MD2001 Week 7 Flashcards
1
Q
3 classes of hormones
A
- proteins
- steroids
- amino acid derivatives
2
Q
what type of hormone secretion is important in embryogenesis?
A
paracrine secretion is important in this development
3
Q
pineal gland
A
gland that secretes melatonin
4
Q
thymus gland
A
gland involved in immune system and blood cell count
5
Q
which type of hormone must be injected to prevent from degradation in gut?
A
protein hormones must be administered this way
6
Q
6 hormones secreted by adenohypophysis
A
- GH
- TSH
- ACTH
- FSH
- LH
- Prolactin
7
Q
Vasopressin
A
antidiuretic hormone
8
Q
what does hypothalamus secrete to stimulate adenohypophysis to secrete FSH?
A
hypothalamus secretes gonadotropic releasing hormone (GnRH) to stimulate this
9
Q
glandular cancer
A
adenoma
10
Q
protein found in the colloid
A
thyroglobulin
11
Q
3 layers of epithelial cells in adrenal cortex
A
- zona glomerulosa
- zona fasciculata
- zona reticularis
12
Q
neuroectoderm
A
neural crest cells
13
Q
Cushing’s Syndrome
A
over secretion of cortisol caused by adenoma
14
Q
exocrine component of the pancreas
A
pancreatic acini that produce pancreatic amylase
15
Q
endocrine component of the pancreas
A
islets of langerhans produce alpha cells (glucagon) and beta cells (insulin)
16
Q
how many pairs of cranial nerves?
A
12 pairs of this type of nerve
17
Q
how many pairs of spinal nerves?
A
31 pairs of this type of nerve
18
Q
what area of body is sympathetic?
A
thoracolumbar is this type of autonomic system
19
Q
what area of body is parasympathetic?
A
craniosacral is this type of autonomic system
20
Q
locations of the ventricles of the brain
A
lateral - cerebral hemisphere
3rd - diencephalon
4th - brain stem
21
Q
3 main sulci
A
- longitudinal
- central
- lateral
22
Q
collection of cell bodies in CNS not called nuclei
A
basal ganglia
23
Q
corpus callosum
A
axon communicating b/w hemispheres
24
Q
constituents of the basal ganglia
A
- caudate nucleus
2. putamen
25
Broca's area
area of brain for delivering speech
26
Wernicke's area
area of brain for understand speech
27
role of thalamus
relay station for inputs from subcortical motor nuclei and cerebellum to cerebral motor cortex
28
role of hypothalamus
maintains water balance, thirst, eating behaviour, GI, body temp, activity of adenohypophysis
29
roles of superior and inferior colliculi respectively
these parts of midbrain control visual and auditory mechanisms respectively
30
red nucleus
subcortical motor centre
31
what surrounds the cerebral aqueduct?
the midbrain surrounds this structure
32
cerebral aqueduct
connects 3rd to 4th ventricle
33
roles of pons (2)
1. connect forebrain and cerebellum
| 2. help regulate respiration, hearing, balance
34
where does pyramidal decussation occur?
this occurs at the medulla oblongata
35
what is regulated at the medulla oblongata?
respiratory rhythm, HR, BP, cough, sneeze, swallowing, vomiting
36
what connects cerebellum to brain stem
peduncles connect these two brain structures
37
role of cerebellum
interprets impulses from motor cortex and coordinates motor activity for smooth, timed movements
38
anterior white commissure
bundle of nerves that cross at the anterior median fissure
39
examples of inherited lipid pathway disorders
- Gaucher's
- Niemann Pick
- Tay-Sachs
- Fabry
40
molecular structure of fatty acid
carboxyl group + hydrocarbon chain
41
which fatty acid nomenclature counts the double bond from the carboxyl end?
delta fatty acid nomenclature works this way
42
amphipathic
having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts
43
types of sterols
1. bile acids
2. steroid hormones
3. vitamins
4. cell membranes
44
structure of a glycerophopholipid
diacylglycerol + phosphate group + head group
45
common head groups (4)
1. choline
2. serine
3. ethanolamine
4. inositol
46
what membrane lipid reduces fluidity of membrane?
