Meds - Prescriptions -Immunizations Flashcards

1
Q

What are Cyclosporins?

A

IMMUNOSUPPRESSIVE drug.

It can PREVENT ORGAN REJECTION after transplant in its oral form. It can also treat rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis.

DENTAL consideration: Unusual GROWTH and SWELLING of the GUMS may occur.

Other Side Effects. Shaking, headache, dizziness, unusual growth of body hair, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, stomach upset, or flushing.

Brand names: Gengraf, Neoral, Sandimmune.

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2
Q

How do CORTICOSTEROIDS work?

What 2 classes do they come in?

A

ANTI-INFLAMMATORY medicines reduce the swelling and mucus production inside the airways. When that inflammation is reduced, it is easier to breathe.

  1. GLUCOCORTICOIDS are a class of corticosteroids, which are a class of steroid hormones.
    - They INHIBITS various LEUKOCYTE inflammatory events (epithelial adhesion, emigration, chemotaxis, phagocytosis, respiratory burst) In other words, glucocorticoids not only SUPPRESS IMMUNE RESPONSE , but also inhibit the two main products of inflammation, PROSTAGLANDINS and LEUKOTRIENES.

25% of cases of SEVERE ASTHMA may be unresponsive to steroids. This may be the result of genetic predisposition or ongoing exposure to the cause of the inflammation.

  1. MINERALOCORTICOIDS are a class of corticosteroids, which in turn are a class of steroid hormones.
    - Mineralocorticoids are produced in the adrenal cortex and influence salt and water balances (electrolyte balance and fluid balance). The primary mineralocorticoid is ALDOSTERONE
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3
Q

What are some common Steroid Inhalers for Asthma?

A

Inhaled steroids need to be TAKEN DAILY for best results. Some improvement in asthma symptoms can be seen in 1 to 3 weeks after starting inhaled steroids, with the best results seen after 3 months of daily use.

  • Beclomethasone dipropionate(QVAR)
  • Budesonide (PULMICORT)
  • Budesonide/Formoterol (SYMBICORT) - a combination drug that includes a steroid and a long-acting bronchodilator drug
  • Fluticasone (FLOVENT)
  • Fluticasone/Salmeterol (ADVAIR) - a combination drug that includes a steroid and a long-actingbronchodilator drug
  • Mometasone/formoterol (DULARA) - a combination drug that also includes a long-acting bronchodilator drug
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4
Q

Why is EPINEPHRINE an excellent drug for Anaphylaxis?

A

EPINEPHRINE is a nonselective ALPHA AND BETA ADRENERGIC RECEPTOR AGONIST.

-ALPHA adrenergic receptors:
-REDUCES ⬇️ VASODILATION
-INCREASES ⬆️ VASOCONSTRICTION
it causes constriction, or tightening, of the blood vessels, which DECREASES SWELLING and also helps to increase blood pressure. it prevents or DECREASES upper airway mucosal EDEMA (laryngeal edema), hypotension, and shock
increases peripheral vascular resistance thus INCREASING BLOOD PRESSURE and coronary perfusion, reversing peripheral vasodilation, and decreasing angioedema.

-DECREASES ⬇️ VASCULAR 
  PERMEABILITY

-BETA-adrenergic receptors:
- ⬆️ BRONCHIAL SMOOTH MUSCLE
RELAXATION.
helps alleviate bronchospasm, wheezing, and dyspnea that may occur during anaphylaxis.

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5
Q

What class of drugs and common prescriptions are seen with people with BI-POLAR illness?

A

Several ANTICONVULSANT medications are recognized as MOOD STABILIZERS to treat or prevent mood episodes in BIPOLAR disorders.

They are often prescribed for people who have RAPID CYCLING – FOUR or more episodes of mania and depression in a year.

  1. DEPAKOTE, Depakene (divalproex sodium, valproic acid, or valproate sodium)
  2. LAMICTAL (lamotrigine)
  3. TEGRETOL (carbamazepine)
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6
Q

Describe what happens in an Anaphylaxis reaction

A

ANAPHYLAXIS:

severe,potentially life-threatening ALLERGIC REACTION.

