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Pediatric Boards > MedStudy Bank Cards > Flashcards

MedStudy Bank Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What are the levels of B12 and Folate seen in children with Celiac Disease?

A

B12 is normal while Folate is low

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2
Q

What drugs are most associated with DRESS syndrome?

A

Anticonvulsants and Sulfonamides

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3
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of papular acrodermatitis (Gianni-Crosti syndrome)?

A

Multiple, slightly edematous, papular, symmetrically distributed lesions of the face, buttocks, and extremities that spares the trunk. It used to be most commonly caused by hepatitis (A/B), but now by EBV.

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4
Q

What can cause both bloody vaginal discharge and gastrointestinal symptoms in the same patient simultaneously?

A

Shigella flexneri and Shigella sonnei

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5
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of McCune-Albright syndrome?

A

Large cutaneous cafe-au-lait macules with jagged borders (coast of Maine), endocrinopathies, and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia of the skeleton.

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of the rash associated with HHV-6 (roseola infantum)?

A

Discrete small and slightly elevated, pinkish, blanching lesions on the trunk that spreads to the face

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7
Q

Where is the location of pain associated with tennis elbow?

A

Lateral epicondyle

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8
Q

Which type of patients may see additional benefits from Depo injections over others?

A

Adolescents with seizure disorders due to possible anticonvulsant effects

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9
Q

What syndrome is associated with transient myeloproliferative disease in infancy?

A

Trisomy 21

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10
Q

What is the initial intervention for a child with a fixed congenital clubbed foot?

A

Casting

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11
Q

What genetic metabolic syndrome can sometimes show clinical improvement with pyridoxine administration?

A

Homocystinuria

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12
Q

Which population of patients typically present with Blount’s disease?

A

Females, African Americans, and obese children.

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13
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Friedrich Ataxia?

A

Proximal lower extremity weakness, ataxia, cardiomyopathy, and scoliosis, all of which are progressive.

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14
Q

What are the main side effects of topical steroid use?

A

Hypopigmentation, telangiectasias, and atrophy.

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15
Q

What is the minimum age and LDL level to implement pharmacologic therapy for hypercholesterolemia in children without other risk factors?

A

8 years of age and an LDL level greater than 190mg/dL.

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16
Q

What is rib notching on chest x-ray pathognomic for?

A

Coarctation of the aorta.

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17
Q

What is a serious, sometimes fatal adverse effect of valproic acid?

A

Hyperammonemic encephalopathy.

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18
Q

What disorder is associated with a single central incisor?

A

Growth hormone deficiency.

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19
Q

What diagnosis is consistent with very-high voltage, random, slow waves and spikes in all cortical areas on EEG (hypsarrhythmia)?

A

Infantile spasms

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20
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of Moyamoya disease?

A

Typical in Asian females.
Presents as altered mental status, recurrent headaches, chorea, TIAs, and hemorrhagic stroke.
Found to have dilated arterial collateral vessels from stenotic lesions in the Circle of Willis.

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21
Q

What findings on neuroimaging are associated with tuberous sclerosis?

A

Hemispheric atrophy with serpinginous calcifications.

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22
Q

What findings are associated with an Erb-Duchene palsy?

A

“Waiter’s tip” position of the arm due to a C5/C6 injury.

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23
Q

What physical examination finding should raise concern for a splenic rupture in people struck by a car?

A

Left shoulder pain or medially displaced gastric bubble.

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24
Q

What laboratory finding is used in neonates to determine if mothers are at an increased risk to transmit Hepatitis B?

A

HBeAG-positivity

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25
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with hemolytic disease in premature infants?

A

Vitamin E

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26
Q

What symptoms are associated with Galactosemia?

A

Liver dysfunction, jaundice, E. coli sepsis, cataracts, and urinary ketones/reducing substances

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27
Q

What syndrome is associated with sudden death while receiving growth hormone therapy?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

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28
Q

What are the characteristic findings associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

History of poor wound healing, doughy smooth texture to the skin, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic root dilitation/dissection

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29
Q

What is the treatment for acute serotonin syndrome symptoms?

A

Cyproheptadine

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30
Q

What are the findings associated with Fanconi anemia?

A

Pancytopenia, microcephaly, hypopigmentation/cafe-au-lait macules, thumb/radial anomalies, hypogonadism, ocular/ear anomalies, and renal anomalies

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31
Q

What are two physical findings associated with Wilms’ tumor?

