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MICRO BIO CHAPTER 6 QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

The survival growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.

A

Microbial Growth

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2
Q

What are the requirements for microbial growth it can be divided into 2 main categories

A

Physical and Chemical

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3
Q

What formation can Microbial growth lead to?

A

Colony and Biofilm

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4
Q

It is the aggregation or collection of cells arising from one single parent cell

A

Colony

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5
Q

Collection of microbes living in a complex community

A

Biofilm

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6
Q

Cold-loving

A

Psychrophiles

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7
Q

moderate temperature

A

Mesophiles

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8
Q

Heat-loving

A

Thermophiles

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9
Q

Lowest temp at which the species will grow?

A

Minimum growth temperature

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10
Q

Temperature at which the species grow best?

A

Optimum growth temperature

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11
Q

highest temperature at which growth is possible?

A

Maximum growth temperature

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12
Q

It refers to the acidity or alkalinity of a solution?

A

pH

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13
Q

Most bacterias grow best in?

A

narrow pH range near neutrality

between pH 6.5 and 7.5

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14
Q

what does pH mean?

A

Power of Hydrogen

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15
Q

common ( most bacteria that thrive inside the body)

A

Neutrophiles

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16
Q

Love acidic pH; example Helicobacter pylori (causative agent for peptic ulcer?

A

Acidophiles

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17
Q

alkali loving bacteria; example vibrio cholarae (strives in small intestine)

A

Alkalinophiles

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18
Q

is the force caused by a solution passing through a semi-permeable surface by osmosis, which is equal to the force required to resist the solution from passing back through the surface

A

Osmotic pressure

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19
Q

Microorganisms obtain almost all their nutrients in solution from the surrounding water.

A

Osmotic Pressure

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20
Q

A hypertonic environment will cause an osmotic loss of water causing plasmolysis?

A

osmotic pressure

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21
Q

shrinkage of cell’s cytoplasm

A

plasmolysis

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22
Q

salt loving

A

Halophiles

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23
Q

microorganisms that require high salt concentration for growth?

A

Extreme halophiles

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24
Q

aka. Obligate halophiles

A

Extreme Halophiles

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25
Q

Microorganisms which do not require high salt concentration but are to grow at salt concentrations 2%

A

Facultative Halophiles

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26
Q

is the structural backbone of living matter?

A

Carbon

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27
Q

needed for all the organic compounds that make up a living cell (ex. Source of energy)

A

Carbon

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28
Q

carbon source is from an organic molecule

A

Chemoheterotrophs

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29
Q

carbon source is from the carbon dioxide

A

Autotrophs

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30
Q

It is a chemical that is primarily used to form the amino group of the amino acids of proteins?

A

Nitrogen

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31
Q

It is used to synthesize sulfur containing amino acids and vitamins.

A

Sulfur

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32
Q

is essential for synthesis of nucleic acids and phospholipids of cell membranes as well as energy bods of ATP

A

Phosphorous

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33
Q

Elements present in living tissues in very low amounts

A

Trace Elements

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34
Q

What are the examples of trace elements?

A

Iron, copper, molybdenum and zinc

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35
Q

Most are essential for function of certain enzymes, usually as cofactors

A

Trace Elements

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36
Q

Bacteria can be classified based on how the require?

A

Oxygen

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37
Q

This are organisms that require oxygen

A

Obligate aerobes

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38
Q

Have enzymes such as Catalase and Superoxide Dismutase that allows the toxic form of oxygen to be neutralized?

A

Obligate Aerobes

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39
Q

In Obligate aerobes where do growth occur?

A

where high concentrations of oxygen have diffuses into the medium

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40
Q

Both aerobic and anaerobic growth; greater growth in presence of oxygen

A

Facultative Anaerobes

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41
Q

Only anaerobic growth;
growth ceases in presence of
oxygen

A

Obligate anaerobes

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42
Q

Growth occurs only when
there is no oxygen

A

Obligate Anaerobes

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43
Q

Lacks
enzymes to
neutralize harmful
forms of oxygen;
cannot tolerate
oxygen

A

Obligate Anaerobes

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44
Q

Only anaerobic growth; but
growth continues in presence
of oxygen

A

Aerotolerant Anaerobes

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45
Q

Growth occurs evenly; oxygen
has no effect

A

Aerotolerant Anaerobes

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46
Q

Presence of one
enzyme, SOD, allows
harmful forms of oxygen
to be partially
neutralized; tolerates
oxygen.

