Micro - Bacteria, Fungi, Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

lipoteichoic acid =

A

gram +, induces TNF and IL-1

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2
Q

Exception to polysaccharide capsule

A

B. anthracis = D-glutamate polypeptide

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3
Q

dipiclonic acid

A

heat stability of spores

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4
Q

LOS (not LPS)

A

Nisseria
Campylobacter
Bordatella
H. flu

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5
Q

SHiN

A

Encapsulated - vaccines
IgA protease
transformation (can uptake naked DNA)

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6
Q

Urease +

A
Proteus
Crypto
H. pylori
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S. epidermidis
S. saprophiticus
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7
Q

Catalase +

A
Nocardia
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. coli
Serratia
staph (all)
H. pylori
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8
Q

M protein

A

GAS, prevents phagocytosis, similar to human cellular protein (mimickry)

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9
Q

Inactivate EF-2

A

c. diptheriae

p aeruginosa

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10
Q

Remove adenine from rRNA inhibiting 60s

A

Shigella
EHEC

*shiga (like) toxin induces cytokine release which is what causes HUS

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11
Q

toxin increases GC (and cGMP)

A

ST of ETEC = decreased NaCL resorption

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12
Q

Bacteria that increase cAMP + mechanism

A
Overactivate AC via:
ETEC LT - ?
cholera = activate Gs
Bordatella = inhibit Gi
B. anthracis = mimics AC
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13
Q

Bacteria with toxins encoded in lysogenic phage (specialized transduction)

A
Shiga-like (EHEC)
Botulinum 
Cholera
Diptheria
Erythrogenic strep pyo
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14
Q

PYR +

A

S. pyo

E. fecalis (enterococci)

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15
Q

Superantigens: MOA and examples

A
TSST-1 (s. aureus) 
Exotoxin A (s. pyo)

Binds APC MHC-II to TCR of Th cell –> polyclonal T-cell activation

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16
Q

Ferments mannitol

A

S. aureus

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17
Q

s. pneumo vs. H flu MC infections

A

s. pneumo = MOPS (sinusitis)

H. flu = EMOP (epiglottitis)

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18
Q

rusty sputum

A

s. pneumo

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19
Q

scarlet fever features

A
phage-encoded (erythrogenic toxin)
sandpaper rash
post sore throat
strawberry tongue
circumoral pallor
subsequent desquamation
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20
Q

s. agalactiae

A

CAMP factor - enlarges s. aureus zone of hemolysis

Hippurate test +

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21
Q

acute endocarditis: causes

A
normal valve = s. aureus
IVFA = s. aureus or candida
Damaged valve = s. viridans
post GI/GU procedure = gp D enterococci (E. fecalis/E. Fecium]
With colon cancer = strep bovis
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22
Q

diptheria s/s

A

pseudomembrane
arrhythmias
myocarditis
LAD

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23
Q

metachromatic (blue and red) granules with + Elek test

A

c. diptheria

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24
Q

c. perfringens toxin

A

toxin a = lecithinase

double-zone hemolysis

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25
Q

flu like –> fever, pulmonary hemmorhage, mediastinitis, shock

A

pulmonary anthrax (wool-sorters)

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26
Q

Only gram + with endotoxin

A

listeria

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27
Q

Nocardia vs actinomyces rx

A
nocardia = sulfonamides (cutaneous or pulmonary)
actinomyces = penicillin (draining sinuses)
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28
Q

negative PPD with what:

A

anergy (steroids, AIDS, malnutrition)

sarcoidosis

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29
Q

MAC prophylaxis

A

azithromycin, when CD4

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30
Q

TB virulence factors

A

1) Cord factor: prevents macrophage maturation and induces TNF-a release
2) Sulfatides: surface, inhibit P-L fusion

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31
Q

fast lactose fermenters

A

e. coli
klebsiella
enterobacter

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32
Q

slow lactose fermenters

A

serratia

citrobacter

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33
Q

non-lactose fermenters

A

oxidase + = pseudomonas

oxidase - = salmonella + proteus (H2S); + shigella + yersinia

34
Q

EBM growth:

A

purple/black = lactose fermenter

blue/green sheen = e. coli

35
Q

nisseria gonorrhea in cells:

A

PMNs

36
Q

Pontiac fever

A

mild legionella - flu-like

37
Q

EPEC

A

pediatric watery diarrhea - flattened villi, NO toxin

38
Q

e. coli that does not ferment sorbitor

A

EHEC

39
Q

STI with donovan bodies

A

Klebsiella granulomatosis

40
Q

E. coli K1 capsule causes:

A

neonatal meningitis

41
Q

S. typhi vs shigella

A

S. typhi - hematogenous, monocytes, watery diarrhea

shigella - cell-to-cell, PMN, bloody diarrhea

42
Q

pseudoappendicitis from puppies, pork, or contaminated milk

A

yersinia

43
Q

Random congenital syphilis stuff

A

Rhagades (mouth angle scars)
CN VIII deafness
short maxilla

44
Q

coxiella burnetti

A
Q fever
animal amniotic fluid
spores
obligate IC
MC = pneumonia
also MCC of culture - endocarditis
45
Q

chlamydia rx

A

azithromycin or doxycyclin

46
Q

mycology granuloma

A

blastomycoses - broad-based

47
Q

earthquakes

A

coccidio; spherule with endospores

48
Q

spaghetti and meatballs

A

malassezia

degrade lipids which makes acid which destroys melanocytes

49
Q

tenia unginum

A

nails

50
Q

cells preventing candida

A

Th prevent superficial infection

PMN prevent dissemination

51
Q

type of aspergillus and condition:

A
invasive = CGD, AIDS
allergic = CF, asthma
Aspergilloma = TB
52
Q

latex agglutination test

A

crypotcoccus

53
Q

PCP prophylaxis and rx

A

Prophylaxis

54
Q

Protozoa GI:

  • giardia
  • entameba histolytica
  • cryptosporisium
A
  • giardia - camping, watery
  • entameba histolytica - bloody, anchovy paste liver, flask-shaped GIT ulcers
  • cryptosporisium - AIDS (give nitazoxanide); acid fast oocysts, watery
55
Q

babesiosis

A

ixodes tick
fever and hemolytic anemia
maltese cross in RBCs

56
Q

Nematodes (roundworms) in GIT

- rx = bendazole

A
  • Enterobius vermicularis
  • Ascaries lumbricoides - iliocecal obstruction
  • strongyloides stercoralis - soil to skin, PUD-like intestinal infection
  • ancylostoma duodenale/necator americanus = hookworm, anemia
  • Trichinella spiralis - pork, striated muscle cysts, N/V, PERIORBITAL EDEMA, MYALGIA
57
Q

Nematodes in TISSUE

A
  • oncocerca volvulis - blackfly, river blindness, hyperpigmented skin, allergy; ivermectin
  • loa loa - deer/horse/mango fly, conjunctive, DEC
  • wucheria - female mosquitoes, eleph. in 1yr., DEC
  • toxocara canis - visceral larva migrans
58
Q

Nematode routes:

A

EATT - ingest
SANd - feet
LOW - bite

59
Q

Cestodes (tapeworms)

rx = praziquantel and/or albendazole

A
  • taenia solium - cysts in pork = intestinal; eggs = neurocysercircosis
  • diphyllibothrium - raw fish, B12
  • ecchinococcus granulosis - eggs in dog feces from them eating sheep; hydatid liver cyst
60
Q

Trematodes (flukes)

- rx = praziquantel

A

shistosoma

  • s. hematobium = urinary - SCC bladder and pulmonary HTN
  • s. mansoni = liver
  • s. japonicium = liver

Clonorchis sinensis
- raw fish, biliary tract inflammation = brown pigment stones; cholangiocarcinoma

61
Q

Rx of C. diff

A

Metro (mild-mod.) - high systemic abs
Vanco (severe) - static, low systemic abs
Fidaxomycin (recurrent) - cidal, low systemic abs

62
Q

what does strep viridans bind to on valves?

A

fibrin-platelet aggregates (damaged valves)

63
Q

s. pneumo and bile

A

bile soluble .: clears turbidity of s. pneumo growth (clearing of turbidity)

64
Q

Function of Vi salmonella

A

capsule, prevents phagocytosis

65
Q

Motile bugs

A

Salmonella
pseudomonas
Trichomonas

66
Q

Intraabdominal infections MC bugs

A

B. Fragilis

E. coli

67
Q

M protein

A

Virulence factor of strep pyo

  • prevents phagocytosis
  • cytotoxic to PMNS
  • mediated bacterial attachment
  • molecular mimicry
68
Q

C. perfringes food poisoning via

A

reheated meat

69
Q

Yersinia enterolytica

A

daycares, pseudoappendicitis

70
Q

MCC pneumonia kids 4weeks-18yrs

A

RSV!

Then mycoplasma, C. trachomatic, C. pneumoniae, S. pneumo

71
Q

MCC pneumonia adults 18-40

A

MYCOPLASMA

c. pneumoniae
s. pneumonia

72
Q

MCC pneumonia adults 40-65

A

S. PNEUMO
H. flu
Anaerobes, viruses, mycoplasma

73
Q

MCC eldery

A

S. PNEUMO
influenza
anaerobes, h. flu, gram - rods

74
Q

Rx listeria

A

ampicillin

75
Q

Osteomyelitis in IVDA

A

pseudomonas, s. aureus, candida

76
Q

congenital toxo triad

A

chorioretinitis
intracerebral calcifications
hydrocephalus

77
Q

Congenital rubella triad:

A

PDA (or pulmonary A. hypoplasia)
Cataracts
Deafness

78
Q

Congenital CMV

A

deafness
seizures
petechial rash

79
Q

Congenital HIV

A

recurrent infections and diarrhea

80
Q

HSV-2

A

encephalitis

herpetic lesions

81
Q

LVG

A

C. trachomatis 1-3