22
Q

How does the microflora bacteria affect xenobiotic metabolism?

A

transforms compounds
Activate or inactivate drugs
Affect toxic metabolites

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23
Q

What is PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction - pathogen DNA
Rapid and simple method for copying and amplifying specific DNA sequences
DNA melting, annealing and synthesis

Need to know DNA sequence for each end of larger sequence to be amplified

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24
Q

What is the role of the oligonucleotide formation in PCR?

A

Serves as primaries for in vitro DNA sythesis

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25
Q

What do immuno diagnostics detect?

A

Antibodies
Can detect maternal antibodies too

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26
Q

How long does PCR and ELISA take?

A

24-72 hours

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27
Q

What are the most and least sensitive detection tests?

A

Most = PCR
Least= snap

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28
Q

When might ELISA be used?

A

Determine health status of herd or individual to manage endemic diseases and disease outbreaks
Can test bulk milk samples

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29
Q

Define mutation

A

Changes to the nucleotide sequence of DNA that leads to genetic diversity but can also lead to genetic disease

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30
Q

What is the importance of genetic diversity in microbes?

A

Disease susceptibility and specific traits
Identify types of mutations and their impact

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31
Q

Silent mutation

A

Substitution of nucleotide but doesnt change the amino acid

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32
Q

Missense mutation

A

Substitution leads to change of amino acid

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33
Q

How does sickle cell anaemia occur?

A

Missense mutation in beta haemmoglobin

CTC-> CAC means Val->Glu

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34
Q

How does SPAID occur?

A

Shar pei autoinflammatory disease
gene G-> A in the MTBP

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35
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

Normal codon for stop codon
Means that there is premature termination of translation
Less effect if closer to the 3’ end

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36
Q

Effect of addition or substitution in promotor region

A

Affects expression of protein - higher, lower or no expression

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37
Q

Effect of addition or substitution in coding region

A

Affects whole reading frame
Protein might not be produced

= frame shift

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38
Q

What are pathovars based on?

A

Clinical propertied

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39
Q

What are serovars based on?

A

Serotyping

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40
Q

What are the 2 types of serotyping?

A

MLST- requires sequencing
Spoligotyping- PCR based for TB strains

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41
Q

Phylum that has the most gram positive bacteria?

A

Firmicutes GP
- listeria
- Staphylococcus
- Enterococcus
- Lactobacillus
- Streptococcus
Commensal and pathogenic
Mycoplasmas lack cell wall

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42
Q

Which firmicutes are gram positive and endospore forming?

A

Clostridium
Bacilus

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43
Q

Which gram type bacteria belong to phylym bacterioidetes?

A

Gram negative
Wide distribution
Commensal
Generas - bacteroides (faeces) , porphymonas (oral cavity)

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44
Q

What is the gram status for proteobacteria?

A

Gram negative
Commensal and pathogenic
Defined by rRNA sequence for meta genomes
Facultative or obligate aerobes

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45
Q

What are the 5 divisions of proteobacteria?

A
  • Alphaproteobacteria= Rickettsia
  • Beta Proteobacteria= Neisseriaceae + Burkholderia
  • Gammaproteobacteria= pseudomonadaceae+ Enterobacteriaceae
  • Deltaproteobacteria= Myxobacteria
  • Epsilonproteobacteria= helicobacter and campylobacter
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46
Q

Which genera of proteobacteria are clinically relevant to the GI tract?

A

Gammaproteobacteria- enterobacteriaceae fam
- Escherichia
- Salmonella

Elipsonproteobacteria + Vibrio family - microaerophilic
- Helicobacter
- Campylobacter

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47
Q

What phyla does the acid fast mycobacteria belong to?