A

Aerotolerant Anaerobes

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47
Q

Only aerobic growth; oxygen
required in low concentration

A

Microaerophiles

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48
Q

Growth occurs only where a
low concentration of oxygen
has diffused into medium

A

Microaerophiles

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49
Q

Produce lethal
amounts of toxic
forms of oxygen if
exposed to normal
atmospheric oxygen.

A

Microaerophiles

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50
Q

A nutrient material
prepared for the growth of
microorganisms in a laboratory.

A

Culture media

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51
Q

Microbes that grow and
multiply in or on a culture
medium.

A

Culture

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52
Q

How can a pure culture that contains only one specie or strain be obtained?

A

Streak Plate Method

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53
Q

the one with the exact chemical
composition.

A

Chemically-Defined Media

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54
Q

Usually reserved for
laboratory experimental work
for the growth of autotrophic
media

A

Chemically Defined Media

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55
Q

exact chemical
composition varies from batch to
batch and is also used in laboratories

A

Complex Media

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56
Q

Suspension of
microorganisms

A

Inoculum

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57
Q

Introduction of
microbes into culture medium

A

Inoculation

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58
Q

Visible growth of microbes
on the surface of the
medium

A

Colony

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59
Q

What is CFU?

A

Colony-Forming Unit

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60
Q

For organisms with no
special requirements (non-fastidious
organisms)

A

SIMPLE MEDIA

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61
Q

(Nutrient Broth)
Mueller hinton broth

A

Liquid Broth

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62
Q

(Nutrient Agar)
-Mueller hinton agar

A

Solid Media

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63
Q

For organisms
with special contents/ nutrients required
for their growth (fastidious organisms)

A

Enriched Media

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64
Q

for high protein-diet
organisms

A

Milk Agar

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65
Q

for high protein-diet
organisms

A

Chocolate Agar

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66
Q
  • for organisms
    that need hemoglobin for survival.
A

Blood Agar plate

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67
Q

used to
distinguish one group of organisms from
another

A

Differential Media

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68
Q

→ Contains 5% sheep’s blood
→ Differential by identifying the type
of hemolysis
→ Some bacteria secrete enzymes
that lyse RBCs such that a clearing
around the colony appears.

A

Blood Agar Plate

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69
Q

partial
hemolysis (red green)

A

Alpha hemolytic

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70
Q

complete
hemolysis (red clear)

A

Beta hemolytic

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71
Q

no hemolysis
(red red)

A

Gamma-hemolytic

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72
Q

example of gamma hemolytic

A

enterococci

73
Q

example of beta hemolytic

A

S. pyogenes (cause of scarlet fever)
S. agalactiae ( neonate pneumonia)

74
Q

for G(-) bacteria
Lactose

A

MacConkey Agar

75
Q
  • fermenting G(-) bacteriaPINK
A

Lactose

76
Q

Example of lactose

A

Neisseria spp.

77
Q

fermenting G(-)
bacteria

A

Non-lactose

78
Q

examples of non lactose

A

Pseudomonas, salmonella, shigella and proteus

79
Q

only allow certain
strain of organisms to grow in the
medium.

A

Selective Media

80
Q

Contains blood, potato extract,
glycerol, and antibiotic
(Cephalexin or Penicilin) or
Nicotinamide for the isolation of
Bordetella pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou Agar

81
Q

Other name of Bordetella pertussis

A

Whooping cough/Perussis

82
Q

→ Complex mixture of different
amino acids, vitamins and growth
factors, enriched with bovine and
rabbit serum, with peptone (as
nitrogen source) and glucose (as
energy source) for the isolation of
Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Barbour-Stoenner-Kelly (BSK) Agar

83
Q

Other name of Borella burgdoferi

A

Lyme disease

84
Q

→ Complex mixture generally
contains potato starch with
glycerated egg-based medium
used for cultivation and isolation
of Mycobacterium species.

