MedStudy Bank Cards Flashcards
1
Q
What are the levels of B12 and Folate seen in children with Celiac Disease?
A
B12 is normal while Folate is low
2
Q
What drugs are most associated with DRESS syndrome?
A
Anticonvulsants and Sulfonamides
3
Q
What are the clinical manifestations of papular acrodermatitis (Gianni-Crosti syndrome)?
A
Multiple, slightly edematous, papular, symmetrically distributed lesions of the face, buttocks, and extremities that spares the trunk. It used to be most commonly caused by hepatitis (A/B), but now by EBV.
4
Q
What can cause both bloody vaginal discharge and gastrointestinal symptoms in the same patient simultaneously?
A
Shigella flexneri and Shigella sonnei
5
Q
What are the clinical manifestations of McCune-Albright syndrome?
A
Large cutaneous cafe-au-lait macules with jagged borders (coast of Maine), endocrinopathies, and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia of the skeleton.
6
Q
What are the characteristics of the rash associated with HHV-6 (roseola infantum)?
A
Discrete small and slightly elevated, pinkish, blanching lesions on the trunk that spreads to the face
7
Q
Where is the location of pain associated with tennis elbow?
A
Lateral epicondyle
8
Q
Which type of patients may see additional benefits from Depo injections over others?
A
Adolescents with seizure disorders due to possible anticonvulsant effects
9
Q
What syndrome is associated with transient myeloproliferative disease in infancy?
A
Trisomy 21
10
Q
What is the initial intervention for a child with a fixed congenital clubbed foot?
A
Casting
11
Q
What genetic metabolic syndrome can sometimes show clinical improvement with pyridoxine administration?
A
Homocystinuria
12
Q
Which population of patients typically present with Blount’s disease?
A
Females, African Americans, and obese children.
13
Q
What are the clinical manifestations of Friedrich Ataxia?
A
Proximal lower extremity weakness, ataxia, cardiomyopathy, and scoliosis, all of which are progressive.
14
Q
What are the main side effects of topical steroid use?
A
Hypopigmentation, telangiectasias, and atrophy.
15
Q
What is the minimum age and LDL level to implement pharmacologic therapy for hypercholesterolemia in children without other risk factors?
A
8 years of age and an LDL level greater than 190mg/dL.
16
Q
What is rib notching on chest x-ray pathognomic for?
A
Coarctation of the aorta.
17
Q
What is a serious, sometimes fatal adverse effect of valproic acid?
A
Hyperammonemic encephalopathy.
18
Q
What disorder is associated with a single central incisor?
A
Growth hormone deficiency.
19
Q
What diagnosis is consistent with very-high voltage, random, slow waves and spikes in all cortical areas on EEG (hypsarrhythmia)?
A
Infantile spasms
20
Q
What are the clinical symptoms of Moyamoya disease?
A
Typical in Asian females.
Presents as altered mental status, recurrent headaches, chorea, TIAs, and hemorrhagic stroke.
Found to have dilated arterial collateral vessels from stenotic lesions in the Circle of Willis.
21
Q
What findings on neuroimaging are associated with tuberous sclerosis?
A
Hemispheric atrophy with serpinginous calcifications.
22
Q
What findings are associated with an Erb-Duchene palsy?
A
“Waiter’s tip” position of the arm due to a C5/C6 injury.
23
Q
What physical examination finding should raise concern for a splenic rupture in people struck by a car?
A
Left shoulder pain or medially displaced gastric bubble.
24
Q
What laboratory finding is used in neonates to determine if mothers are at an increased risk to transmit Hepatitis B?
A
HBeAG-positivity
25
What vitamin deficiency is associated with hemolytic disease in premature infants?
Vitamin E
26
What symptoms are associated with Galactosemia?
Liver dysfunction, jaundice, E. coli sepsis, cataracts, and urinary ketones/reducing substances
27
What syndrome is associated with sudden death while receiving growth hormone therapy?
Prader-Willi syndrome
28
What are the characteristic findings associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
History of poor wound healing, doughy smooth texture to the skin, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic root dilitation/dissection
29
What is the treatment for acute serotonin syndrome symptoms?