Anaphylaxis symptoms USUALLY occur within MINUTES of exposure to an allergen. Sometimes, however, it can occur a half-hour or longer after exposure.

Signs and symptoms include:

  • SKIN reactions, including hives and itching and flushed or pale skin
  • ⬇️ LOW BP, blood pressure (hypotension)
  • A weak and RAPID PULSE (tachycardia)
  • CONSTRICTION of your AIRWAYS and a SWOLLEN tongue or throat, which can cause wheezing and trouble breathing
  • NVD: Nausea, vomiting or diarrhea
  • Dizziness or fainting
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7
Q

What classes of drugs cause GINGIVAL OVERGROWTH?

“CCC”

A

CALCONCYCLO

Gingival enlargement may be associated with the administration of three different classes of drugs, all producing a similar response:

“CCC” - ConCalCyclo

  1. ANTICONVULSANTS (such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, lamotrigine, vigabatrin, ethosuximide, topiramate and primidone NOT common for valproate)
  2. CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS
    (antihypertensives such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and verapamil)
  3. CYCLOSPORINE , an immunosuppresant.
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8
Q

How long does it take for drug induced hyperplasia of the gingiva to become evident?

A

Many cases of drug-induced gingival OVERGROWTH develop within the FIRST 1 TO 3 MONTHS of starting drug treatment.

A second peak has been described after 12 months of treatment.

The gingival enlargement often begins in the INTERDENTAL PAPILLAE, especially in the ANTERIOR and FACIAL segments. With progression, there may be more diffuse gingival overgrowth, with envelopment of part or all of the adjacent tooth crowns.

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9
Q

Epinephrine Dosage for Anaphylaxis?

Where to inject?

When to Re-inject?

A

SC/IM in anterolateral aspect of the THIGH.

  • through clothing if necessary.
  • When administering to a child, to minimize the risk of injection related injury, hold the leg firmly in place and limit movement.

0.01 mg/kg (0.01 mL/kg)

——————————————————————

  1. Children Less Than < 30 kg (66 lbs)

EPIPEN Auto-Injector: 0.3 mg (0.3 mL)

up to a maximum of 0.3 mg (0.3 mL) per injection, REPEATED every 5 to 10 minutes as necessary.

EPIPEN JR auto- injector: 0.15 mg (0.15 mL)

*in children under 33lbs/15kg,
use other forms of injectable epinephrine

  1. Adults And Children > 30 kg (66 lbs) Or More
  2. 3 to 0.5 mg (0.3 to 0.5 mL) up to a maximum of 0.5 mg (0.5 mL) per injection, repeated every 5 to 10 minutes as necessary.
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10
Q

What class and common prescriptions are found in people who have EPILEPSY?

A

ANTICONVULSANTS

  1. LACTIMAL is the best first-choice drug for partial epilepsy,
  2. VALPROIC ACID is the best first choice for generalized epilepsy,
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11
Q

What are Calcium Channel Blockers prescribed for?

A

CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS

  • constitute a large class of drugs that are widely used for treating several cardiovascular problems. They are most commonly used today as a FIRST-LINE treatment for HYPERTENSION , but they are also effective in treating ANGINA supraventricular TACHYCARDIA , and hypertrophic CARDIOMYOPATHY.
  • REDUCE ⬇️ CALCIUM that enters the SMOOTH MUSCLE in blood vessel walls and heart muscle.
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12
Q

Tylenol 3

“333”

Liquid Form?

The “Trinity” and “Disciples”

A

TYLENOL #3 “333”

300 mg Acet
30 mg Codeine

TABLETS: 300 mg Acetaminophen constant

#2  15mg codeine
#3  30mg codeine
#4  60mg codeine

LIQUID:
120 mg acetaminophen / 12 mg codeine per 5ml

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13
Q

What is the acronym for MORPHINE that defines its effects?

