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From Flashcardlet > Micro Ch. 18 > Flashcards

Micro Ch. 18 Flashcards

1
Q

how does keratin work as a skin defense?

A

gives the cells their ability to withstand damage and abrasion; prevents most microorganisms from penetrating into sensitive deeper tissues

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2
Q

how does sloughing of the skin work as a skin defense?

A

millions of cells from the stratum corneum slough off every day, taking attached microorganisms with them; entire epidermis is replaced every 25-45 days

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3
Q

how does sebum work as a skin defense?

A

has a low pH, making the skin inhospitable to most microorganisms; oily due to its high concentration of lipids; breakdown of lipids leads to toxic by-products that inhibit the growth of microorganisms not adapted to the skin environment

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4
Q

how does sweat work as a skin defense?

A

inhibitory to microorganisms because of its low pH and high salt concentration; contains lysozyme, an enzyme that specifically breaks down peptidoglycan

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5
Q

what areas of the skin are vulnerable to infection?

A

moist areas and skin folds; hair follicles and glandular ducts

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6
Q

name at least three bacteria that are normal microbiota of the skin

A

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Propionibacterium acnes
c. Staphylococcus aureus

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7
Q

how does the eye prevent and stop infection?

A

mucus in conjunctiva and tears; lysozyme and lactoferrin in tears; the flow of tears prevent attachment

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8
Q

name some outer anatomical regions of the eye

A

eyelid, pupil, sclera, and iris (pg 539, figure 18.15)

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9
Q

name some inner anatomical regions of the eye

A

sclera, iris, lens, cornea, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, conjunctiva, retina, optic nerve, and vitreous chamber (pg 539, figure 18.15)

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10
Q

what infections do MRSA cause?

A

sores or boils; sometimes more serious skin infections or infect surgical wounds, the bloodstream, the lungs, or the urinary tract.

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11
Q

how is MRSA different from other Staphylococcus aureus?

A

It is resistant to some antibiotics (methicillin, amoxicillin, penicillin, and oxacillin).

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12
Q

how is MRSA treated?

A

Clindamycin, Tetracyclines (Doxycycline and Minocycline), Trimethoprim and Sulfamethaxozole, Rifampin, and Linezolid

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13
Q

what is gangrene?

A

caused by Clostridium perfringens, a gram positive endospore forming bacterium; anaerobic and requires anaerobic conditions to manufacture and release the exotoxins that mediate the damage in the disease.

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14
Q

what is anaerobic cellulitis?

A

the bacteria spread within damaged necrotic muscle tissue, producing toxins and gas as the infection proceeds; remains localized and does not spread to healthy tissue

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15
Q

what is true myonecrosis?

A

more destructive; toxins produced in large muscles; cause local necrosis at these sites; damaged tissue serves as a focus for continued bacterial growth, toxin formation, and gas production

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16
Q

what is the etiological agent of gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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17
Q

what conditions must be present in order for gas gangrene to develop?

A

anaerobic conditions

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18
Q

how is gas gangrene treated?

A

cleansing and surgical repair, debridement, surgery and large doses of antibiotics, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, and amputation

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19
Q

what is the etiological agent of small pox?

A

the variola virus

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20
Q

what are the typical signs and symptoms of a small pox infection?

A

fever and malaise, followed by a rash that starts at the pharynx and spreads to the face and extremities; begins as macular rash

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21
Q

how was small pox eradicated?

A

vaccine based on the vaccinia virus

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22
Q

what is the organism responsible for trachoma?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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23
Q

how is trachoma transmitted?

A

contaminated fingers, fomites, fleas, and a hot, dry climate

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24
Q

name the vector for trachoma.

A

Indirect contact, mechanical vector

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25
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of acne

A

Propionibacterium acnes; not considered transmissible; linked to the amount of sebaceous fluid produced in the skin; tx’d with topical agents to enhance the sloughing of skin cells, either topical or oral abx, and for severe acne, isotretinoin may be prescribed

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26
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of impetigo

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes; highly contagious; transmitted direct contact, fomites, and mechanical vectors; S. aureus impetigo are exotoxins called exfoliative toxins A and B; S. pyogenes impetigo anchors itself to surfaces using a variety of adhesive elements on its surface (M protein), and possesses hyaluronidase; tx’d with topical mupirocin (Bactroban) or retapamulin, or with oral abx dicloxacillin, cephalexin, or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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27
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of chickenpox

A

human herpesvirus 3; highly contagious, droplet contact, inhalation or aerosolized lesion fluid; incubation period of 10-20 days; usually lasts 4-7 days; contagious until lesions have crusted over; no tx necessary unless secondary infection occurs, in which case, abx are rx’d

28
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of measles

A

Morbillivirus; transmitted by respiratory droplents; virus implants in the respiratory mucosa and infects the tracheal and bronchial cells; travels to the lymphatic system; multiples and then enters the bloodstream; Viremia carries the virus to the skin and to various organs