Cyproheptadine
30
What are the findings associated with Fanconi anemia?
Pancytopenia, microcephaly, hypopigmentation/cafe-au-lait macules, thumb/radial anomalies, hypogonadism, ocular/ear anomalies, and renal anomalies
31
What are two physical findings associated with Wilms' tumor?
Aniridia and Hemihypertrophy
32
What syndrome is associated with aortic and renal artery stenosis?
Williams syndrome
33
What skin findings are associated with a Neuroblastoma?
Subcutaneous blue nodules
| Periorbital ecchymosis with proptosis
34
What cutaneous findings are associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?
Hemorrhagic crusted papules and papulovesicles
| Recalcitrant seborrheic dermatitis-like eruption with lymphadenopathy
35
What spinal anomaly is associated with type 1 diabetes in pregnancy?
Caudal regression
36
What are the first three male changes in puberty?
Spermarche
Acne
Axillary perspiration
37
What syndrome do patients with DiGeorge syndrome also often have?
CHARGE syndrome
38
What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for at-risk patients before oropharyngeal procedures?
Amoxicillin 2g approximately 30-60 minutes prior to the procedure
39
What are the risk factors associated with jejunal atresia?
Low-birth weight
Maternal tobacco use
Maternal cocaine use
40
What is the cause of inflammatory papules and pustules in acne?
Rupture of closed comedones (whiteheads)
41
What are the characteristic findings seen in tuberous sclerosis?
Hypopigmented macules (Ash-leaf spots), facial angiofirbomas, yellow-orange hamartoma, and brownish fibrous plaques on the forehead
42
What circumstances cause umbilical hernias to need repair outside of strangulation?
Enlarges post- 1 to 2 years of age
| Persists to year 5 or 6 of life
43
Which congenital malformations is Parvovirus B19 associated with?
None. It is associated with ascites, pleural/pericardial effusions, and hydrops
44
What vitamin deficiencies are typically seen post-gastric bypass?
B-complex vitamins
45
What are the characteristic findings of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?
Progressive ascending weakness with atrophy leading to "stork legs", as well as loss of deep tendon reflexes
46
What are petechial lesions of the vagina and cervix ("strawberry cervix") consistent with?
Trichomonas infection
47
What diagnosis is associated with bloody stools and freckling of the lips?
Peutz-Jegher's Syndrome
48
What are the differences between Marfan's syndrome and Homocystinuria?
Marfan's syndrome has normal IQ and upwardly displaced lenses.
Homocystinuria has lower IQ and downward displaced lenses.
49
What is a key difference between Fanconi anemia and Diamond-Blackfan syndrome?
Fanconi anemia is associated with pancytopenia whereas the other is only anemia
50
What are the findings associated with icthyosis vulgaris?
A rash with thickening and hyperlinearity, as well as accentuated markings on the palms and soles. There are also large plate-like scales on the extensor surfaces of the extremities and lower back.
51
What is the diagnosis of a lytic, ground-glass appearing expansile femur lesion?
Fibrous dysplasia
52
What is the diagnosis of a broad-based pedunculated lesion of the femur?
Osteochondroma
53
What is the diagnosis of a radiolucent, sharply marginated lesion of the hand?
Endochondroma
54
What is the diagnosis of an eccentric lytic lesion showing destruction and expansion bordered by a thin sclerotic border?
Aneurysmal bone cyst
55
What is the diagnosis of an oval lucency surrounded by a sclerotic border that has pain worse at night?
Osteoid osteoma
56
What are the characteristic findings associated with dermatomyositis?
Elevated aldolase and creatine kinase
Hypertrophic, violaceous papules overlying the PIP/DIP joints
Malaise
Weakness
57
When will the average girl experience her first menstrual period after telarche begins?
30 to 31 months
58
How long should MMR/VZV vaccines be delayed post-IVIG administration?
8 to 11 months
59
What antenatal clinical finding is associated with myotubular myopathy?
Polyhydramnios
60
What clinical findings are associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?
Hemihypertrophy, hepatosplenomegaly, nephromegaly, beta-cell hypertrophy, hypoglycemia, omphalocele, macroglossia
61
What is a common cardiac complication that occurs in children with eating disorders?
