Medsoc mock Flashcards
what does the ulnar nerve do?
flexes the forearm
flexes metacarpophalangeal joints and extends interphalangeal joints
what does vitamin D do?
increase calcium and phosphate levels as it build bone matrix
what are the 3 stages of bone fracture repair?
reactive
reparative
remodelling
reactive stage
vessels break and clotting factors cause haematoma to form
reparative stage
fibrocartilage starts to form and joins parts of bone together - spongy callus
cortical bone replaces fibrocartilage to join the parts of the bones - blood vessels heal and bony callus forms
remodelling stage
osteoclasts and osteoblasts work to smooth out the bone
which dermatome is the medial part of the arm?
T1
what do Pili do?
allow cells to stick to surfaces
what does smooth ER do?
synthesises and stores fats
what does rough ER do?
synthesises and stores proteins
muscle cramp
involuntary tetanic muscle contraction
muscle spasm
sudden and involuntary transient muscle contraction
what happens when the action potential reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
the action potential causes the L type calcium ion channel/ receptor to open and allow calcium ions in, which then bind to RYRs on sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing them to open and allow more calcium in
what do proteins contribute to?
oncotic pressure
what do electrolytes contribute to?
osmotic pressure
what is osmolarity
number of particles of solute in 1L of solution
osmolality
concentration of solute in 1Kg of solution
what does the alpha 1 adrenergic receptor do?
vasoconstriction of arterioles, dilation of pupils, inhibits saliva, inhibits peristalsis and inhibits bladder - prevents urine loss
where is the coronoid process found?
ulna
barton fracture
radius moves anterior or posterior with dislocation of radiocarpal joint
pain and swelling of wrist
chauffer fracture
fracture of radial styloid process - pain on wrist
what is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?
autoimmune destruction of nAChR on post synaptic membrane
symptoms of myasthenia gravis
ptosis muscle weakness - gowers sign dysarthria - slurred speech dyshphagia diplopia
what is the pathphysiology of organophosphate poisoning?
inhibits AChE
symptoms of organophosphate poisoning
salivation lacrimation urination diarrhoea GI distress emesis
cranial region of parasympathetic NS
cranial nerves = 10,9,7,3
where do the cranial and sacral regions of parasympathetic NS meet?
transverse colon
what adrenoreceptors have a greater affinity for adrenaline than noradrenaline?
Beta 1 and 2
which adrenoreceptors have a greater affinity for noradrenaline?
alpha 1,2 and beta 3
what do astrocytes do?
BBB
involved in homeostasis and communication - biochemical
what does microglia do?
macrophage of NS and produces growth factors
cold receptors
myelinated large A delta fibres
warm receptors
unmyelinated C fibres
proprioceptors?
muscle spindles
tendon organs
joint receptors
nominal aphasia
left inferior parietal lobe - type of brocas dysphasia
able to understand - difficulty selective words with similar phonetic sounds
dysarthria
slurred speech
cerebellar lesion - uncoordinated
basal ganglia lesion - monotonous
motor lesion - upper or lower or basal ganglia or cerebellum
dysphonia
vocal cords
RLN
Gullain-Barre
weak/ hoarse voice
bovine cough
vagus nerve lesion
dysphonia
IC50
concentration of inhibitor needed to reduce response of drug by 50%
EC50
concentration of drug needed to reach half the maximal response
what nerve supplies taste to anterior 2/3rds of tongue?
facial
what causes eye to move down and out?
oculomotor nerve palsy, along with diplopia and ptosis
what causes diplopia when looking down, head tilt, eye moves up and in?
trochlear nerve palsy
what causes diplopia, eye converges - inwards and down?
abducens nerve palsy
what causes bilateral hemianopia?
optic chiasm lesion
what does optic chiasm lesion cause?
bilateral hemianopia
what controls sweating?
sympathetic NS
what receptor controls sweating?
M3
what does the thoracic duct start with?
cisterna chyli
cisterna chyli
lymph from 2 lumbar and intestinal trunks flow to get to thoracic duct
what is found on the surface of mast cells?
IgE antibodies
what type of hypersensitivty is graves disease?
2 - IgG
what is a hypersensitivity reaction?
allergies
autoimmunity
which cells contain a MHC 1 receptor
somatic cells
except cells that have no nucleus
what are antigen presenting cells?
DCs
macrophages
B cells
TH1
viral
TH2
bacterial
which part of the antibody attaches to epitope?
paratope
what is an epitope?
part of antigen that antibody attaches to
what is the constant region?
Fc region
which antibody exists as dimer?
IgA
how long does it take for adaptive immune system to respond?
4-7 days - 5
what do C3a and C5a do?
peptide mediators of inflammation
recruit phagocytes
what does C3b do?
binds to complement receptors on phagocytes
opsonises
what do C5b, C6,7,8 and 9 do?
membrane attack complex - lysis of pathogens and cells
what gives rise to the lungs?
endoderm
where is oestrogen produced?
ovaries or placenta
what hormone drops of before birth and after?
progesterone before and oestrogen after
what does progesterone do?
inhibits contractions
stimulates formation of cervical plug
cushings disease
tumour in pituitary causing increase in corticotropin an d so increased cortisol production
symptoms of cushings disease
muscle weakness easy bruising reduced vision - bilateral hemianopia central weight gain thin skin fat pads between shoulders red cheeks moon face
why must pregnant women not take NSAIDs?
inhibits PGE2 which keeps shunts - ducts open in fetal circulation
what is hashimoto’s disease?
hypothyroidism - increased TSH and lower T3 and T4
autoimmune attack of thyroid
type 4 hypersensitivty
graves disease
autoantibodies
increase thyroid stimulation
low TSH and high T3 and 4
type 2 hypersensitvity
