Microbial growth Flashcards

1
Q

name an example of a bacteria that does not have a circular chromosome

A

Borrelia burgdorferi the cause of lime disease has a linear chromosome

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2
Q

What is the most common method of replication of bacteria

A

Binary fission

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3
Q

what happens in binary fission

A

the cell grows and increases cellular components
DNA replication begins on a location on the circular chromosome (origin of replication)
replication continues in opposite directions along the chromosome until terminus is reached
the center constricts until two daughter cells are formed

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4
Q

what is cytokinesis

A

division of cytoplasm

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5
Q

what directs the process of cytokinesis and cell division

A

The protein FtsZ

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6
Q

What does FtsZ protein do

A

assembles into a Z ring on the cytoplasmic membrane

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7
Q

what anchors the Z ring

A

FtsZ-binding proteins and defines the division plane between the two daughter cells

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8
Q

what does divisive do

A

activates to produce a peptidoglycan cell wall and build a septum that divides the two daughter cells

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9
Q

What is generation time

A

the time between the same points of the life cycle in two successive generations

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10
Q

what is another term for generation time in prokaryptes

A

doubling time

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11
Q

what is doubling time

A

the time it takes for the population to double through one round of binary fission

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12
Q

how fast can E. coli double

A

in 20 minutes under optimal conditions

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13
Q

What is the generation time of mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

between 15 and 20 hours

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14
Q

what is the generation time of M. leprae (Hansons disease)

A

14 days

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15
Q

What is a closed culture

A

when no nutrients are added and most waste is not removed

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16
Q

what is a growth curve

A

reproductive growth pattern of microorganisms in a closed culture

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17
Q

What is culture density

A

the number of cells per unit volume,

in a closed environment it is also the number of cells in a population

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18
Q

What is an inoculum

A

the beginning of the growth curve representing a small number of cells that are added to a fresh culture medium

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19
Q

what is the lag phase

A

the initial phase of the growth curve where cells are gearing up for the next phase of growth

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20
Q

what happens to cells during the lag phase

A

they do not change in number but do grow larger and are metabolically active synthesizing proteins needed to grow

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21
Q

what happens to cells that are damage while being transferred to a medium

A

they are repaired during the lag phase

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22
Q

what determines the duration of the lag phase

A

species and genetic make of cells, composition of the medium and size of the original inoculum

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23
Q

What happens during the log phase

A

the cells are actively dividing by binary fission and their number increases exponentially

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24
Q

what is intrinsic growth rate

A

the genetically determined generation time under specific conditions

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25
Q

Why are cells in the log phase used for industrial application

A

there is constant growth rate and uniform metabolic activity

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26
Q

what contributes to the slowing of the growth rate

A

waste products accumulating, nutrients being used up, depletion of oxygen

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27
Q

what is the stationary phase

A

the total number of live cells that reach a plateau

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28
Q

what is the relationship of cell numbers during the stationary phase

A

the number of cells creased is equal to the number of cells dying

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29
Q

What happens to cells during the stationary phase

A

they switch to survival mode of metabolism, synthesis of peptidoglycan, proteins, and nucleic acids slow so they are more susceptible to antibiotics

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30
Q

when do cells undergo sporulation

A

stationary phase

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31
Q

when are are secondary metabolites including ABX synthesized

A

stationary phase

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32
Q

what happens during the death phase

A

toxic waste accumulates and nutrients are exhausted so cells begin to die.

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33
Q

why are persister cells important

A

they are associated with chronic infections such as TB

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34
Q

What is a chemostat

A

a culture vessel that allows nutrients to be added and waste to be removed and air to be controlled to maintain a logarithmic phase of growth

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35
Q

What is direct cell count

A

the counting of cells in a liquid culture or colonies on a plate to estimate how many organisms are present

36
Q

what is the direct microscopic cell count

A

transferring a known volume of a culture to a calibrated slide and counting the cells under a microscope

37
Q

what is the calibrated slide used for direct microscope cell count called

A

petrol-hausser chamber

38
Q

what are the benefits of the chamber

A

it is easy to use, fast and inexpensive

39
Q

what are the cons of the counting chamber

A

does not work well with dilute cultures because there may not be enough cells, can’t always tell between live and dead cells

40
Q

how does fluorescence staining help with counting cells

A

you can determine the viability of cells because it binds to nucleic acids, primary and secondary stains have different ability to cross cytoplasmic membrane

41
Q

which fluoresces stain can penetrate the intact cytoplasmic membrane

A

the primary green stain

42
Q

when can red, secondary stain enter a cell

A

if the cytoplasmic membrane is damage

43
Q

What does a Coulter counter do

A

detects and counts the changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution

44
Q

how does a Coulter counter work

A

a glass tube is immersed in an electrolyte solution the first electrode is suspended in the glass tube the second is is outside the tube, as the cells are drawn through the aperture they change resistance change represents a cell.

45
Q

what happens if the culture in the Coulter counter is too concentrated

A

more than one cellmate pass through at a time skewing the results, does not differentiate between live and dead cells.