Mitral valve prolapse
62
What disease process are infantile rhabdomyomas and infantile spasms associated with?
Tuberous sclerosis
63
What is the radiographic finding associated with vitamin D deficiency rickets?
A widening of the growth plates associated with metaphyseal fraying and cupping of the distal radius and ulna
64
What two drugs are usually linked to drug-induced lupus syndrome?
Hydralazine
| Procainamide
65
What are the features associated with myotonic dystrophy?
Wasting of the facial muscles, neck muscles, and distal extremities with sparing of the proximal musculature
66
What are the characteristic findings of Bloom syndrome?
Long limbs, photosensitivity, protruding ears, severe growth deficiency, and a propensity for neoplasms such as ALL
67
What is the most specific test for an acute EBV infection?
IgM EBV viral capsid antigen
68
Which vaccine is contraindicated in children with a history of Guillan-Barre?
LAIV (Live-Attenuated Influenza Virus)
69
What are the five major criteria used to diagnose Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Carditis, Erythema Marginatum, Subcutaneous Nodules, Polyarthritis, and Chorea
70
What immunoglobulin-related syndrome is associated with Pneumocystis infections?
Hyper IgM
71
What medications are recommended for autistic children with self-injurious behaviors?
Risperdone
| Aripiprazole
72
What are the differences between intracranial calcifications seen with congenital CMV and toxoplasmosis?
CMV - periventricular
| Toxoplasmosis - Entire brain with basal ganglia focus
73
What are the typical lesions seen with Reactive Arthritis?
Shallow erosions on the buccal mucosa and along the gum lines
74
What electrolyte abnormality is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Hyponatremia
75
What is the causative organism of tinea versicolor?
Malasezzia globosa
76
What is a unique feature of the JIA/JRA rash?
It reappears while afebrile when you stroke the skin
77
What vitamin is well-known to enhance the absorption of iron?
Vitamin C
78
What nutritional deficiency is associated with "spooning" of the nails?
Iron
79
What laboratory study can help differentiate between iron deficiency and lead poisoning?
Urine coproporphyrins (increased in lead poisoning)
80
What is the leading cause of death in patients who abuse inhalants?
Cardiac arrhythmia
81
What is the typical rash seen in neonatal lupus erythematosus?
Annular, scaling, pinkish plaques with a hemorrhagic crust
82
Which forms of congenital liver pathology are associated with an elevated indirect bilirubin?
Gilbert syndrome
| Criggler-Najjar syndrome
83
What is the best description of the rash associated with Kwashiorkor?
Sharply marginated, raised erythema that scales and flakes easily ("flaky paint dermatitis")
84
What is the Marcus Gunn phenomenon?
Simultaneous eye blinking with ptosis while sucking secondary to an abnormal innervation of the trigeminal and oculomotor nerves
85
Where is the point of the most pain/tenderness in children with Little Leaguer's Elbow?
Medial Humeral Epicondyle
86
What syndrome is associated with a love of music but a strong dislike of loud sounds?
Williams syndrome
87
What medications are used to help treat keratosis pilaris?
Lactic Acid, Urea Acid, or Glycolic Acid Creams
88
What are the ECG findings associated with Brugada syndrome?
Right bundle branch block
ST-segment elevation in V1 to V3
Syncope
Increased risk of sudden death
89
What skeletal abnormality is typically seen in Hurler's syndrome?
Dysostosis multiplex of the lower thoracic and upper lumbar vertebrae, along with proximally pointed metacarpals, and rounded illiac wings
90
What electrolyte abnormality inhibits alkalinization of the urine for salicylate overdose?
Hypokalemia
91
What are two of the key defining features of Kallman Syndrome?
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and Anosmia
92
What are the imaging findings seen with osteochondritis dissecans?
A zone of radiolucency that surrounds a well-demarcated, thin, linear fragment of partially attached bone
93
What are the buzzwords associated with Ewing Sarcoma?
"Moth Eaten" and "Onion Skin"
94
What are the buzzwords associated with Osteosarcoma?
"Codman's Triangle" and "Sunburst pattern"
95
What medication may be helpful in patients with neurocardiogenic syncope?