29
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of rubella

A

Rubivirus; via contact with respiratory secretions or urine; mildly communicable; highly dangerous to fetus; postnatal rubella is generally benign and requires only symptomatic tx; no specific tx is available for the congenital manifestations

30
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of Scarlet fever

A

result of a respiratory infection with Streptococcus pyogenes; transmitted via droplet or direct contact; occasionally follows a streptococcal skin infection; can produce a distinctive red rash on the skin; tx’d with penicillin or clindamycin

31
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of warts

A

caused by HPV-1; transmitted through direct contact, autoinoculation, and indirectly; tx’d by home remedies, including nonprescription salicylic acid preparations, drugs, and/or cryosurgery; warts can grow back

32
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of ringworm

A

about 39 species in the genera Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton;direct and indirect contact with other humans or with infected animals; the dermatophytes have the ability to invade and digest keratin; tx’d with topical antifungal agents

33
Q

name the etiological agent, transmission, pathogenesis, and treatment of conjunctivitis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis (neonatal), and Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella; transmitted vertically from a genital tract infection, or autoinoculation from a genital infection or from sexual activity; tx’d with erythromycin (topically and orally), ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin eye drops, erythromycin, gentamicin; prophylactic abx

34
Q

name the important anatomical features of the skin

A

epidermis, stratum basale, dermis, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, hair follicles, superficial fascia, subcutaneous fat, nerves, veins, arteries, deep fascia, and muscle

35
Q

list the types of the normal biota presently known to occupy the skin

A

Staphylococcus eptidermidis, Propionibacterium acnes, and staphylococcus aureus

36
Q

which infectious skin conditions are transmitted to the respiratory tract through droplet contact?

A

`scalded skin syndrome, chickenpox, smallpox, measles, rubella, fifth disease, scarlet fever

37
Q

which skin conditions call for vaccination?

A

chickenpox, smallpox, measles, rubella

38
Q

what are the normal biota in the eye?

A

Staphylococcus edidermidis, Micrococcus, Streptococcus, and Corynebacterium species

39
Q

what is the possible causative agent for conjunctivitis?

A

Chlamydia tractomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae (neonatal); S. pneumoniae, S. aureus, Haemophilus influenza, Moraxella, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis (bacterial); Adenoviruses (viral)

40
Q

what is the possible causative agent for keratitis?

A

Herpes simplex virus

41
Q

what is the possible causative agent for river blindness?

A

Wolbachia, Onchocerca volvulus

42
Q

why are there distinct differential diagnoses for neonatal and non-neonatal conjunctivitis?

A

neonatal conjunctivitis is usually transmitted vertically from a genital tract infection in the mother and can lead to serious eye damage if not treated promptly

43
Q

an example of an effective treatment for a cutaneous mycosis like tinea pedis would be

A

miconazole

44
Q

what is the antimicrobial enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that can specifically break down peptidoglycan?

A

lysozyme

45
Q

what is probably the most important defense factor for the skin?

A

antimicrobial peptides

46
Q

name the organisms most commonly associated with cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

47
Q

due to a highly successful vaccination program, the WHO has managed the worldwide eradication of what naturally occurring disease?

A

smallpox

48
Q

what are warts caused by?

A

papillomavirus

49
Q

herpesviruses can cause what diseases?

A

chickenpox, shingles, roseola, and keratitis

50
Q

dermatophytes are fungi that infect the epidermal tissue by invading and attacking what skin defense?

A

keratin

51
Q

poor contact lens hygiene is likely to cause

A

Acanthamoeba keratitis

52
Q

what enzyme is associated with pathogenic strands of Staphylococcus aureus?

A

coagulase

53
Q

how can fifth disease be treated and prevented?

A

there is no treatment or prevention

54
Q

what makes up the integument?

A

skin, hair, nails, and sweat and oil glands

55
Q

describe and give an example of a bulla

A

large wide vesicle; blister, gas blisters in gangrene

56
Q

describe and give an example of a cyst

A

raised, encapsulated lesion, usually solid or semisolid when palpated; severe acne

57
Q

describe and give an example of a macule

A

flat, well-demarcated lesion characterized mainly by color change; freckle, tinea versicolor

58
Q

describe and give an example of a maculopapular rash

A

flat to slightly raised colored bump; measles, rubella, fifth disease, roseola

59
Q

describe and give an example of a papule

A

small, elevated, solid bump; warts, cutaneous leishmaniasis

60
Q

describe and give an example of petechiae

A

small purpura; meningococcal bloodstream infection

61
Q

describe and give an example of plaque

A

elevated, flat-topped lesion larger than 1 cm; psoriasis

62
Q

describe and give an example of purpura

A

reddish-purple discoloration due to blood in small areas of tissue; does not blanch when pressed; meningococcal bloodstream infection

63
Q

describe and give an example of a pustule

A

small, elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid; acne, smallpox, mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, cutaneous anthrax

64
Q

describe and give an example of a scale

A

flaky portions of skin separated from deeper skin layers; ringworm of the body and scalp, athletes foot

65
Q

describe and give an example of a vesicle

A

elevated lesion with clear fluid; chickenpox

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