A

MORPHINE

M. Miosis (pupil constriction)

O. Out of it (sedation)

R. Respiratory Depression

P. Pneumonia

H. Hypotension

I. Infrequency

N. Nausea and Vomiting 🤮

E. Euphoria and Dysphoria

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14
Q

SULFONAMIDES

Sulfa Ab

A

SULFONAMIDES
“SULFA DRUGS”

  • bacterioSTATIC “SS”
  • FOLATE synthesis inhibitor (competes with PABA)
  • Causes folate DEFICIENCY therefore impacting the DNA of the Bacteria

“SO-FULL OF FOLATE”

SULFAdiazine
SULFAmethoxazole

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15
Q

BACTERIOSTATIC

A

Inhibits / slows growth of bacteria

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16
Q

T/F

Bacteriostatic and Bacteriocidal antibiotics can be mixed together to fight infection.

A

FALSE

They will CANCEL each other out and should NEVER be MIXED together

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17
Q

FLUOROQUINALONES

A

FLUOROQUINALONES

  • bacterioCIDAL “FT”
  • DNA synthesis inhibitor

“FLUORO-FLOXACIN QUIN”

ciproFLOXACIN
levoFLOXACIN

“FLOXI-TOXIC”

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18
Q

DNA INHIBITING ANITBIOTICS

A
  1. SULFONAMIDES
    • Static
    • indirectly inhibit
  2. FLUOROQUINOLONES
    • Cidal
    • directly inhibit
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19
Q

PENECILLINS

A

PENECILLINS

  • bacterioCIDAL
  • BROAD spectrum (Gram +,-)
  • CELL WALL synthesis inhibitor,
  • contain B-LACTAM ring in their structure

-CROSS-ALLERGIC with CEPHALOSPORINS
because they are chemically related

  • Pen G: IV, more sensitive to acid
    generation (stomach acid)
  • Pen V: Oral

Amoxicillin
Augmentin

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20
Q

AUGMENTIN

A

AUGMENTIN

  • Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid
  • B-lactamase resistant
    (produced by bacteria to fight against
    B-lactam Penicillins /Cephalosporins)

“AC and B RESISTANT”

Side effects of Augmentin that are DIFFERENT from amoxicillin include:

  • Bloating
  • Gas
  • Headache
  • Reversible HEPATITIS
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21
Q

What THREE antibiotics are B-Lactamase Resistant

😡😡😡

A

MAD 😡 😡😡

  1. Augmentin
  2. Methicillin
  3. Dicloxacillin
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22
Q

What Cillin has the best/broadest GRAM-NEGATIVE spectrum?

A

AMPICILLIN

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23
Q

What Cillin is used specifically for PSUEDOMONAS?

A

CARBENICILLIN

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24
Q

CEPHALOSPORINS

SJ

A

CEPHALOSPORINS

  • bacterioCIDAL
  • CELL WALL synthesis inhibitor
  • has B-Lactam ring

CEPHalexin (KEFLEX)
CEFuroxime
CEFtriaxone
CEFepime

*OMNICEF CEFdinir (3rd Generation)

Therapeutic uses of cefdinir include otitis media, soft tissue infections, and respiratory tract infections, including sinusitis, strep throat.

It is also one of the medications that can cause toxic epidermal necrolysis or STEVENS-JOHNSON Syndrome.

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25
Q

MONOBACTAMS

A

MONOBACTAMS

  • bacterioCIDAL
  • CELL WALL synthesis inhibitor
  • contains B-Lactam ring

AztreonAM

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26
Q

CARBAPENEMS

A

CARBAPENEMS

  • bacterioCIDAL
  • CELL WALL synthesis inhibitor
  • contains B-Lactam ring

ImiPENUM

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27
Q

What 4 classes of antibiotics are CELL WALL synthesis INHIBITORS and contain a B-Lactam ring?

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Monobactams
  4. Carbapenems

“The MC was PC playing Off the WALL”

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28
Q

TETRACYCLINES 🚲🚲

A

TETRACYCLINES

🚲BROADEST ANTIMICROBIAL SPECTRUM🚲

Children younger than 12 YEARS OLD should NOT take this medicine.

-bacterioSTATIC

-PROTEIN synthesis inhibitor
30S Ribosomal subunit

TetraCYCLINE
doxyCYCLINE
minoCYCLINE

29
Q

What is a BETA-LACTUM ring?