A

Aniridia and Hemihypertrophy

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32
Q

What syndrome is associated with aortic and renal artery stenosis?

A

Williams syndrome

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33
Q

What skin findings are associated with a Neuroblastoma?

A

Subcutaneous blue nodules

Periorbital ecchymosis with proptosis

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34
Q

What cutaneous findings are associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Hemorrhagic crusted papules and papulovesicles

Recalcitrant seborrheic dermatitis-like eruption with lymphadenopathy

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35
Q

What spinal anomaly is associated with type 1 diabetes in pregnancy?

A

Caudal regression

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36
Q

What are the first three male changes in puberty?

A

Spermarche
Acne
Axillary perspiration

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37
Q

What syndrome do patients with DiGeorge syndrome also often have?

A

CHARGE syndrome

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38
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for at-risk patients before oropharyngeal procedures?

A

Amoxicillin 2g approximately 30-60 minutes prior to the procedure

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39
Q

What are the risk factors associated with jejunal atresia?

A

Low-birth weight
Maternal tobacco use
Maternal cocaine use

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40
Q

What is the cause of inflammatory papules and pustules in acne?

A

Rupture of closed comedones (whiteheads)

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41
Q

What are the characteristic findings seen in tuberous sclerosis?

A

Hypopigmented macules (Ash-leaf spots), facial angiofirbomas, yellow-orange hamartoma, and brownish fibrous plaques on the forehead

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42
Q

What circumstances cause umbilical hernias to need repair outside of strangulation?

A

Enlarges post- 1 to 2 years of age

Persists to year 5 or 6 of life

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43
Q

Which congenital malformations is Parvovirus B19 associated with?

A

None. It is associated with ascites, pleural/pericardial effusions, and hydrops

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44
Q

What vitamin deficiencies are typically seen post-gastric bypass?

A

B-complex vitamins

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45
Q

What are the characteristic findings of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A

Progressive ascending weakness with atrophy leading to “stork legs”, as well as loss of deep tendon reflexes

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46
Q

What are petechial lesions of the vagina and cervix (“strawberry cervix”) consistent with?

A

Trichomonas infection

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47
Q

What diagnosis is associated with bloody stools and freckling of the lips?

A

Peutz-Jegher’s Syndrome

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48
Q

What are the differences between Marfan’s syndrome and Homocystinuria?

A

Marfan’s syndrome has normal IQ and upwardly displaced lenses.
Homocystinuria has lower IQ and downward displaced lenses.

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49
Q

What is a key difference between Fanconi anemia and Diamond-Blackfan syndrome?

A

Fanconi anemia is associated with pancytopenia whereas the other is only anemia

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50
Q

What are the findings associated with icthyosis vulgaris?

A

A rash with thickening and hyperlinearity, as well as accentuated markings on the palms and soles. There are also large plate-like scales on the extensor surfaces of the extremities and lower back.

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51
Q

What is the diagnosis of a lytic, ground-glass appearing expansile femur lesion?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

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52
Q

What is the diagnosis of a broad-based pedunculated lesion of the femur?

A

Osteochondroma

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53
Q

What is the diagnosis of a radiolucent, sharply marginated lesion of the hand?

A

Endochondroma

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54
Q

What is the diagnosis of an eccentric lytic lesion showing destruction and expansion bordered by a thin sclerotic border?

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst

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55
Q

What is the diagnosis of an oval lucency surrounded by a sclerotic border that has pain worse at night?

A

Osteoid osteoma

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56
Q

What are the characteristic findings associated with dermatomyositis?

A

Elevated aldolase and creatine kinase
Hypertrophic, violaceous papules overlying the PIP/DIP joints
Malaise
Weakness

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57
Q

When will the average girl experience her first menstrual period after telarche begins?

A

30 to 31 months

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58
Q

How long should MMR/VZV vaccines be delayed post-IVIG administration?

A

8 to 11 months

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59
Q

What antenatal clinical finding is associated with myotubular myopathy?

A

Polyhydramnios

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60
Q

What clinical findings are associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?

A

Hemihypertrophy, hepatosplenomegaly, nephromegaly, beta-cell hypertrophy, hypoglycemia, omphalocele, macroglossia

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61
Q

What is a common cardiac complication that occurs in children with eating disorders?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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62
Q

What disease process are infantile rhabdomyomas and infantile spasms associated with?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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63
Q

What is the radiographic finding associated with vitamin D deficiency rickets?