A

Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) Media

85
Q

Examples of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) Media

A

M. tubercolosis, M. leprae
(Hansen’s disease/ Leprosy)

86
Q

Types of preserving Bacterial Cultures

A

Deep freezing (low temperatures)
Lyophilization (freeze drying)

87
Q

It is the asexual
reproduction (cell division) of a
bacterium into two new daughter cells, in
a process called binary fission.

A

Bacterial Growth

88
Q

It is the most common
form of reproduction of prokaryotes
(bacteria) in which a fully grown parent
cell splits into 2 halves, producing 2 new
daughter cells

A

Binary fission

89
Q

a time required
for a cell to divide or for a
population to double.

A

Generation time

90
Q

Intense activity
preparing for population growth
but no increase in population

A

Lag Phase

91
Q

Logarithmic, or
exponential, increase in
population (prone to the effects of penicillin)

A

Log Phase

92
Q

(fixed; equal
death and equal new cells): Period
of equilibrium; microbial deaths
balance production of new cells.

A

Stationary Phase

93
Q

Population is
decreasing at a logarithmic rate
*the logarithmic growth in the log
phase is due to reproduction by
binary fission (bacteria) or mitosis
(yeast).

A

Death Phase

94
Q

→ Reflects the number of viable
microbes and assumes that each
bacterium grows into a single
colony.
Done by: Pour Plate or Spread
Plate Method

A

Heterotrophic Plate Count (Direct
Method)

95
Q

Bacteria that are retained on
the surface of the membrane filter
and then the membrane filter is
transferred to a medium for it to
grow and subsequently counted.

A

Filtration

96
Q

Can be used for microbes that will
grow in a liquid medium and is
only a statistical estimation

A

Most Probable Number Method

97
Q

If no
bacteria, the solution should be
clear. The more turbid (more
blurry), more bacteria is present

A

Turbidity Measurement Using a
Spectrophotometer

98
Q

More metabolic activity,
the greater number of bacteria is
present.

A

Measurement of Metabolic
Activity

99
Q

For yeast and fungal
growth

A

Dry Weight

100
Q

Destruction or
removal of ALL FORMS OF
MICROBIAL LIFE, including
endospore but with the possible
exception of prions.

A

Sterilization

101
Q

Sufficient heat treatment to kill
endospores of Clostridium
botulinum in canned food.

A

Commercial Sterilization

102
Q

Destruction of
vegetative pathogens on
inanimate objects.

A

Disinfection

103
Q

Destruction of
vegetative pathogens on living
tissue.

A

Antisepsis

104
Q

Removal of microbes
from a limited area, such as the
skin around an injection site.

A

Degerming

105
Q

Treatment is
intended to lower microbial
counts on eating and drinking utensils to safe public health
levels

A

Sanitization

106
Q

is the process
by which we greatly reduce the
number of microorganisms
present

A

Decontamination

107
Q

MOA: Kills microorganisms by
coagulating (denaturing) of
proteins
(a) Boiling
(b) Autoclave (15 psi, 121
degrees Celsius for 15-30
minutes) kills all microorganisms
except prions (misfolded proteins)

A

Moist Heat Sterilization

108
Q

Employs mild heating which is
sufficient to microorganisms that
can cause particular spoilage
problem without damaging the
taste of the product.

A

Pasterization

109
Q

Phosphatase test (+ yellow)

A

Pasterization

110
Q

Alkaline phosphatase : a normal
enzyme present in milk, but is
denatured during?