How does a BETA-LACTUM ring interfere with Cell Wall synthesis?

A

-a beta-lactam (β-lactam) ring is a FOUR-MEMBERED lactam. (A lactam is a cyclic amide.)

It is named as such because the nitrogen atom is attached to the β-carbon atom relative to the carbonyl.

  • Antibiotics containing a Beta-Lactum ring kills bacteria through binding of the ring to DD-transpeptidase, INHIBITING its CROSS-LINKING activity and preventing new cell wall formation.
  • In order to form the cell wall, a single PEPTIDOGLYCAN chain is cross-linked to other peptidoglycan chains through the action of the enzyme DD-transpeptidase (also called a penicillin binding protein—PBP). Throughout a bacterial lifecycle, the cell wall (and thus the peptidoglycan crosslinks) is continuously remodeled in order to accommodate for repeated cycles of cell growth and replication.

Without a cell wall, a bacterial cell is vulnerable to OUTSIDE WATER 💧 and MOLECULAR PRESSURE, and quickly dies.

Gram-POSITIVE bacteria have thick cell walls containing HIGH LEVELS of peptidoglycan,

Gram-NEGATIVE bacteria are characterized by thinner cell walls with LOW LEVELS of peptidoglycan.

The cell walls of gram-negative bacteria are surrounded by a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer than prevents antibiotic entry into the cell.
Therefore, it is most effective against gram-positive bacteria where DD-transpeptidase activity is highest.

30
Q

What Bacteria 🦠 is most likely to be PENICILLAN - RESISTANT

A

Some bacteria can become resistant to Beta-Lactum antibiotics by producing BETA-LACTAMASE, a bacterial enzyme that DESTROYS the beta-lactam RING of penicillin and makes it ineffective.

STAPHLYLOCOCCUS AUREUS, which produces high levels of beta-lactamase and causes infections in the BLOOD, SKIN, and LINGS.

Most Staphylococcus aureus strains are now resistant to penicillin.

NOW, Staphylococcus aureus strains are resistant to a second generation penicillin, METHICILLIN, termed methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA use a second resistance method to overcome methicillin.

To date, MRSA has demonstrated blanket resistance to all beta-lactam antibiotics and is an extremely serious health risk.

31
Q

KEFLEX

A

1st Generation Cephalosporin.

First-generation cephalosporins are active predominantly against Gram-POSITIVE bacteria, such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus..

They are therefore used mostly for SKIN and SOFT TISSUE infections.

The antibiotic MAY be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin due to the DIFFERENT β-LACTAM antibiotic structure.

32
Q

MACROLIDES 🐭

A

MACROLIDES 🐭

-bacterioSTATIC

-PROTEIN synthesis inhibitors
(50S Ribosomal subunit)

Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Azithromycin

“MAC LIKES TO THRO MICE”🐭

33
Q

LINCOSAMIDES 🐭

A

LINCOSAMIDES 🐭

-bacterioSTATIC

-PROTEIN synthesis inhibitors
(50S Ribosomal subunit)

Clindamycin
Lincomycin

“LINK ALSO HIDES MICE 🐭”

34
Q

What THREE antibiotic classes work by inhibiting protein synthesis of bacteria?

A
  1. TETRACYCLINES 🚲🚲 30s
  2. MACROLIDES 🐭 50s
  3. LINCOSAMIDES 🐭 50s
35
Q

WHEN IS ANTIBIOTIC PROPHYLAXIS REQUIRED?

A

WHEN IS ANTIBIOTIC PROPHYLAXIS REQUIRED?

  1. CARDIOVASCULAR ❤️ conditions
  • Prosthetic Heart valves 🐄🐖
  • History of Endocarditis 💔🤒
  • Heart Transplant w/ valve regurgitation 💚🌱☘️
  • Congenital heart problems 👶❣️
  1. COMPROMISED IMMUNITY
  • Organ Transplant 🌲💚
  • Neutropenia 💜
  • Cancer🖕C
36
Q

What is Valvular Regurgitation?

