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Pediatric Boards > First Aid > Flashcards

First Aid Flashcards

1
Q

What is the average age of menarche in the US?

A

12 years

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2
Q

What sexual maturity rating is associated with menarche?

A

4

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3
Q

What are the major issues that middle-adolescents face?

A

Autonomy and independence

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the HEADSS screen?

A

Assess adolescents for high-risk behavior

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the CAGE questionnaire?

A

Screen for significant alcohol/drug abuse

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6
Q

What level of LDL should prompt medication use in adolescents?

A

> 190
160 with severe family history
130 in diabetics

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7
Q

What diagnosis should always be considered for both primary and secondary amennorhea?

A

Pregnancy

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8
Q

What types of diagnoses are considered if there is withdrawal bleeding secondary to a medroxyprogesterone challenge?

A

PCOS, Eating disorders, CNS tumors, Thyroid dysfunction

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of school and job absence among females?

A

Dysmenorrhea

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10
Q

What diagnosis is typically seen in women with a cottage-cheese-like, odorless discharge?

A

Vulvovaginal candidiasis

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11
Q

What disease is associated with a positive Whiff Test revealing a fishy odor?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

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12
Q

What diagnosis should be considered in males with bilateral cryptorchidism?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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13
Q

What laboratory findings are associated with hereditary angioedema?

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency leading to low C4 and CH50 levels

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14
Q

What enzyme is elevated shortly after the onset of anaphylaxis?

A

Tryptase

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15
Q

What type of immune reaction is serum sickness?

A

Type III

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16
Q

What food is responsible for the most adverse reactions?

A

Milk

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17
Q

What is the difference between Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia and CVID?

A

B cells are not absent in CVID

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18
Q

What are two key findings associated with Shwachman-Diamond syndrome?

A

Fat malabsorption

Neutropenia

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19
Q

What types of complement deficiencies is associated with infections of encapsulated organisms?

A

Early complement deficiencies

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20
Q

What types of complement deficiencies is associated with infections from meningococcus?

A

Late complement deficiencies

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21
Q

What laboratory study is associated with an increased risk of uveitis in patients with JIA?

A

Elevated ANA titers

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22
Q

What types of JIA patients have more aggressive and erosive arthritis?

A

Those with RF-positive JIA

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23
Q

What antibody is seen in drug-induced lupus?

A

Antihistone antibody

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24
Q

What intervention may be curative for patients with PFAPA sydrome?

A

Tonsillectomy

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25
Q

What is the test used to diagnose Behcet’s disease?

A

Pathergy test where pustules form at needlestick sites

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26
Q

What position usually alleviates pericarditis chest pain?

A

Leaning forward

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27
Q

What congenital heart disease is associated with Hurler syndrome?

A

Mitral regurgitation with aortic insufficiency

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28
Q

What congenital heart disease is associated with Pompe disease?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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29
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

Zinc

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30
Q

What disease appears to resemble seborrheic dermatitis but is very recalcitrant to treatment?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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31
Q

What is the physical manifestation of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?

A

Extensive port-wine stain involving a limb with a lymphatic malformation and soft tissue hypertrophy

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32
Q

What infection can lead to Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Mycoplasma

33
Q

What is telogen effluvium?

A

Benign hair loss 4 to 6 months after a very stressful event

34
Q

What is the calucation for internal diameter size of an endotracheal tube?

A

(Age+16)/4

35
Q

What drugs may be given via an endotracheal tube?

A

Lidocaine
Epinephrine
Atropine
Naloxone

36
Q

What sedative medication causes an increase in intracranial pressure?

A

Ketamine

37
Q

What medication is used to reverse beta blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon

38
Q

What bacteria is often a serious consideration in the evolution of infection from human bites?

A

Eikenella corrodens

39
Q

What is the renal threshold of glucose reabsorption?

A

Approximately 180 mg/dL

40
Q

What medication is approved for pediatric patients with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Metformin

41
Q

What medication provides symptom relief for people diagnosed with Graves’ disease?

A

Propranolol

42
Q

What is the most common form of CAH?

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

43
Q

What types of CAH result in hypertension due to elevated 11-deoxycorticosterone production?