A

A widening of the growth plates associated with metaphyseal fraying and cupping of the distal radius and ulna

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64
Q

What two drugs are usually linked to drug-induced lupus syndrome?

A

Hydralazine

Procainamide

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65
Q

What are the features associated with myotonic dystrophy?

A

Wasting of the facial muscles, neck muscles, and distal extremities with sparing of the proximal musculature

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66
Q

What are the characteristic findings of Bloom syndrome?

A

Long limbs, photosensitivity, protruding ears, severe growth deficiency, and a propensity for neoplasms such as ALL

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67
Q

What is the most specific test for an acute EBV infection?

A

IgM EBV viral capsid antigen

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68
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in children with a history of Guillan-Barre?

A

LAIV (Live-Attenuated Influenza Virus)

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69
Q

What are the five major criteria used to diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A

Carditis, Erythema Marginatum, Subcutaneous Nodules, Polyarthritis, and Chorea

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70
Q

What immunoglobulin-related syndrome is associated with Pneumocystis infections?

A

Hyper IgM

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71
Q

What medications are recommended for autistic children with self-injurious behaviors?

A

Risperdone

Aripiprazole

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72
Q

What are the differences between intracranial calcifications seen with congenital CMV and toxoplasmosis?

A

CMV - periventricular

Toxoplasmosis - Entire brain with basal ganglia focus

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73
Q

What are the typical lesions seen with Reactive Arthritis?

A

Shallow erosions on the buccal mucosa and along the gum lines

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74
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Hyponatremia

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75
Q

What is the causative organism of tinea versicolor?

A

Malasezzia globosa

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76
Q

What is a unique feature of the JIA/JRA rash?

A

It reappears while afebrile when you stroke the skin

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77
Q

What vitamin is well-known to enhance the absorption of iron?

A

Vitamin C

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78
Q

What nutritional deficiency is associated with “spooning” of the nails?

A

Iron

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79
Q

What laboratory study can help differentiate between iron deficiency and lead poisoning?

A

Urine coproporphyrins (increased in lead poisoning)

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80
Q

What is the leading cause of death in patients who abuse inhalants?

A

Cardiac arrhythmia

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81
Q

What is the typical rash seen in neonatal lupus erythematosus?

A

Annular, scaling, pinkish plaques with a hemorrhagic crust

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82
Q

Which forms of congenital liver pathology are associated with an elevated indirect bilirubin?

A

Gilbert syndrome

Criggler-Najjar syndrome

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83
Q

What is the best description of the rash associated with Kwashiorkor?

A

Sharply marginated, raised erythema that scales and flakes easily (“flaky paint dermatitis”)

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84
Q

What is the Marcus Gunn phenomenon?

A

Simultaneous eye blinking with ptosis while sucking secondary to an abnormal innervation of the trigeminal and oculomotor nerves

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85
Q

Where is the point of the most pain/tenderness in children with Little Leaguer’s Elbow?

A

Medial Humeral Epicondyle

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86
Q

What syndrome is associated with a love of music but a strong dislike of loud sounds?

A

Williams syndrome

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87
Q

What medications are used to help treat keratosis pilaris?

A

Lactic Acid, Urea Acid, or Glycolic Acid Creams

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88
Q

What are the ECG findings associated with Brugada syndrome?

A

Right bundle branch block
ST-segment elevation in V1 to V3
Syncope
Increased risk of sudden death

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89
Q

What skeletal abnormality is typically seen in Hurler’s syndrome?

A

Dysostosis multiplex of the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae, along with proximally pointed metacarpals, and rounded illiac wings

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90
Q

What electrolyte abnormality inhibits alkalinization of the urine for salicylate overdose?

A

Hypokalemia

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91
Q

What are two of the key defining features of Kallman Syndrome?

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and Anosmia

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92
Q

What are the imaging findings seen with osteochondritis dissecans?

A

A zone of radiolucency that surrounds a well-demarcated, thin, linear fragment of partially attached bone

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93
Q

What are the buzzwords associated with Ewing Sarcoma?

A

“Moth Eaten” and “Onion Skin”

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94
Q

What are the buzzwords associated with Osteosarcoma?

A

“Codman’s Triangle” and “Sunburst pattern”

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95
Q

What medication may be helpful in patients with neurocardiogenic syncope?