A

Valvular Regurgitation

A BACKFLOW of blood caused by FAILURE of the heart’s mitral valve to CLOSE tightly.

REGURGITATION = PROPHYLAXIS

NO ❌ REGURGITATION = NO ❌ PROPHYLAXIS

37
Q

What causes infective endocarditis? 💔🤒🍀

A

💔🤒

The infection can be caused by BACTERIA introduced into the BLOOD STREAM, usually through normal activity such as tooth brushing which causes minor injury to the lining of the mouth or gums. These bacteria can LODGE on heart VALVES and cause infection of the endocardium.

The infection is normally caused by streptococcal or staphylococcal bacteria. Rarely, it can be caused by fungi.

The TRICUSPID ☘️ valve is MOST commonly affected (50%), whereas involvement of the mitral and aortic valves is less common (20% each). The involvement of multiple valves is common. Pulmonary valve endocarditis is rare.

38
Q

RX for Endocarditis Prophylaxis

A

RX for Endocarditis Prophylaxis

  1. AMOXICILLIN FIRST CHOICE
  • Adult 2g 1 hr before tx
  • Peds 50mg/kg 1 hr before tx
  1. CLINDAMYCIN
  • Adult 600mg 1 hr before tx
  • Peds 20mg/kg 1 hr before tx
  1. AMPICILLIN (IV or IM) - non oral
  • Adult 2g 30 min before tx
  • Peds 50mg/kg 30 min before tx

“Clindy Lindy was 600, and her kids were 20g’s”

39
Q

What would you expect to use a SABA (Short acting Beta Agaonist) for?

A

ASTHMA

Short-acting bronchodilators are called “quick-acting,” “reliever,” or “rescue” medications.

These bronchodilators relieve acute asthma symptoms or attacks very quickly by OPENING THE AIRWAYS. … Short-acting bronchodilators are also used before exercise to PREVENT EXERCISED-INDUCED asthma.

Examples of these short-acting medications

End in “OL”

ALBUTEROL (AccuNeb, Proventil HFA, ProAir HFA, Ventolin HFA)
LEVALBUTEROL (Xopenex, Xopenex HFA).

Short-acting beta-agonists should NOT be used more than TWICE a WEEK for shortness of breath.

40
Q

What would you expect to use a LONG acting Beta Agonist for?

A

POORLY CONTROLLED ASTHMA

SABA’s should only be used 1-2 times a weeks. If the patient needs more control for their asthma per week. A Long-Acting Beta Agonist (LABA) will be prescribed in CONJUNCTION with a ICS,
Inhaled Cortical Steroid.

Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs) are taken on a DAILY basis to relax the muscles lining the airways that carry air to the lungs. This allows the tubes to remain open, making breathing easier. LABAs should be taken only in combination with a corticosteroid to treat asthma. They are used in a metered-dose or dry powder inhaler.

Combinations of a long-acting beta2-agonist and inhaled corticosteroid include:

FORMOTEROL and BUDSONUDE (Symbicort)
FORMOTEROL and MOMETESONE (Dulera), SALMATEROL and FLUTICASONE (Advair).

ICS (except budsonise) end in “ONE”
LABA end in “OL”

41
Q

What does a Beta 2 Agonist do?

A

BETA 2 AGONIST

β2 adrenergic agonists’ effects on SMOOTH MUSCLE cause DILATION of bronchial passages, vasodilation in muscle and liver, relaxation of uterine muscle, and release of insulin. They are primarily used to treat ASTHMA and other pulmonary disorders, such as COPD.

42
Q

METRONIDAZOLE

(Flagyl)

🚇

A

METRONIDAZOLE

antibiotic effective against ANAEROBIC 🦠bacteria and certain PARASITES.

ANUG

Oral suspension: 200mg/5ml
Tablets: 200mg and 400 mg

Metro 🚇 200

43
Q

You have a patient with Candida in the mouth and would like to prescribe a lozenge or troche.

What is the name, common name, dosage, and instructions for the medication?