A

11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency

17-hydroxylase deficiency

44
Q

What delay in bone age is associated with a likely endocrinopathy?

A

A bone age greater than 2 years behind chronological age

45
Q

What food can cross-contaminate and cause problems in patients with Celiac disease?

A

Oats

46
Q

What are other issues that girls with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome face?

A

Precocious puberty

Irregular menstruation

47
Q

What is the pentad of TTP?

A 
Fever
Thrombocytopenia
MAHA
Renal impairment
Neurologic dysfunction
48
Q

What is the most common complication of sickle cell disease in children under 5 years of age?

A

Dactylitis

49
Q

What hemoglobinopathy is associated with target cells?

A

Thalassemia

50
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with infants being fed primarily goat’s milk?

A

Folate

51
Q

What syndromes are associated with an increased risk of leukemia in the setting of GCSF?

A

Schwachman-Diamond syndrome

Kostmann’s syndrome

52
Q

What does the bone marrow classically show in patients with TAR syndrome?

A

No megakaryocytes

53
Q

In what type of von Willebrand’s disease is DDAVP contraindicated?

A

2B

54
Q

What types of bleeding is associated with Hemophilia?

A

Muscle/joint bleeding

55
Q

What are the distinguishing prenatal labs for Trisomy 21 and Trisomy 18?

A

Trisomy 21 has low AFP and high hCG

Trisomy 18 has low AFP and low hCG

56
Q

What is the genetic mutation seen with Cri-du-Chat syndrome?

A

Deletion of 5p

57
Q

What genetic syndrome is associated with infantile spasm?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

58
Q

What concurrent disease process is typically seen in patients with Ataxia-telangiectasia?

A

Decreased IgA/IgE/IgG leading to sinopulmonary infections

59
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Acidosis + Elevated Anion Gap + Ketones + Normal Lactate + Lethargy/Coma

A

Amino acid metabolic defect

60
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Acidosis + Elevated Anion Gap + Ketones + Elevated Lactate + Low Glucose + Hypoglycemic seizures

A

Glycogen Storage Disease

61
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Low ketones + Low glucose + Elevated Ammonia + Lethargy/Coma

A

Fatty Acid Oxidation Defect

62
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Acidosis + Elevated Anion Gap + LOTS of Ketones + Developmental Delay

A

Organic Acid Metabolic Defect

63
Q

What is the diagnosis:

Alkalosis + Negative Ketones + LOTS of Ammonia + Irritability/Coma

A

Urea Cycle Defect

64
Q

What other electrolyte abnormalities can be seen during acute decompensation of an organic acid metabolic defect?

A

Pancytopenia

Hypocalcemia

65
Q

What are the symptoms associated with Hurler syndrome?

A

Coarse facies, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly, and neurodegeneration

66
Q

What are the symptoms associated with Hunter syndrome?

A

Coarse facies, NO corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly, profound neurodegeneration

67
Q

What is a key finding in Pompe’s disease?

A

Cardiomegaly

68
Q

What is a key finding in McArdle’s disease?

A

Exercise-induced rhabdomyolysis

69
Q

Which glycogen storage diseases have normal intelligence?

A

Type IV - Andersen’s disease (FTT + Cirrhosis)

Type VI - Hers’ disease (Ketosis + Hepatomegaly)

70
Q

What are the key findings of Gaucher’s disease?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly + Osteolytic lesions + Anemia + Thrombocytopenia

71
Q

What are the key findings of Niemann-Pick disease?

A

Hypotonia + Hyperreflexia + Cherry-red spots

72
Q

What are the key findings of Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Cherry-red spots + Blindness + Increased startle response

73
Q

What is a key finding of Krabbe’s disease?

A

Optic atrophy

74
Q

What is the treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

18 months - Open reduction

75
Q

What exam finding is pathognomonic for SCFE?

A

A hip that externally rotates with flexion

76
Q

What angle of scoliosis typically indicates an orthopedic consult?

A

20 degrees

77
Q

What angle of scoliosis is the threshold for surgery?

A

> 40 degrees

78
Q

What primary abdominal tumor presents classically as intussusception?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

79
Q

What are Birbeck granules on electron microscopy diagnostic of?

A

LCH

Pediatric Boards (15 decks)

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