A

Actinomycetota
Gram positive
Main = Bifidobacterium and cornybacterium
Commensal or pathogenic

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48
Q

Properties of cornybacterium

A

Branched Gram P
Anearobic
Found in GIT
Commensal
Ferments carbs and oligosaccharides

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49
Q

What are the major facultative anaerobes found in the GIT

A

Gram P rods =
Enterobacteriaceae
Escherichia coli
Enterobacter sp
Proteus

Gram N rod= lactobacillus
Gram N cocci= streptococcus, staphylococcus and enterococcus

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50
Q

Bacteriodes genus

A

Commensal - complex molecule processing
Gram N
Bacillus
anaerobes
simple sugar diet

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51
Q

Streptococci genus

A

Gram P
Coccoid
Facultative anaerobes
Phylum= firmicutes
Grow in chains or pairs
Commensals or opportunistic pathogens

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52
Q

Enterococcus species

A

Gram P
Facultative anaerobe
Commensal or opportunistic
GI tract

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53
Q

Clostridia

A

Gram P
Endospore forming
Rods
Obligate anaerobes

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54
Q

How can overgrowth and food poisoning of clostridia form in rabbits?

A

Overgrowth of C. spiroform in GIT of rabbits treated with penecillin

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55
Q

Which bacteria causes gas gangrene

A

Clostridia perfringens

56
Q

How might an animal ingest viruses that are shed in faeces?

A

Aerosols
Food stuffs
Poor disinfection of env

57
Q

What are the common features of enteric virus infections?

A

Small infectious dose
Short incubation period
Large amounts shed in faeces
Low pH survivors
Secondary bacteria infection = common

58
Q

What is the main pathogenesis of enteric virus infections?

A

Severe infection = denudation of microvilli
SHortening
Flattening and atrophy of villi
Cause malabsorption

59
Q

What are the main viruses which cause major clinical signs associated with the GIT?

A
  • rotavirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Paramyxovirus
  • Pestivirus (BVDV)
60
Q

What is the structure or rotaviruses?

A

Icosahedral, non enveloped virus

Outer middle and inner capsid

Core contains a dsRNA segmented genome

Stable to wide pH, temp and detergents

61
Q

How do rotaviruses replicate?

A

Cytoplasmic replication with own polymerase

62
Q

What processes does rotavirus effect?

A

Reduced lactase production and impaired Na transport as villi shorter and

Reduced lactase= undigested milk in lower GIT = bacterial overgrowth = osmotic diarrhoea = watery scour

63
Q

What is the basis of virus entry into cells?

A

virus binds to sialic acids
Then integrins
The other proteins on cell surface

64
Q

Which species do rotavirus infect?

A

Piglets, calves and foals

Can have secondary infection of E coli or other viruses

65
Q

How is rotavirus diagnosed?

A
  • Sample faeces/gut contents
  • Detection of viral antigen
    • ELISA or latex agglutination test
  • Detection of viral RNA
    • RT-PCR

Virus is often present in faeces of healthy calves

66
Q

Control of rotavirus?

A

Good colostrum
all in all out management
Good hygeine
Vaccines for horses and cows

67
Q

What are the structural properties of corona viruses?

A

Corona= crown
Positive sense ssRNA
Enveloped
Virus order- Nidovirales

Reasonably tolerant to low pH but destroyed by deterdents

68
Q

Which coronavirus affects the main species?

A
  • pig TGE, EDV, PDCoV, SADs-CoV, All enteric
  • Dog, CCoV- enteric
  • Cattle, BCV - enteric and respiratory
  • Cat, FCoV - enteric
69
Q

Properties of coronavirus transmissable gastroenteritis virus

A

Highly contagious
Piglets and young pigs mainly
Diarrhoea
Rapid dehydration
100% mortality in piglets

70
Q

Properties of porcine coronavirus PED?

A

Porcine endemic diarrhoea virus

  • Similar to TGEV
  • Historically was less severe now high mortality
  • As a consequence isnow notifiablein UK (APHA)
  • Control measures are industry led (AHDB Pork)
71
Q

What are the new emerging porcine coronaviruses?

A

PDCoV
SADS- CoV

72
Q

How do coronaviruses affect calves?

A
  • scour 4d – 3wk age
  • dehydration, acidosis, depression, fever
  • recovery in 4-5d
  • approx20% of calf scours due to coronavirus
  • cf. rotavirus 33%,cryptosporidia35%
  • Also cause winterdysentryin housedadultcattle
73
Q

Properties of canine coronavirus

A
  • Canine enteric CoV CECoV (CCoV)
  • Normally mild self limiting diarrhoea
  • severe systemic disease (vomiting/diarrhoea but also pyrexia, seizures)
  • ultimately fatal
74
Q

What are the major properties of feline coronaviruses?