Fludrocortisone
96
What kinds of bleeds are patients with Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome at risk for?
Intracranial hemorrhage
97
What is the most common adverse effect of long-acting injectable progesterone?
Delayed return to fertility, especially if obese
98
What disease is associated with rod and tennis racquet-shaped cytoplasmic inclusion bodies?
Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis
99
What are the names of the inclusion bodies seen in the red blood cells of patients with G6PD deficiency?
Heinz Bodies
100
What are the clinical manifestations of PHACES syndrome?
```
Posterior fossa abnormalities
Hemangiomas of the face
Arterial cerebrovascular abnormalities
Cardiac anomalies
Eye anomalies
Sternal clefting
```
101
How much Vitamin D should babies get per day?
400 IU
102
What are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes?
Random glucose greater than 200 with symptoms of diabetes, fasting glucose greater than 126, GTT at 2 hours greater than 200, or an A1C greater than or equal to 6.5%
103
What is the vaginal pH of women with bacterial vaginosis?
Greater than 4.5
104
What disease processes show basophilic stipling of the red blood cell?
Lead poisoning, thalassemia, chronic alcohol abuse, sickle cell anemia, megaloblastic anemia, and sideroblastic anemia
105
What drug most commonly causes IgA bullous dermatosis?
Vancomycin
106
What chronic disorder develops in adolescents with a childhood history of cyclic vomiting syndrome?
Chronic recurrent migraines
107
What disorder is associated with an increased risk for SMA syndrome?
Anorexia nervosa
108
What is the treatment of choice for a cholesteatoma?
Surgical excision
109
What activity is associated with exacerbation of absence seizures?
Hyperventilation
110
What electrolyte disturbances are seen with bulimia?
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypophosphatemia
111
What vitamin deficiency is known to occur with long term anticonvulsant usage?
Vitamin D
112
What is Eisenmenger syndrome?
Long-term left-to-right shunting converts to right-to-left shunting due to severe pulmonary hypertension
113
What disease processes are pyoderma gangrenosum associated with?
Inflammatory bowel diseases
114
What disease processes occur more frequently in patients with a selective IgA deficiency?
Inflammatory bowel disease, Giardia, Celiac disease, and sinopulmonary infections
115
What is a known distinctive laboratory finding in infants with pneumonia secondary to Chlamydia trachomatis?
Peripheral eosinophilia
116
What are the clinical manifestations of Moebius syndrome?
Bilateral facial nerve paralysis (CN 7) and bilateral abducens nerve paralysis (CN 6), leading to an expressionless face with a very poor suck and absent grimmace
117
What disease is associated with a figure-of-eight (hourglass) appearance of the vulva?
Lichen sclerosus
118
What is the function of the glands affected by McCune-Albright syndrome?
Hyperfunctioning
119
What are the symptoms associated with a brown recluse spider bite?
Local irritation with ulceration
120
What are the symptoms associated with a black widow spider bite?
Pain, cramping, vomiting, chest tightness, and hypertension
121
What viral infections typically precede acute cerebellar ataxia?
Varicella, Echovirus, and Coxsackievirus
122
What infection are children with cochlear implants at a higher risk of getting?
Meningitis due to Streptococcus pneumoniae
123
What drug, when abused, is associated with a distal renal tubular acidosis and subsequent hypokalemia?
Toluene
124
What congenital anomalies do infants present with when exposed to ACE inhibitors?
First trimester - Cardiac anomalies and neural tube defects
| Second/Third trimster - renal anomalies
125
What maneuvers increase the intensity of the murmur associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Standing and Valsalva
126
What is the preferred treatment for Groups C and G Streptococcal pharyngitis?
Penicillin
127
What infection typically precedes acute cerebellar ataxia?
Varicella
128
What syndromes are typically associated with a low-set hairline?
Noonan, Turner, and Cornelia de Lange
129
What are the clinical manifestations of Cornelia de Lange syndrome?
Long eyelashese, thin eyebrows, shortened nose, micrognathia, downturned upper lip, low-set hairline, and hirsutism
130
What test is typically used to screen patients for chronic granulomatous disease?