46
Q

why is the viable plate count considered a low estimate of the actual number of cells,

A

multiple cells might form the same colony so a single colony might represent a single cell

47
Q

how many colonies are typically on a plate

48
Q

why is 30-300 the best range

A

too few is not statistically reliable , overcrowded makes it difficult to count accurately, it minimizes occurrences of more than one bacterial cell forming a single colony

49
Q

What is the goal of serial dilution

A

to obtain plates with CFU,s between 30-300

50
Q

what determines the number of serial dilutions

A

preliminary estimate of culture density

51
Q

what are the steps of the our plate method

A
  1. bacteria is mixed with warm agar
  2. sample cured onto sterile plate
  3. sample swirled to mix, allowed to solidify
  4. plate incubated until bacterial colonies grow
52
Q

what temperature should liquid warm agar be

53
Q

What are the tips of the spread plate method

A
  1. sample is poured onto solid medium
  2. spread the sample evenly over the surface
  3. plate incubated until bacterial colonies grow on the surface of the medium
54
Q

what is the membrane filtration technique

A

known volumes are vacuum-filtered aseptically through a membrane with a pore size small to trap microorganisms so they are more concentrated.

55
Q

what is the most probable number method

A

a statistical procedure for estimating thenumbr of viable microorganisms in a sample usually for water and food samples

56
Q

what does the most probable number evaluate

A

detectable growth by observing changes in turbidity or color due to metabolic activity

57
Q

what is a typical application of th e most probable number method

A

estimation of coliform in a sample of pond water

58
Q

what does the pretense of coliform a sign of

A

contamination by fecal mater

59
Q

how does the MPN method work

A

three dilutions of the water sample is tested by inoculating five lactose broth tubes with 10ml of sample, 5 with 1ml and 5 with 0.1ml. the lactose tube the results are based of ph indicator

60
Q

what is the most common method of indirect cell counts

A

measuring turbidity

61
Q

what machine measures turbidity

A

spectrophotometer

62
Q

how does a spectrophotometer work

A

a light beam is transmitted through a bacterial suspension, the amount of light passing through and reaching the detector is converted to a percent or value

63
Q

what is the relationship between light detected and bacteria

A

the more bacteria the less light

64
Q

how must the cell suspension for dry measuring be prepared

A

by concentrating through filtration or centrifugation, washed and then dried

65
Q

what is dry weight measuring useful for

A

filamentous microorganisms that are difficult to enumerate by direct or viable plate count

66
Q

What happens in fragmentation

A

many nucleotides may accumulate I an enlarged round cell or along a filament leading to many new cells at once that slit from a parent filament and float away

67
Q

example of bacteria that uses fragmentation

A

cyanobacteria

68
Q

where is fragmentation commonly observed

A

actinomycetes

69
Q

what are actinomycetes

A

a group of gram positive anaerobic bacteria found in soil

70
Q

how do epulopiscium divide

A

several daughter cells grow fully in the parent which eventually disintegrates releasing new cells

71
Q

what happens in budding

A

species form a long narrow exertion at one pole, the tip of the extortion swells and forms a smaller cell, the bud detaches from the parent cell

72
Q

where is budding most common

A

yeast, but also observed in prosthecate bacteria and one cyanobacteria

73
Q

Where do filamentous biofilms form

A

rapidly flowing water, such as freshwater streams, eddies and specially designed lab flow cells that replicate fast moving liquid

74
Q

what does the extracellular matrix of biofilm consist of

A

extracellular polymeric substances secreted by organisms in the biofilm

75
Q

what percent of the biofilm is extracellular matrix

A

50-90% of total dry mass

76
Q

what is app

A

a hydrated gel composed of polysaccharides and containing other macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids and lipids that help maintain integrity and function of the biofilm

77
Q

what do channels in the EPS do

A

allow movement of nutrients wast and gases through biofilm

78
Q

what are planktonic cells

A

free-floating microbial cells that live in an aquatic environment

79
Q

what are the stages of biofilm formation

A
  1. reversible attachment of planktonic cells
  2. first colonizers become irreversibly attached
  3. growth and cell division
  4. production of EPS and formation of water channels
  5. attachment of secondary colonizers and dispersion of microbes to new sites
80
Q

what happens in biofilms that contain both aerobic and anaerobic pathogens

A

hate product of one organism becomes nutrients for another, aerobic microorganisms consume oxygen crating anaerobic regions that promote growth of anaerobes

81
Q

what is quorum sensing

A

the mechanism that cells in a biofilm coordinate their activities in response to environmental stimuli

82
Q

what does quorum sensing allow microorganisms to do

A

to detect their cell density through the release of binding of small diffusible molecules called autoinducers

83
Q

what do autoinducers do

A

initiate a cascade of reactions that activate genes associated with cellular functions that are beneficial when population reaches critical density

84
Q

how do gram-negative bacteria communicate

A

N-acylated homoserine lactones

85
Q

how do gram-positive bacteria communicate

A

small peptides