A

Enteric virus with very mild signs
But can cause systemic signs in some cats
Two biologically distinct phenotypes (biotypes)
feline enteric coronavirus (FeCoV)
feline infectious peritonitis

75
Q

What is FIP

A

Feline infectious peritonitis
Wet- effusion in body cavity = ascites in abdo= pleural effusion
Dry FIP more challenging to diagnose - pyogranulomatous lesions

76
Q

Causes of FIP

A
  • probably mutation of virus
    • Recombination or spontaneous
  • Stress
  • Viral load
  • Not very well understood
77
Q

How can mycobacteria be differentiated from other bacteria?

A

Acid fast stain
Acid fast bacteria = high content of mycolic acids in cell wall = stain red not blue/green

78
Q

How to carry out acid fast stain?

A

Bacterial smear, dry, heat fix
Carbol fuchsin stain
Heat until vapour
Wash
Cover with 3% acid alc for 5 mins
wash
malachite green stain = 2 mins
wash and air dry
Microscope using oil immersion

79
Q

What are the main mycobacterium species?

A
  • M. Tuberculosis= humans and captive primates = Tuberculosis
  • M. Bovis= Bovine tuberculosis, Mainly affects cattle
  • M. Avium- MAC lung disease - tuberculosis affecting mainly birds
80
Q

Which species of mycobacteria causes johnes?

A

Mycobacterium avium spp paratuberculosis

81
Q

What is johnes disease

A

An infections wasting condition of cattle and other ruminants caused by mycobacterium avium spp paratuberculosis

The disease is progressive and therefore protein losing enteropathy can lead to submandibular or ventral oedema

82
Q

Route of the pathogen in Johnes?

A

Ingestion -> peyers patches -> ileum
-> macrophased -> lymph nodes = granulomatous inflammatory response

83
Q

Metagenomics

A

Study of structure and function of entire nucleotide sequence in a bulk sample

84
Q

What is functional redundancy in the gut ecosystem?

A

Gut is composed of widely divergent microbial lineages

The genomes of these can contain functionally similar sets of genera

These would give rise to a cooridinated single metabolic outcome

Consequently this means microbiota species are interchangeable

85
Q

What is copper toxicosis?

A

hereditary
failure of liver to expel copper
Copper = illness and death
recessive trait

86
Q

Summary

A

Microbiota and its microbiomes vary between individuals and microenvironments

Gut microbiota/microbiome are specific to region and function of GI tract

High level of bacteria diversity and redundancy

Gut microbiota influences the brain development, neural processes and behaviour

Disease diagnostic has revolutionized due to molecular methods such as PCR and DNA sequencing

87
Q

What are the main viral diseases?

A

Bovine viral diarrhoea - cattle
Border disease virus - sheep = neuro symptoms and abortion
Classical swine fever = pigs neuro signs and abortion

88
Q

What are the major features of perstiviruses?

A
  • positive sense single stranded RNA genome
  • Enveloped
  • Icosahedral capsid
    Cytoplasmic replication
89
Q

What are the issues related to bovine viral diarrhoea?

A

Bovine viral diarrhoea virus because causes over a £70 million loss per year

Reduces milk yield

Causes congenital defects

Stunted calves

Decreased fertility

Immunosuppression

90
Q

What are the genotypes of BVDV

A

BVDV 1 = classical form
BVDV 2= haemorrhagic syndrome severe acute BVD

91
Q

What are the 2 bio types of BVDV?

A

This describes the biological behaviour in the cell culture
non cytopthic
Cytopathic
NCP and CP isolates of both genotype 1 and genotype 2 exist

NCP is the major cause of BVD

92
Q

What are the outcomes of a cow being infected with BVDV during pregnanacy?

A
  1. Non immune pregnant cow or heifer becomes infected during pregnancy
  2. Persistently infected calf may look normal at birth but will suffer early embryonic death or abortion
    2.1 Or can be born normally or with congenital defects such as stunted or abortion
    1.2 Depends if develops foetal immunocompetance
93
Q

What is the structure of parvoviruses?