Nitroblue tetrazolium test
131
What types of infections do patients with chronic granulomatous disease typically get?
Catalase-positive organisms (S. aureus, S. marsecans, Aspergillus, Nocardia, C. albivans, Salmonella)
132
What test is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of chornic granulomatous disease?
Dihydrorhodamine-123
133
What adult diseases are found to occur at increased rates in patients born with IUGR?
Hypertension and Metabolic syndrome
134
What disease rarely presents as Alice in Wonderland syndrome?
EBV
135
What drugs are associated with gastroschisis?
Cocaine, nicotine, and pseudoephedrine
136
What are the characteristics of a pyogenic granuloma?
Solitary, rapidly growing vascular tumor with a bright reddish-brown colored papulonodule
137
When does the Parachute reflex appear and disappear?
Appears between 6 and 9 months
| Remains voluntarily
138
When does the crossed adductor reflex typically disappear?
6 to 7 months
139
What additional deformity is associated with fused, hypoplastic cervical vertebrae?
Hypoplastic scapula (Klippel-Feil syndrome)
140
What is the typical initial treatment for granuloma annulare?
Topical corticosteroids
141
What are the components of VACTERL syndrome?
Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheal, Esophageal, Renal, and Limb (radial) defects
142
What is the treatment for SSRI overdose?
Cyproheptadine
143
What is the best test to use to evaluate diaphragmatic issues in infants with Erb-Duchenne palsy?
Ultrasound or Fluoroscopy
144
When may varicella non-immune mothers be vaccinated post-partum?
Immediately
145
What is a distinguishing characteristic of Tularemia when compared to Cat Scratch Disease?
Tularemia can progress to regional adenopathy with a local, painful ulceration at the site of inoculation
146
What physical anomalies is Kallman syndrome associated with?
Cleft lip/palate, congenital heart disease, and renal agenesis
147
What are the "3 Ds" of Niacin deficiency (pellagra)?
Dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea
148
What is the formula to calculate an age-equivalency for a patient?
Add 3 years (base) with 0.25 years for each of the following drawn:
2 eyes, 2 ears, hair, nose, mouth, 2 arms, and 2 legs
149
What are the characteristics of Niemann-Pick disease?
Hepatosplenomegaly, ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia
150
What are the characteristics Tay-Sachs disease?
Deterioration in vision, stamina, and muscle tone
Increased startle response
"Cherry-red" spot on the macula
151
What are the characteristics of Gaucher disease?
Hepatosplenomegaly, spasticity, and seizures
152
What types of sports are typically associated with Osgood-Schlatter disease?
"Jumping" sports such as basketball and volleyball
153
What are the laboratory findings on peripheral smear of B12 deficiency?
Hypersegmented, polymorphonucleated cells and enlarged red blood cells
154
What drugs are associated with Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis?
Anticonvulsants (Carbamazepine, Valproic Acid, Phenobarbital) and Antibiotics (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Sulfonamides)
155
What antiepileptic is associated with hyponatremia?
Oxcarbazepine
156
What syndromes are associated with Pierre Robin sequence?
22q11 deletion syndrome and Stickler syndrome
157
What maternal antibodies are associated with Neonatal Lupus?
anti-Ro/La antibodies
158
What is the treatment of pyoderma gangrenosum associated with trauma in Crohn's disease patients?
Corticosteroids
159
What second organ system is typically involved in patients with Potter's sequence?
Liver
160
What are classic ECG findings of hypercalcemia?
Shortening of the QT interval and an abrupt upstroke in the T wave
161
What complications are associated with long-term unsupplemented human milk in preterm infants?
Hypoproteinemia at 8 to 12 weeks
Hyponatremia at 4 to 6 weeks
Zinc deficiency at 2 to 6 months
162
What medications should be avoided for 6 weeks after varicella vaccine administration?
Salicylate-containing products
163
What is the difference between Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Becker Muscular Dystrophy?
DMD is associated with a complete absence of the Dystrophin protein, whereas BMD is associated with a decrease in the level of the protein.
164
What is the typical age of onset for gynecomastia?
13 years
165
What is the best test to identify intrauterine adhesions post-D&C?