A

Pasteurization

111
Q

Standard: at least 72 degrees
Celsius for only 15 seconds (High temperature short-time (HTST)

A

Pasteurization

112
Q

Ultra-high-temperature (UHT)
treatment

A

Sterilization

113
Q

All microorganisms present are
killed

A

Sterilization

114
Q

Sterilized dairy milk can be stored
without refrigeration

A

Sterilization

115
Q

MOA: Oxidation
(a) Direct flaming
(b) Hot-air sterilization

A

Dry Heat Sterilization

116
Q
  • Items to be sterilized are placed
    in an oven maintained with
    temperature of about 170
    degrees Celsius for nearly 2
    hours. (more time and higher
    temp needed because there is no
    water present)
A

Dry Heat Sterilization

117
Q

Longer period and higher
temperature are required because
heat in water is more readily
transferred to a cool body than
heat in air.

A

Dry Heat Sterilization

118
Q

It is the passage of a liquid or gas
through a screenlike material with
pores small enough to retain
microorganisms

A

Filtration

119
Q

Remove almost all
microorganisms larger than
about 0.3 micrometer in
diameter.

A

High-efficiency particulate air
(HEPA) filters

120
Q

It alters the molecular structures
of proteins and carbohydrates
resulting in the rapid inactivation
of vegetative bacterial cells.

A

HIGH PRESSURE

121
Q

Advantage: Preservation of
flavors, colors and nutrient values
of the products.

A

HIGH PRESSURE

122
Q

Process of extreme drying
(absence of water)

A

Dessication

123
Q

Involves ordinary refrigeration
(O-7 degrees celsius) which
can promote bacteriostatic
effect

A

Lyophilization/ freeze-drying

124
Q

Which is much more capable than growing bacteria in material with moisture or high osmotic pressures?

A

Molds and Yeasts

125
Q

Creates hypertonic environment
that causes water to leave the
microbial cell

A

OSMOTIC PRESSURE

126
Q

Can be used for sterilization of
medical supplies (petri dish,
plastic syringes) or food (spices,
meat)

A

RADIATION

127
Q

MOA: ionization of water which
forms highly reactive hydroxyl
radicals, that kill organisms by
reacting with organic cellular
components (DNA) and damaging
them.

A

RADIATION

128
Q

Short wavelength, high energy

A

RADIATION

129
Q

UV Light (germicidal action at
260 nm_

A

Nonionizing radiation

130
Q

MOA: Damages the DNA of
exposed cells by causing bonds to
form between adjacent pyrimidine
bases (usually thymines), in DNA
chains, which will then inhibit
correct replication of DNA.

A

Nonionizing radiation

131
Q

Commonly used in air sterilization
(hospital rooms, operating rooms,
cafeteria)

A

Nonionizing radiation

132
Q

what are examples of nonionizing radiation?

A

Microwaves

133
Q

First
used by Lister to control surgical
infections in the operating room.

A

PHENOL(CARBOLI ACID)

134
Q

Now rarely used as an
antiseptic or disinfectant
because it irritates the skin
and has a disagreeable odor

A

Phenol

135
Q

Contain molecule
of phenol that has been
chemically altered to reduce its
irritating qualities or increase its
antibacterial activity.

A

Phenolics (Phenol Derivatives)

136
Q

Derivatives of phenol that contain
2 phenolic groups connected by a
bridge.

A

Bisphenols

137
Q
  • antibacterial soaps,
    toothpastes and mouthwashes
  • It inhibits enzymes
    needed for the biosynthesis of
    fatty acids (lipids-affects the
    integrity if plasma membrane)
A

Triclosan

138
Q

Have a broad spectrum of activity

A

Biguanides

139
Q

best-known
biguanide; frequently used for
microbial control on skin and
mucous membrane; Listerine,
gynepro feminine wash

A

Chlorhexidine

140
Q

Iodine and chlorine derivatives

A

Halogens

141
Q

is the oldest and most
effective antiseptics.

A

iodine

142
Q

effective against all kinds of
bacteria, various fungi and some
viruses

A

iodine

143
Q

Most common commercial
preparation of iodine

A

Povidone-iodine (Betadine)

144
Q

A surface-active iodophor that
improves the wetting action and
serves as a reservoir of free
iodine

A

Povidone-iodine (Betadine)

145
Q

MOA: due to hypochlorous acid
(HOCl) formed when chlorine is
added to water

A

Chlorine

146
Q

other term of chlorine?