A

CLOTRIMAZOLE

(Mycelex)

10mg

If you are using this medication to treat an oral FUNGAL infection, take it usually FIVE times daily.

“FUNGAL FIVE”

Use this medication orally by placing it in your mouth and allowing it to slowly dissolve over 15-30 minutes.
Do not chew or swallow the lozenge whole. Do not eat or drink while this medication is in your mouth.

44
Q

ACETAMINOPHEN

Max dosage per day?
Dosage instructions?

A

ACETAMINOPHEN (Tylenol)

1 standard tablet: 325 mg
Extra Strength: 500mg

MAX DAILY dose:

Adults: 4 GRAMS
<12 kids: 2.6 GRAMS

DOSAGE:

Adults: 325 to 650 mg every 4-6 hours or 500 mg every 8 hours when using immediate release formulations.

<12 kids: 10-15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours

45
Q

Liquid Tylenol (Acetaminophen)

A

Infant Oral Suspension:

Concentration 5 mL = 160mg

46
Q

Clindamycin

A

CLINDAMYCIN

Children: 8-20 mg/kg TID/QID

Adults: 150-450 mg QID

47
Q

Common ADD/ADHD Meds

A
  1. FOCALIN (Dexmethylphenidate)
  • mild stimulant (CNS)
  • increases ⬆️ neurotransmitters, norepinephrine, dopamine
  1. VYVANE
  2. FOCALIN
48
Q

IBUPROFEN

Max dosage per day?
Dosage instructions?

A

IBUPROFEN

Max Dose:
3200 mg/day (prescription strength)
1200 mg/day (over-the-counter)

Dosage:
Adult: 200 to 400 mg orally every 4 to 6 hours as needed
Pediatric: 4-10 mg/kg every 6-8 hours

49
Q

C. Diff.

What Antibiotics are largely responsible for causing it?

What Antibiotics are used for treating it?

A

Clostridium difficile (C difficile) is responsible for 20-30% of antibiotic-associated DIARRHEA cases and is the most common cause of INFECTIOUS diarrhea in the healthcare setting.

Nearly any antibiotic is capable of disrupting the normal gut microflora, which can allow for C difficile to flourish and produce toxin.

Causing AB:

CLINDAMYCIN carries the HIGHEST risk of C difficile infection with an odds ratio of about 17-20 compared to no antibiotic exposure.

FLOUROquinolones, CEPHALOsporins, aztreonam, and CARBApenems carry a fairly high risk, all of which being associated with an odds ratio of approximately 5 compared to no antibiotic exposure

Treating AB:

Ironically, the standard treatment for C. difficile is another antibiotic. These antibiotics keep C. difficile from growing, which in turn treats diarrhea and other complications. Your doctor may prescribe vancomycin (Vancocin HCL, Firvanq) or fidaxomicin (Dificid).

Metronidazole (Flagyl) may be rarely used if vancomycin or fidaxomicin aren’t available.

50
Q

What does acetaminophen do to the liver?

A

Harmless at low doses, acetaminophen has direct hepatotoxic potential when taken as an overdose and can cause acute liver injury and death from acute liver failure.

Even in therapeutic doses, acetaminophen can cause transient serum AMINOTRANSFERASE elevations.

ELEVATED LIVER ENZYMES may indicate inflammation or damage to cells in the liver. Inflamed or injured liver cells leak higher than normal amounts of certain chemicals, including liver enzymes, into the bloodstream, which can result in elevated liver enzymes on blood tests.

The recommended maximum daily limit is 4,000 mg, which is the amount in eight Extra Strength Tylenol. Over 7,000 mg/day is enough to cause serious overdose.

51
Q

NALOXONE would be used in what situation?

Dosage?

A

Common name: NARCAN (nasal spray)

0.1mg/kg

Naloxone is a medication designed to rapidly REVERSE OPIOID OVERDOSE It is an opioid antagonist—meaning that it BINDS to opioid receptors and can reverse and BLOCK the effects of other opioids.

It can very quickly RESTORE normal RESPIRATION to a person whose breathing has slowed or stopped as a result of overdosing with heroin or prescription opioid pain medications.