Hysteroscopy
166
What levels of alpha-fetoprotein are associated with Trisomy 18 and 21?
Low levels
167
What disease is also sometimes associated with granuloma annulare?
Type I Diabetes Mellitus
168
What a known metabolic side effect of chronic Risperdone use?
Dyslipidemia
169
What radiographic findings are associated with Scheuermann disease?
Anterior wedging of thoracic vertebrae and Schmorl nodes on lateral radiographs
170
What drug overdose is associated with rhabdomyolysis?
PCP
171
What laboratory findings are associated with congenital growth hormone deficiency?
Hypoglycemia, direct hyperbilirubinemia, and micropenis
172
What vaccines, when administered during the same visit, increase the risk of febrile seizures?
Trivalent Inactivated Flu Vaccine and PCV13
173
What genetic syndrome is commonly associated with alopecia areata?
Trisomy 21
174
What are the levels of C3 seen in patients with IgA and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
IgA has normal C3
| Post-Streptococcal has low C3
175
What are the clinical manifestations of Hunter syndrome?
Coarse facial features, prominent forehead, hypertelorism, hepatosplenomegaly, generalized joint stiffness, developmental delay, communicating hydrocephalus, and valvular dysfunction with myocardial hypertrophy
176
What are the symptoms associated with serum sickness like-reaction?
Urticarial rash
Fever
Polyarthralgias/Polyarthritis
Lymphadenopathy
177
What medications are linked to serum sickness-like reaction?
Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole
Amoxicillin
Penicillins
Cefaclor
178
What disease processes are associated with an elevated vaginal pH?
Trichomoniasis
| Bacterial Vaginosis
179
What medication can be used for frequently recurring migraines with auras?
Propranolol
180
What are the clinical manifestations of Waardenburg syndrome?
```
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss
Heterochromia
Hair hypopigmentation
Cutaneous dipigmentation
Broad nasal bridge
Facial asymmetry
```
181
What type of rickets has normal PTH levels?
Hypophosphatemic rickets (familial)
182
What is the treatment of choice for Tularemia?
Gentamicin or Streptomycin
183
What is the major cutaneous finding of pityriasis alba?
Hypopigmented macules
184
What type of progestin in helpful for PCOS?
Drospirenone
185
What type of infection typically precedes guttate psoriasis?
GAS pharyngitis
186
What type of anemia is associated with Diamond-Blackfan anemia?
Macrocytic anemia
187
What medication helps prevent the progression of the ulcer seen with Brown Recluse Spider bites?
Dapsone
188
What genetic deficiency must be ruled out before starting Dapsone therapy?
G6PD deficiency
189
What infectious diarrhea organism can shed in the stool longer when treated with antibiotics?
Salmonella
190
What virus has also been known to play a role in DRESS syndrome?
HHV-6
191
What are the newborn findings associated with congenital GnRH deficiency?
Micropenis and cryptorchidism
192
What vaccine is associated with a false-negative PPD reading when administered simultaneously?
MMR
193
What is the first line therapy for eosinophilic gastrointestinal disease?
Food elimination diet
194
What medications are linked to DRESS syndrome?
Sulfonamides, Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, NSAIDs, Minocycline, Lithium, and Fluoxetine
195
What type of immune dysfuction to children with Shwachman-Diamond syndrome typically have?
Chronic cyclic neutropenia
196
What is a contraindication to Rotarix use?
Latex allergy
197
What syndrome is associated with gross hematuria, hearing loss, and lens projection into the anterior chamber of the eye?
Alport Syndrome
198
What laboratory studies should be obtained prior to starting oral Isotretinoin?
Fasting serum triglycerides and cholesterol
199
What virus is associated with periods of apnea in young infants?
RSV
200
How does lichen planus present in men?
Violaceous papules on the penis with whitish papules along the inner aspects of the buccal mucosa
201
What are the side effects of Creatine use?
Diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle cramps, and acute interstitial nephritis
202
What are the classical findings associated with Mucopolysaccharidoses?
```
Coarse facial features
Frequent upper respiratory tract infections
Macrocephaly
Hernias
Thickened heart valves
```
203
What syndrome has facial features similar to Fragile X, but is associated with various tumors?