A

Icosahedral capsid

Small linear single stranded DNA genome

Infect and kills actively replicating cells

Persist for long periods in the environment

94
Q

Veterinary important parvoviruses

A
  1. Felinepanleukopaeniavirus (FPV).
  2. 2.Canine parvovirus (CPV).
  3. 3.Porcine parvovirus (PPV).
  4. 4.Mink enteritis virus (MEV).
  5. 5.Aleutian disease (mink).
  6. 6.Goose parvovirus.
95
Q

What is parvovirus tropism?

A

Villi tip cells turnover normally bit are not replaced as villus kills stem cells
Stunted villi, malabasorption and maldigestion

96
Q

What is FIE?

A

Feline infections enteritis caused by feline parvovirus also known as feline panleukopenia
Faceooral transmission
Infects lymph of nasal and oropharnyx
intestinal cells and bone marrow affected

Affinity for rapidly dividing cells

97
Q

What is the parvovirus pathogenesis for panleukopenia?

A

decreased white blood cell count, killing of lymphoid and myeloid stem cells *

98
Q

What is the pathogenesis for enteritis caused by parvovirus?

A

Killing of stem cells in crypts

99
Q

What is the parvovirus pathogenesis for cerebellar hypoplasia?

A

Perinatal infection of the cerebellum causes wobbly kittens due to the role of the cerebellum being affected

100
Q

How can diagnosis of FPV be confirmed>

A

Faeces
ELISA or PCR

101
Q

What are the 2 canine parvoviruses?

A

CPV 1- mild diarrhoea
CPV 2- serious, antigen determines tropism

102
Q

How can CPV 2 affect different systems?

A

1.Generalised neonatal disease (fading pups)

2.Myocarditis inneonatal puppies (uncommon)

3.Bone marrow→Leukopenia

4.Intestinal villi→Enteritis→Vomiting & Diarrhoea

5.Intestinal and mesenteric lymphoid tissues→immunosupression

103
Q

How can canine parvovirus cause heart failure?

A

Myocardial necrosis occurs

Inclusion of viral bodies in myocardial cells

Increases the amount of inflammatory cells

Leading to fibrosis

Therefore massive enlargement of heart

Heart failure and pulmonary oedema occur

104
Q

What are the main viruses in the paramyxoviridae family?

A

Morbillivirus

Rubulavirus

Respirovirus

Pneumovirus

Metapnemovirus

105
Q

Structure of paramyxoviridae family

A

Enveloped
negative sense ssRNA
Sensitive to heat and detergent
Cytoplasmic replication and budding

106
Q

What are the notifiable paramyxoviridae viruses?

A

Rinderpest= cattle plague
Peste des petits ruminats = goat plague

107
Q

What are the properties of canine distemper?

A

Morbillivirus (Paramyxovirus)

Young dogs especially susceptible

Transmitted bydirect contact

Virus replicates in URT

Spread to tonsils/lymph nodes

Viraemia and systemic spread to epithelia +/- CNS

108
Q

Clinical signs of canine distemper

A

Pyrexia, depression

Ocular and nasal discharge

Cough

Vomiting, diarrhoea

Hyperkeratosis of nose/pads (“hardpad”)

Neurosigns if poor immune response

109
Q

Newcastle disease

A

NOTIFIABLE
Paramoxyviridae
Subfamily= avulavirus
Avian paramyxovirus-1: affects chickens, ducks, pheasants, geese, turkeys
Transmission = aerosols and mechanical transfer

110
Q

What are the different types of newcastle disease?

A
  • Ientogenicmild inapparent infection
  • Mesogenicmild respiratory disease, some deaths in young birds
  • Neurotropic velogenicacute, severe, fatal with respiratory and nervous signs
  • Viscerotropic velogenic
    severe, fatal with haemorrhagic intestinal lesions, respiratory disease
111
Q

In newcastle disease, what determines virulence and tropism?

A

F glycoprotein
Synthesised as an inactive precursor which is then cleaved by the host cell proteases to form the active form

If it is not cleaved then the virus cannot enter

112
Q

Lentogenic vs velogenic newcastle disease?