A

Fludrocortisone

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96
Q

What kinds of bleeds are patients with Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome at risk for?

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

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97
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of long-acting injectable progesterone?

A

Delayed return to fertility, especially if obese

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98
Q

What disease is associated with rod and tennis racquet-shaped cytoplasmic inclusion bodies?

A

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

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99
Q

What are the names of the inclusion bodies seen in the red blood cells of patients with G6PD deficiency?

A

Heinz Bodies

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100
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of PHACES syndrome?

A 
Posterior fossa abnormalities
Hemangiomas of the face
Arterial cerebrovascular abnormalities
Cardiac anomalies
Eye anomalies
Sternal clefting
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101
Q

How much Vitamin D should babies get per day?

A

400 IU

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102
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes?

A

Random glucose greater than 200 with symptoms of diabetes, fasting glucose greater than 126, GTT at 2 hours greater than 200, or an A1C greater than or equal to 6.5%

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103
Q

What is the vaginal pH of women with bacterial vaginosis?

A

Greater than 4.5

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104
Q

What disease processes show basophilic stipling of the red blood cell?

A

Lead poisoning, thalassemia, chronic alcohol abuse, sickle cell anemia, megaloblastic anemia, and sideroblastic anemia

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105
Q

What drug most commonly causes IgA bullous dermatosis?

A

Vancomycin

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106
Q

What chronic disorder develops in adolescents with a childhood history of cyclic vomiting syndrome?

A

Chronic recurrent migraines

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107
Q

What disorder is associated with an increased risk for SMA syndrome?

A

Anorexia nervosa

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108
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a cholesteatoma?

A

Surgical excision

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109
Q

What activity is associated with exacerbation of absence seizures?

A

Hyperventilation

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110
Q

What electrolyte disturbances are seen with bulimia?

A

Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypophosphatemia

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111
Q

What vitamin deficiency is known to occur with long term anticonvulsant usage?

A

Vitamin D

112
Q

What is Eisenmenger syndrome?

A

Long-term left-to-right shunting converts to right-to-left shunting due to severe pulmonary hypertension

113
Q

What disease processes are pyoderma gangrenosum associated with?

A

Inflammatory bowel diseases

114
Q

What disease processes occur more frequently in patients with a selective IgA deficiency?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease, Giardia, Celiac disease, and sinopulmonary infections

115
Q

What is a known distinctive laboratory finding in infants with pneumonia secondary to Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Peripheral eosinophilia

116
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Moebius syndrome?

A

Bilateral facial nerve paralysis (CN 7) and bilateral abducens nerve paralysis (CN 6), leading to an expressionless face with a very poor suck and absent grimmace

117
Q

What disease is associated with a figure-of-eight (hourglass) appearance of the vulva?

A

Lichen sclerosus

118
Q

What is the function of the glands affected by McCune-Albright syndrome?

A

Hyperfunctioning

119
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a brown recluse spider bite?

A

Local irritation with ulceration

120
Q

What are the symptoms associated with a black widow spider bite?

A

Pain, cramping, vomiting, chest tightness, and hypertension

121
Q

What viral infections typically precede acute cerebellar ataxia?

A

Varicella, Echovirus, and Coxsackievirus

122
Q

What infection are children with cochlear implants at a higher risk of getting?

A

Meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae

123
Q

What drug, when abused, is associated with a distal renal tubular acidosis and subsequent hypokalemia?

A

Toluene

124
Q

What congenital anomalies do infants present with when exposed to ACE inhibitors?

A

First trimester - Cardiac anomalies and neural tube defects

Second/Third trimster - renal anomalies

125
Q

What maneuvers increase the intensity of the murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Standing and Valsalva

126
Q

What is the preferred treatment for Groups C and G Streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Penicillin

127
Q

What infection typically precedes acute cerebellar ataxia?

A

Varicella

128
Q

What syndromes are typically associated with a low-set hairline?

A

Noonan, Turner, and Cornelia de Lange

129
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Cornelia de Lange syndrome?

A

Long eyelashese, thin eyebrows, shortened nose, micrognathia, downturned upper lip, low-set hairline, and hirsutism

130
Q

What test is typically used to screen patients for chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium test

131
Q

What types of infections do patients with chronic granulomatous disease typically get?

A

Catalase-positive organisms (S. aureus, S. marsecans, Aspergillus, Nocardia, C. albivans, Salmonella)

132
Q

What test is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of chornic granulomatous disease?