A

germicidal

147
Q

most effective form of chlorine
because of its neutral charge and
diffuses rapidly through the cell
wall.

A

Hypochlorous acid

148
Q
  • a strong oxidizing agent that
    prevents cellular enzyme system
    from functioning
A

Hypochlorite

149
Q

Used to disinfect dairy
equipment and restaurant eating
utensils

A

Calcium hypochlorite

150
Q

used to household disinfectant
and bleach (Clorox)
- used in municipal chlorination of
drinking water.

A

Sodium hypochlorite

151
Q
  • Effectively kills bacteria and fungi but
    not endospores and nonenveloped
    viruses
A

Alcohol

152
Q

what are the two most commonly used alcohol?

A

Ethanol and isopropanol

153
Q

MOA: Oligodynamic action
-ability of very small amounts of heavy
metals to exert antimicrobial activity

A

Heavy Metals

154
Q

used as an antiseptic in a 1% AgNO3
solution against eye infection in
newborns (opthalmia neonatorum)

A

Silver

155
Q
  • available as topical cream for use on
    burns; burn patients are most
    susceptible to pseudomonal infections
    so burns are wrapped with
    silversulfadiazine
A

Silversulfadiazine (Flammazine)

156
Q

once used as a disinfectant with very
broad spectrum of activity primarily as a
bacteriostatic

A

Mercuric chloride

157
Q

used as additives to control fungal
diseases of plants

A

Copper 8-hydroxyquinoline

158
Q

common ingredient in mouthwashes

A

Zinc chloride

159
Q

antimicrobial ingredient in antidandruff
shampoos

A

Zinc pyrithione

160
Q

decrease surface tension among
molecules of a liquid
- may be anionic, cationic, nonionic

A

Surface-Active Agents (Surfactants)

161
Q

has little value as an antiseptic,
but it does have an important function in
the mechanical removal of microbes
through scrubbing

A

Soaps and detergents

162
Q

MOA of soap and detergents

A

Emulsification

163
Q

They are very important in cleaning
food-processing facilities (dairy utensils
and equipment)

A

Acid-Anionic Sanitizers

164
Q

Usually in combinations of phosphoric
acid with a surface-active agent.

A

Acid-Anionic Sanitizers

165
Q

AKA: cationic detergents (positively
charged)

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (Quats)

166
Q

They are also fungicidal, amebicidal,
and virucidal against enveloped viruses

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds (Quats)

167
Q

These are chemical preservatives
frequently added to foods to retard
spoilage.

A

Chemical Food Preservatives

168
Q

Once used as disinfectant especially in
winemaking

A

Sulfur dioxide

169
Q

Prevent molds from growing in acidic
foods (cheese and soft drinks)

A

Sorbic acid, potassium sorbate and
Na benzoate

170
Q

added to meat products (ham, bacon,
hotdogs and sausages)

A

Na nitrate and Na nitrite

171
Q

what are the function of Na nitrite?

A

Preserve red color of meat
Prevent growth of botulism edospores

172
Q

Na nitrate and Na nitrite

A

Aldehydes

173
Q

It is used extensively to preserve biological specimens and
inactivate bacteria and viruses in
vaccines

A

Formaldehyde and formalin

174
Q

less irritating and more effective than
formaldehyde.

A

Glutaraldehyde (2% Cidex)

175
Q

used for materials that are temperature
sensitive (materials that can’t be used in
autoclaves for sterilization)

A

Glutaraldehyde (2% Cidex)

176
Q

Advantages: Sterilization is possible
in ambient temperatures and is highly
penetrating.

A

Ethylene oxide

177
Q

It was used to fumigate enclosed
buildings contaminated with endospores
of anthrax.

A

Chlorine dioxide

178
Q

Its most common use is in water
treatment prior to chlorination.

A

Chlorine dioxide

179
Q
A

FlashCards for Quizes (12 decks)

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