A

Lentogenic= GI and Resp tracts with trypsin like proteases
Velogenic= ubiquitous proteoases due to altered cleavage site so many different tissues affected

113
Q

Where may newcastle disease cause haemorrhage

A

Proventriculus
Trachea

114
Q

What processes lead to introduction of new DNA into a bacteria?

A

Transformation
Conjugation
Transdution

115
Q

Which processes lead to movement of DNA already in bacteria?

A

Transposition
Recombination

116
Q

Define homologous recombination

A

Where two DNA sequences are the same they can intercalate their strands. During replication these can get spliced

117
Q

Define non homologous recombination

A

Less efficient NA does not match but can be in a random positions

118
Q

Define directed recombination

A

Insertion elements have release which lead to homologous/ directed insertions in specific sites or enzymes that direct integration at set sites ie. These have hot spots for insertions ad are more effective

119
Q

How do bacteria restrict DNA transfer?

A

Restriction endonucleases
Restriction endonucleases degrade DNA not made in their own cell

These restriction nucleases do no degrade self- DNA as they act on specific sites

A bacteria methylates its own DNA where its own restriction nucleases cut so blocking the enzyme

This works on any DNA including non self plasmids

120
Q

What is the clinical relevance of gene acquisition?

A

Gain reisitance
Gain metabolic genes
Virulence genes- attachment, invasion and production of a toxin

121
Q

How does reticulitis spread?

A

contagious spread from adjactent systems

122
Q

What phyla are accurately described by the line “gram negative rods which are oxidase negative, faculative anearobes and grow on MacConkey” ?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

123
Q

Escheriachia coli

A
  • most members of this genus are low virulence
  • They may cause opportunistic infections
  • Pathogenic strains possess virulence factors which allow them to cause disease
  • The basic genomes of E. coli are the same but they will have gained some very specific properties
124
Q

What is the LEE?

A

Locus of enterocyte effacement

Encodes a type 3 secretion system
Transloacted intimin receptor in host cell

125
Q

Species of salmonella

A

S bongori
S enterica

126
Q

Which serotypes of salmonella cause enterocolitis and septicaecmia

A

S. Enteritidis

S. Typhimurium

S. Dublin

S. Cholerasuis

127
Q

What is the pathology of salmonella infection?

A
  1. Attachment and invasion. Invasion promoted TTSS-1
  2. Penetration of mucosal barrier inflammation . Stimulated by TTSS-1 and the sip’s and sop’s
  3. Neutrophils attracted
  4. Infection of macrophages
  5. Transfer to systemic sites requires TTSS-2 for intracellular survival
128
Q

What are the different TTSS-1 effectors?

A

Trigger invasion by actin and tubulin remodelling
Trigger cytokine response
Trigger enteropathogenic response

129
Q

Structure of campylobacter jejuni

A
  • gram negative, vibrio
  • Flagellated and motile
  • Microaerophilic they require 10% CO2 and 5-6% O2
  • Optimum Growth temperature is 42 degrees celcius
  • Can be seen as commensals
130
Q

What is MLST?

A

Multi locus sequence typing looks at single base pair changes

This is done by sequencing seven essential genes and clustering the strains based on differences

These clusters are called clades

131
Q

Structure of spirochetes

A
  • spiral motile bacteria
  • Endoflagella
  • Gram negative
  • Many are zoonotic
132
Q

Which member of spirochetes cause GI disease in pigs and poultry?

A

Brachyspira

Strict anaerobes
doesnt form discrete colonies

133
Q
  • Describe the structure of lawsonia
A

curved gram negative rod
- Obligate intracellular pathogen
- Microaerophilic
- Can NOT be grown on inert media required growth in enterocytes
- Implicated in proliferation enteropathy of pigs and foals

134
Q

Common adhesins

A

Fimbriae

135
Q

What are the different pathogen mechanisms?

A

Hypersecretion

Villus atrophy

Infiltrative and proliferative distortion of mucosa

Mucosal necrosis

136
Q

Which pathogenic mechanism does johnes disease use?

A

infiltrative and proliferative distortion of mucosa

137
Q

How does brachyspira cause mucosal necrosis?

A

Targets mucosa of the colon
found in erosive lesions of the mucosa
Associated hypersecretion of mucus

Veterinary medicine year 2 (23 decks)

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