52
Q

Tetanus Vaccine / Booster

A

Tetanus is an infection caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria, which is also referred to as LOCKJAW.

A serious bacterial infection that causes painful MUSCLE SPASMS and can lead to death.
Tetanus is a potentially fatal bacterial infection that affects the nerves. A vaccine can easily prevent the infection, which has NO CURE.

If you were immunized in childhood, you need a BOOSTER shot every 10 years.

Babies and children younger than 7 years old receive DTaP or DT, while older children and adults receive Tdap and Td.

53
Q

What is a the immunization schedule for DTaP?

Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis

A

Children should receive FIVE doses of the DTaP vaccine according to the following schedule:

One dose at 2 months of age.
One dose at 4 months of age.
One dose at 6 months of age.
One dose at 15 to 18 months of age.
One dose at 4 to 6 years of age.
54
Q

What is the Immunization Schedule for MMR?

Measles, Mumps, Rubella

A

CDC recommends all children get TWO DOSES of MMR (measles-mumps-rubella) vaccine.

FIRST dose at 12 through 15 months of age, and

SECOND dose at 4 through 6 years of age.

Children can receive the second dose earlier as long as it is at least 28 days after the first dose.

55
Q

What is the immunization schedule for RV?

Rotovirus

A

Two rotavirus vaccines are currently licensed for infants in the United States:

RotaTeq® (RV5) is given in 3 doses at ages 2 months, 4 months, and 6 months

Rotarix® (RV1) is given in 2 doses at ages 2 months and 4 months

56
Q

Adenosine

Used for?

A

SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA (SVT)

Temporarily BLOCKS conduction through the AV NODE for about 10 seconds

Needs RAPID IV push

.1mg/kg

Max 6mg

57
Q

What is the difference between a CC and a ML?

A

1cc will ALWAYS = 1mL

CC cubic centimeter
-used for solid amounts

mL milliliter
-used for fluid amounts

58
Q

Which OTC pain reliever does NOT INHIBIT platelet function?

A

Acetaminophen

59
Q

Appropriate pain medication to give a child weighing 22lbs q4-6 hours

Acetaminophen?
Ibuprofen?

A

22 lbs x .454 = ~10kg
——————————

Acetaminophen: 10-15 mg/kg every 4-6hr

100-150mg Acetaminophen q4-6 hr

——————————

Ibuprofen: 4-10 mg/kg q6-8 hr

40-100mg Ibuprofen 6-8hr

60
Q

Which antipyretic medication does NOT inhibit platelet function?

A

Acetaminophen

61
Q

What general antiemetic drug is appropriate for rectal administration to a nauseated child 🤢

A

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Antihistamine and Antiemetic

It can treat allergies and motion sickness. It can be used as a sedative before and after surgery and medical procedures. This medication can also help control pain, nausea, and vomiting.

62
Q

Appropriate NSAID medication for a 22lb patient every 4-6 hours

A

120 mg Acetominophen

22 lbs = ~10kg

*10-15 mg/kg 4-6 hrs

63
Q

Antibiotics responsible for the inhibition of Protein Synthesis?

A

MACROLIDES

Biaxin (Clarithromycin)
Zithromax (Azithromycin)
Dificid (Fidoximycin)
Erythromycin

Inhibiting the formation of bacterial proteins. In most organisms this action inhibits cell growth; however, in high concentrations it can cause cell death.

64
Q

What Chemotherapeutic Drug causes jaw pain?

A

VINCRISTINE

Used in ALL, AML, Hodgkins, Neuroblastoma

65
Q

Amphotericin B

A

SYSTEMIC FUNGAL infections.

Due to its extensive side effects, it is often reserved for severe infections in critically ill, or immunocompromised patients.

66
Q

Pt has an allergy to Augmentin and history of GI issues, what antibiotic do you prescribe?

A

Azithromycin

67
Q

Side effect of Flumazenil?

A

Convulsions

68
Q

For Children who are already taking Penicillin, what is the best choice for antibiotic PROPHYLAXIS?

A

AZITHROMYCIN 15mg/kg 1 hour before procedure.