Sotos syndrome
204
What types of testicular cancer is associated with unrepaired cryptorchidism?
Seminoma
205
What ADHD medication also carries an increased risk of suicide?
Atomoxetine
206
What is the key difference between tinea pedis and juvenile plantar dermatosis?
Tinea pedis involves the intertriginous areas
207
What are the main clinical findings associated with Allgrove syndrome?
Achalasia
Alacrima
Adrenal Insufficiency
208
What is the morphology of Cryptosporidium?
Small rounded oocysts
209
What adverse event is more common after MMRV administration than when the two vaccines are given separately but simultaneously?
Febrile seizure
210
What is the pneumococcal vaccine schedule for children ages 2 to 5 who are incompletely vaccinated and have asplenia?
First PCV13 now
Second PCV13 8 weeks later
First PPSV23 8 weeks later
Second PPSV23 5 years later
211
What is the treatment for Lichen Striatus?
Reassurance
212
What personal history typically predates a diagnosis of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)?
Absence seizures
213
What are the important characteristics of a chalazion?
Located within the eyelid
| Not associated with an infection
214
What differentiates a chalazion from a hordeolum?
Hordeolum is associated with an infected gland and requires antibiotics
215
What are the cytogenetics associated with Noonan syndrome?
46,XY with a mutation on chromosome 12
216
What is typically associated with male precocious puberty with an absence of testicular enlargement?
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
217
What type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is not tested on the newborn screen?
11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency
218
In what patient population is infantile botulism seen?
Infants less than 6 months who have recently been introduced to commercial formula feedings after breastfeeding is discontinued
219
What physical examination finding should be concerning for infantile botulism?
Acute onset bilateral ptosis
220
What physical examination finding is classical for spondylolysis?
Pain with extension of the back while standing on one leg
221
What is the treatment for the oculoglandular variant of Cat Scratch Disease?
Azithromycin
222
What disease is linked to curvilinear inflammatory vesicles/pustules and a significant peripheral eosinophilia?
Incontinentia pigmenti (x-linked dominant disorder)
223
What other physical findings are associated with incontinentia pigmenti?
```
Pegged or conical teeth and partial adontia
Nail changes
Eye abnormalities (cataracts, atrophy, strabismus)
Seizures
Developmental delay
```
224
What populations of patients are typically associated with Syringomas?
Trisomy 21
Asian descent
Diabetes mellitus
Marfan syndrome
225
What two findings are associated with Mowat-Wilson syndrome?
Agenesis of the corpus callosum
| Hirschsprung disease
226
What is the preferred treatment for the papulopustualar form of rosacea?
Topical metronidazole
227
What is the level of testosterone typically found in patients with Kleinfelter's syndrome?
Low
228
What two antibiotics are known to decrease estrogen/progestin components of birth control?
Grisoefulvin
| Rifampin
229
What is the function of CRAFFT screening in adolescents?
To look for drug and alcohol abuse
230
What acne medication is associated with myalgias?
Isotretinoin
231
What are the genital findings associated with reactive arthritis?
Inflamed, hyperkeratotic, whitish plaques on the glans
232
What is the treatment for PFAPA syndrome?
Prednisone
233
What are the criteria for a complex febrile seizure?
Longer than 15 minutes
More than one episode in 24 hours
Focal component
234
What is the best initial screening test for diagnosing Celiac Disease?
Serum tTG IgA
235
What is the best initial step to manage children with a varicocele?
Observation
236
What bacteria are patients with cyclic neutropenia most at risk for contracting?
Clostridium septicum
237
What are the FSH/LH levels typically seen in Turner's syndrome?
Both elevated
238
What disease processes are associated with low levels of FSH/LH?
Kallman syndrome
Delayed bone age
Elevated serum prolactin
239
What is the treatment for infantile spasms?
ACTH
240
What are the characteristic findings of Rett Syndrome?
Loss of previously attained milestones
Stereotypic hand movements
Hyperventilation-hypoventilation fluctuation
Delayed gastrointestinal motility
241
What laboratory finding is associated with erythema nodosum in some patients?