A

Dihydrorhodamine-123

133
Q

What adult diseases are found to occur at increased rates in patients born with IUGR?

A

Hypertension and Metabolic syndrome

134
Q

What disease rarely presents as Alice in Wonderland syndrome?

A

EBV

135
Q

What drugs are associated with gastroschisis?

A

Cocaine, nicotine, and pseudoephedrine

136
Q

What are the characteristics of a pyogenic granuloma?

A

Solitary, rapidly growing vascular tumor with a bright reddish-brown colored papulonodule

137
Q

When does the Parachute reflex appear and disappear?

A

Appears between 6 and 9 months

Remains voluntarily

138
Q

When does the crossed adductor reflex typically disappear?

A

6 to 7 months

139
Q

What additional deformity is associated with fused, hypoplastic cervical vertebrae?

A

Hypoplastic scapula (Klippel-Feil syndrome)

140
Q

What is the typical initial treatment for granuloma annulare?

A

Topical corticosteroids

141
Q

What are the components of VACTERL syndrome?

A

Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheal, Esophageal, Renal, and Limb (radial) defects

142
Q

What is the treatment for SSRI overdose?

A

Cyproheptadine

143
Q

What is the best test to use to evaluate diaphragmatic issues in infants with Erb-Duchenne palsy?

A

Ultrasound or Fluoroscopy

144
Q

When may varicella non-immune mothers be vaccinated post-partum?

A

Immediately

145
Q

What is a distinguishing characteristic of Tularemia when compared to Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Tularemia can progress to regional adenopathy with a local, painful ulceration at the site of inoculation

146
Q

What physical anomalies is Kallman syndrome associated with?

A

Cleft lip/palate, congenital heart disease, and renal agenesis

147
Q

What are the “3 Ds” of Niacin deficiency (pellagra)?

A

Dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea

148
Q

What is the formula to calculate an age-equivalency for a patient?

A

Add 3 years (base) with 0.25 years for each of the following drawn:

2 eyes, 2 ears, hair, nose, mouth, 2 arms, and 2 legs

149
Q

What are the characteristics of Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly, ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia

150
Q

What are the characteristics Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Deterioration in vision, stamina, and muscle tone
Increased startle response
“Cherry-red” spot on the macula

151
Q

What are the characteristics of Gaucher disease?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly, spasticity, and seizures

152
Q

What types of sports are typically associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

“Jumping” sports such as basketball and volleyball

153
Q

What are the laboratory findings on peripheral smear of B12 deficiency?

A

Hypersegmented, polymorphonucleated cells and enlarged red blood cells

154
Q

What drugs are associated with Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?

A

Anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine, Valproic Acid, Phenobarbital) and Antibiotics (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Sulfonamides)

155
Q

What antiepileptic is associated with hyponatremia?

A

Oxcarbazepine

156
Q

What syndromes are associated with Pierre Robin sequence?

A

22q11 deletion syndrome and Stickler syndrome

157
Q

What maternal antibodies are associated with Neonatal Lupus?

A

anti-Ro/La antibodies

158
Q

What is the treatment of pyoderma gangrenosum associated with trauma in Crohn’s disease patients?

A

Corticosteroids

159
Q

What second organ system is typically involved in patients with Potter’s sequence?

A

Liver

160
Q

What are classic ECG findings of hypercalcemia?

A

Shortening of the QT interval and an abrupt upstroke in the T wave

161
Q

What complications are associated with long-term unsupplemented human milk in preterm infants?

A

Hypoproteinemia at 8 to 12 weeks
Hyponatremia at 4 to 6 weeks
Zinc deficiency at 2 to 6 months

162
Q

What medications should be avoided for 6 weeks after varicella vaccine administration?

A

Salicylate-containing products

163
Q

What is the difference between Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Becker Muscular Dystrophy?

A

DMD is associated with a complete absence of the Dystrophin protein, whereas BMD is associated with a decrease in the level of the protein.

164
Q

What is the typical age of onset for gynecomastia?

A

13 years

165
Q

What is the best test to identify intrauterine adhesions post-D&C?

A

Hysteroscopy

166
Q

What levels of alpha-fetoprotein are associated with Trisomy 18 and 21?

A

Low levels

167
Q

What disease is also sometimes associated with granuloma annulare?

A

Type I Diabetes Mellitus

168
Q

What a known metabolic side effect of chronic Risperdone use?

A

Dyslipidemia

169
Q

What radiographic findings are associated with Scheuermann disease?

A

Anterior wedging of thoracic vertebrae and Schmorl nodes on lateral radiographs

170
Q

What drug overdose is associated with rhabdomyolysis?

A

PCP

171
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with congenital growth hormone deficiency?

A

Hypoglycemia, direct hyperbilirubinemia, and micropenis

172
Q

What vaccines, when administered during the same visit, increase the risk of febrile seizures?

A

Trivalent Inactivated Flu Vaccine and PCV13

173
Q

What genetic syndrome is commonly associated with alopecia areata?

A

Trisomy 21

174
Q

What are the levels of C3 seen in patients with IgA and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA has normal C3

Post-Streptococcal has low C3

175
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Hunter syndrome?

A

Coarse facial features, prominent forehead, hypertelorism, hepatosplenomegaly, generalized joint stiffness, developmental delay, communicating hydrocephalus, and valvular dysfunction with myocardial hypertrophy

176
Q

What are the symptoms associated with serum sickness like-reaction?

A

Urticarial rash
Fever
Polyarthralgias/Polyarthritis
Lymphadenopathy

177
Q

What medications are linked to serum sickness-like reaction?

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
Amoxicillin
Penicillins
Cefaclor

178
Q

What disease processes are associated with an elevated vaginal pH?

A

Trichomoniasis

Bacterial Vaginosis

179
Q

What medication can be used for frequently recurring migraines with auras?

A

Propranolol

180
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Waardenburg syndrome?

A 
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss
Heterochromia
Hair hypopigmentation
Cutaneous dipigmentation
Broad nasal bridge
Facial asymmetry
181
Q

What type of rickets has normal PTH levels?

A

Hypophosphatemic rickets (familial)

182
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Tularemia?

A

Gentamicin or Streptomycin

183
Q

What is the major cutaneous finding of pityriasis alba?

A

Hypopigmented macules

184
Q

What type of progestin in helpful for PCOS?

A

Drospirenone

185
Q

What type of infection typically precedes guttate psoriasis?

A

GAS pharyngitis

186
Q

What type of anemia is associated with Diamond-Blackfan anemia?

A

Macrocytic anemia

187
Q

What medication helps prevent the progression of the ulcer seen with Brown Recluse Spider bites?

A

Dapsone

188
Q

What genetic deficiency must be ruled out before starting Dapsone therapy?

A

G6PD deficiency

189
Q

What infectious diarrhea organism can shed in the stool longer when treated with antibiotics?

A

Salmonella

190
Q

What virus has also been known to play a role in DRESS syndrome?

A

HHV-6

191
Q

What are the newborn findings associated with congenital GnRH deficiency?

A

Micropenis and cryptorchidism

192
Q

What vaccine is associated with a false-negative PPD reading when administered simultaneously?

A

MMR

193
Q

What is the first line therapy for eosinophilic gastrointestinal disease?

A

Food elimination diet

194
Q

What medications are linked to DRESS syndrome?

A

Sulfonamides, Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, NSAIDs, Minocycline, Lithium, and Fluoxetine

195
Q

What type of immune dysfuction to children with Shwachman-Diamond syndrome typically have?

A

Chronic cyclic neutropenia

196
Q

What is a contraindication to Rotarix use?

A

Latex allergy

197
Q

What syndrome is associated with gross hematuria, hearing loss, and lens projection into the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

Alport Syndrome

198
Q

What laboratory studies should be obtained prior to starting oral Isotretinoin?

A

Fasting serum triglycerides and cholesterol

199
Q

What virus is associated with periods of apnea in young infants?

A

RSV

200
Q

How does lichen planus present in men?

A

Violaceous papules on the penis with whitish papules along the inner aspects of the buccal mucosa

201
Q

What are the side effects of Creatine use?

A

Diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle cramps, and acute interstitial nephritis

202
Q

What are the classical findings associated with Mucopolysaccharidoses?

A 
Coarse facial features
Frequent upper respiratory tract infections
Macrocephaly
Hernias
Thickened heart valves
203
Q

What syndrome has facial features similar to Fragile X, but is associated with various tumors?

A

Sotos syndrome

204
Q

What types of testicular cancer is associated with unrepaired cryptorchidism?