Elevated ASO titer
242
What disease process of Group B Streptococcus presents as a late-onset disease?
Cellulitis-Adenitis
243
What are the common characteristics of Diamond-Blackfan syndrome?
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Severe macrocytic anemia
Reticulocytopenia
Absence of red blood cell precursors
Otherwise normal bone marrow
Structural abnormalities of the thumb
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244
What are the findings with each mineral deficiency:
1) Manganese?
2) Zinc?
3) Iodine?
4) Selenium?
5) Copper?
1) Skeletal deformities and poor wound healing
2) Dry, scaling skin with lesions on an erythematous base mostly located on the face
3) Hypothyroidism
4) Hair loss and fatigue
5) Anemia and myelodysplasia
245
What are the characteristics of Blount's disease?
Prominent bowing, medial beaking, and cortical thickening of the medial aspects of the tibia.
Seen in African Americans, females, and early walkers.
246
What do each of the following combinations mean:
1) + Ketones and + non-glucose reducing substances?
2) + Ketones and - reducing substances?
3) - Ketones and - reducing substances?
1) Galactosemia
2) Glycogen-Storage Disorder
3) Fatty Acid Metabolism Defect
247
What are the characteristic findings associated with Neurofibromatosis type 1?
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6 or more cafe-au-lai macules (>5mm)
2 or more neurofibromas
Axillary freckling
Iris hamartoma
Sphenoid dysplasia and/or thinning of long bones
First-degree relative with NF1
```
248
What is a severe complication of nephrotic syndrome?
Renal vein thrombosis
249
What is the first-line therapy for hemodynamically stable patients with postpericardiotomy syndrome?
NSAIDs
250
What laboratory findings can be associated with a Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?
Positive Coombs test (cold)
| Reticulocytosis
251
What is the best treatment for nail biting?
Ignore it and praise them when you see them not biting their nails
252
What maneuver enhances the murmur of mitral valve prolapse?
Sitting or standing via moving the click closer to S1
253
What drugs are associated with early-onset hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?
Anticonvulsants (phenytoin/carbamazepine)
Anti-tubercular drugs
Warfarin
254
What vaccine is given routinely at 5 separate visits?
DTaP
255
After what age can the first dose of PPSV23 be given?
2 years
256
What secondary complication is associated with laryngomalacia and oxygen therapy?
Pulmonary hypertension
257
What laboratory study is a useful predictor of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus in children?
1,5-anhydroglucitol
258
What is a potential complication of minocycline therapy for acne?
Autoimmune hepatitis
259
What laboratory finding is typically seen in conjunction with autoimmune hepatitis?
Hypergammaglobulinemia
260
What is the typically cardiomyopathy in infants of diabetic mothers?
Asymmetric thickening of the interventricular septum and/or the ventricular walls
261
What does the AAP Bright Futures now recommend for depression screening?
Annual screening between 11 and 21 years of age
262
What lung pathology is typically associated with a homogenous mass with its own blood supply arising from the aorta?
Extralobar pulmonary sequestration
263
What occurs to platelet size in response to ITP?
They increase in size
264
What is the trigger for guttate psoriasis?
Streptococcal infection
265
What is the best test to perform to diagnose PSC in patients with UC?
ERCP
266
What murmur is a harsh crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases with the valsalva maneuver?
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
267
What is the weeks of age that children must have received their first Rotavirus vaccine before?
15 weeks
268
What trisomy is associated with an omphalocele?
Trisomy 13
269
What condition is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Ulcerative Colitis
270
What vitamin enhances the absorption of iron?
Vitamin C
271
Which anticonvulsants are known to not interfere with the actions of oral contraceptives?
Valproic Acid
Ethosuximide
Gabapentin
272
What future problem are children with benign paroxysmal vertigo thought to have at increased rates?
Migraines
273
What medication can be used to help with benign paroxysmal vertigo symptoms in children?
Diphenhydramine
274
What is the most common laboratory finding in children with diskitis?
Elevated ESR
275
What is the most likely organism that causes diskitis?
S. aureus
276
What blood testing does the NCAA mandate for all of its incoming athletes?
Sickle cell testing