A

Seminoma

205
Q

What ADHD medication also carries an increased risk of suicide?

A

Atomoxetine

206
Q

What is the key difference between tinea pedis and juvenile plantar dermatosis?

A

Tinea pedis involves the intertriginous areas

207
Q

What are the main clinical findings associated with Allgrove syndrome?

A

Achalasia
Alacrima
Adrenal Insufficiency

208
Q

What is the morphology of Cryptosporidium?

A

Small rounded oocysts

209
Q

What adverse event is more common after MMRV administration than when the two vaccines are given separately but simultaneously?

A

Febrile seizure

210
Q

What is the pneumococcal vaccine schedule for children ages 2 to 5 who are incompletely vaccinated and have asplenia?

A

First PCV13 now
Second PCV13 8 weeks later
First PPSV23 8 weeks later
Second PPSV23 5 years later

211
Q

What is the treatment for Lichen Striatus?

A

Reassurance

212
Q

What personal history typically predates a diagnosis of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)?

A

Absence seizures

213
Q

What are the important characteristics of a chalazion?

A

Located within the eyelid

Not associated with an infection

214
Q

What differentiates a chalazion from a hordeolum?

A

Hordeolum is associated with an infected gland and requires antibiotics

215
Q

What are the cytogenetics associated with Noonan syndrome?

A

46,XY with a mutation on chromosome 12

216
Q

What is typically associated with male precocious puberty with an absence of testicular enlargement?

A

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

217
Q

What type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not tested on the newborn screen?

A

11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

218
Q

In what patient population is infantile botulism seen?

A

Infants less than 6 months who have recently been introduced to commercial formula feedings after breastfeeding is discontinued

219
Q

What physical examination finding should be concerning for infantile botulism?

A

Acute onset bilateral ptosis

220
Q

What physical examination finding is classical for spondylolysis?

A

Pain with extension of the back while standing on one leg

221
Q

What is the treatment for the oculoglandular variant of Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Azithromycin

222
Q

What disease is linked to curvilinear inflammatory vesicles/pustules and a significant peripheral eosinophilia?

A

Incontinentia pigmenti (x-linked dominant disorder)

223
Q

What other physical findings are associated with incontinentia pigmenti?

A 
Pegged or conical teeth and partial adontia
Nail changes
Eye abnormalities (cataracts, atrophy, strabismus)
Seizures
Developmental delay
224
Q

What populations of patients are typically associated with Syringomas?

A

Trisomy 21
Asian descent
Diabetes mellitus
Marfan syndrome

225
Q

What two findings are associated with Mowat-Wilson syndrome?

A

Agenesis of the corpus callosum

Hirschsprung disease

226
Q

What is the preferred treatment for the papulopustualar form of rosacea?

A

Topical metronidazole

227
Q

What is the level of testosterone typically found in patients with Kleinfelter’s syndrome?

A

Low

228
Q

What two antibiotics are known to decrease estrogen/progestin components of birth control?

A

Grisoefulvin

Rifampin

229
Q

What is the function of CRAFFT screening in adolescents?

A

To look for drug and alcohol abuse

230
Q

What acne medication is associated with myalgias?

A

Isotretinoin

231
Q

What are the genital findings associated with reactive arthritis?

A

Inflamed, hyperkeratotic, whitish plaques on the glans

232
Q

What is the treatment for PFAPA syndrome?

A

Prednisone

233
Q

What are the criteria for a complex febrile seizure?

A

Longer than 15 minutes
More than one episode in 24 hours
Focal component

234
Q

What is the best initial screening test for diagnosing Celiac Disease?

A

Serum tTG IgA

235
Q

What is the best initial step to manage children with a varicocele?

A

Observation

236
Q

What bacteria are patients with cyclic neutropenia most at risk for contracting?

A

Clostridium septicum

237
Q

What are the FSH/LH levels typically seen in Turner’s syndrome?

A

Both elevated

238
Q

What disease processes are associated with low levels of FSH/LH?

A

Kallman syndrome
Delayed bone age
Elevated serum prolactin

239
Q

What is the treatment for infantile spasms?

A

ACTH

240
Q

What are the characteristic findings of Rett Syndrome?

A

Loss of previously attained milestones
Stereotypic hand movements
Hyperventilation-hypoventilation fluctuation
Delayed gastrointestinal motility

241
Q

What laboratory finding is associated with erythema nodosum in some patients?

A

Elevated ASO titer

242
Q

What disease process of Group B Streptococcus presents as a late-onset disease?

A

Cellulitis-Adenitis

243
Q

What are the common characteristics of Diamond-Blackfan syndrome?

A 
Severe macrocytic anemia
Reticulocytopenia
Absence of red blood cell precursors
Otherwise normal bone marrow
Structural abnormalities of the thumb
244
Q

What are the findings with each mineral deficiency:

1) Manganese?
2) Zinc?
3) Iodine?
4) Selenium?
5) Copper?

A

1) Skeletal deformities and poor wound healing
2) Dry, scaling skin with lesions on an erythematous base mostly located on the face
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Hair loss and fatigue
5) Anemia and myelodysplasia

245
Q

What are the characteristics of Blount’s disease?

A

Prominent bowing, medial beaking, and cortical thickening of the medial aspects of the tibia.
Seen in African Americans, females, and early walkers.

246
Q

What do each of the following combinations mean:

1) + Ketones and + non-glucose reducing substances?
2) + Ketones and - reducing substances?
3) - Ketones and - reducing substances?

A

1) Galactosemia
2) Glycogen-Storage Disorder
3) Fatty Acid Metabolism Defect

247
Q

What are the characteristic findings associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1?

A 
6 or more cafe-au-lai macules (>5mm)
2 or more neurofibromas
Axillary freckling
Iris hamartoma
Sphenoid dysplasia and/or thinning of long bones
First-degree relative with NF1
248
Q

What is a severe complication of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Renal vein thrombosis

249
Q

What is the first-line therapy for hemodynamically stable patients with postpericardiotomy syndrome?

A

NSAIDs

250
Q

What laboratory findings can be associated with a Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

A

Positive Coombs test (cold)

Reticulocytosis

251
Q

What is the best treatment for nail biting?

A

Ignore it and praise them when you see them not biting their nails

252
Q

What maneuver enhances the murmur of mitral valve prolapse?

A

Sitting or standing via moving the click closer to S1

253
Q

What drugs are associated with early-onset hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Anticonvulsants (phenytoin/carbamazepine)
Anti-tubercular drugs
Warfarin

254
Q

What vaccine is given routinely at 5 separate visits?

A

DTaP

255
Q

After what age can the first dose of PPSV23 be given?

A

2 years

256
Q

What secondary complication is associated with laryngomalacia and oxygen therapy?

A

Pulmonary hypertension

257
Q

What laboratory study is a useful predictor of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus in children?

A

1,5-anhydroglucitol

258
Q

What is a potential complication of minocycline therapy for acne?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

259
Q

What laboratory finding is typically seen in conjunction with autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Hypergammaglobulinemia

260
Q

What is the typically cardiomyopathy in infants of diabetic mothers?

A

Asymmetric thickening of the interventricular septum and/or the ventricular walls

261
Q

What does the AAP Bright Futures now recommend for depression screening?

A

Annual screening between 11 and 21 years of age

262
Q

What lung pathology is typically associated with a homogenous mass with its own blood supply arising from the aorta?

A

Extralobar pulmonary sequestration

263
Q

What occurs to platelet size in response to ITP?

A

They increase in size

264
Q

What is the trigger for guttate psoriasis?

A

Streptococcal infection

265
Q

What is the best test to perform to diagnose PSC in patients with UC?

A

ERCP

266
Q

What murmur is a harsh crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases with the valsalva maneuver?

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

267
Q

What is the weeks of age that children must have received their first Rotavirus vaccine before?

A

15 weeks

268
Q

What trisomy is associated with an omphalocele?

A

Trisomy 13

269
Q

What condition is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

270
Q

What vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?

A

Vitamin C

271
Q

Which anticonvulsants are known to not interfere with the actions of oral contraceptives?

A

Valproic Acid
Ethosuximide
Gabapentin

272
Q

What future problem are children with benign paroxysmal vertigo thought to have at increased rates?

A

Migraines

273
Q

What medication can be used to help with benign paroxysmal vertigo symptoms in children?

A

Diphenhydramine

274
Q

What is the most common laboratory finding in children with diskitis?

A

Elevated ESR

275
Q

What is the most likely organism that causes diskitis?

A

S. aureus

276
Q

What blood testing does the NCAA mandate for all of its incoming athletes?

A

Sickle cell testing

Pediatric Boards (15 decks)

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