cholesterol does this to the membrane
47
2 flippase mechanisms
1. pore model (hydrophilic structure attracts lipid to flip)
| 2. slip-pop ( physically flips lipid)
48
molecular structure of a membrane chain
an alpha helix protein across membrane
49
molecule structure of a membrane pore
5 alpha helices across membrane
50
pleckstrin homology domain
a protein domain that helps protein bind to lipid membrane
51
example of a protein-attached protein
example of this type of protein connection: receptor binding to G protein signalling complex
52
6 steps of cell-cell communication
1. synthesis of signal
2. release signalling molecule by exocytosis, diffusion, cell-cell contact
3. transport signal to target cell
4. detect signal by receptor protein
5. change in cellular function triggered by signal
6. removal of signal
53
3 types of exocrine glands
1. merocrine
2. apocrine
3. holocrine
54
4 types of receptors
1. ligand-gated ion channels (ionotropic) *quick
2. G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) *quick
3. kinase-linked *slow
4. nuclear *slow
55
inositol phospholipid signalling pathway
phospholipase C (PLC) split phospatidylinositol 4, 5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)
56
3 types of protein kinase C (PKC)
1. conventional (requires DAG and Ca2+)
2. novel (requires DAG)
3. atypical
57
3 principle eicosanoids (prostanoids)
1. prostaglandins
2. thromboxanes
3. leukotrienes
58
structure of arachidonic acid
20 C unsaturated fatty acid w/ 4 double bonds
59
how are leukotrienes made?
phospholipase A2 (PLA2) liberate arachidonic acid, which is then metabolized by lipoxygenases to make this
60
what is a byproduct of arachidonic acid liberation?
platelet-activating factor a by product of this
61
thromboxane
- made in platelets
- short lived (as active form A2 lasts only 30s)
- prothrombotic properties
- vasoconstrictor
62
which eicosanoid is responsible for inflammatory response, thermoregulatory (fever) and pain
prostaglandin are responsible for this
63
which eicosanoid is responsible for immune response (asthma, allergy, anaphylactic shock)?
leukotrienes are responsible for this
64
types of coding mutations (3)
1. nonsense/frameshift
2. point
3. silent
65
polymorphisms
minor changes in DNA sequence present in >1% of pop
66
what enzyme attaches amino acid to tRNA?
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
67
what on tRNA attaches to the codon sequence on mRNA?
anticodon attaches these two things
68
where on tRNA does the amino acid attach on to?
it attaches on to the 3' -OH terminal adenosine of tRNA
69
what difference in ribosomes allows antibiotics to target only bacterial ribosomes?
different sedimentation coefficient (S) b/w eukaryotic (80S) and prokaryotic (70S) ribosomes specific target of this
70
3 steps in DNA translation
1. initiation
2. elongation
3. termination
71
start codon
methionine (AUG)
72
kozak consensus sequence
methionine and surrounding sequence where translation begins
73
explain elongation in DNA translation
tRNA binds to ribosome at A-site and peptide bonds form b/w amino acids. Large subunit translocates, followed by small. tRNA exits at E-site
74
polysome
multiple ribosomes working on mRNA
75
signal-recognition particle (SRP)
bind to signal sequence on protein and brings protein to destination
76
example of result of too much protein modification
Tau- hyperphosphorylation causing neurofibrillary tangles in dementia is an example of this
77
examples of SSIs
- pus
- induration
- dehiscence
- lymphadenitis
- abscess
- necrosis
- gas gangrene
- sepsis
78
causes of SSIs
- contamination of incision by microbiota
- damage to tissue or blood vessel
- presence of foreign bodies
- reduced efficacy of inflammatory response
79
classification of surgical wounds
```
class I: clean (elective surgery, R, GI, GU not involved)
class II: clean/contaminated (emergency case, uncomplicated R, GI, or GU surgery)
class III: contaminated (outside objects contact, spillage from GI)
class IV: dirty (purulent inflammation, foreign object lodged)
```
80
prophylaxis
action taken to prevent disease
81
preoperative care
- shower
- don't shave
- give antibiotic prophylaxis
- don't routinely use nasal decontamination
- don't routinely use mechanical bowel prep
82
intraoperative care
- clean hands
- sterile gear
- clean site
- maintain patient homeostasis
- careful handling of tissue
- don't use irrigation
- cover incision w/ appropriate dressing
- short length surgery
83
disinfectants for site of surgery (2)
1. alcohol chlorhexidine
| 2. povidone iodine
84
occlusive dressings (2)
1. hydrocolloid
| 2. polyurethane films
85
postoperative care
- use aseptic or non-touch technique to change/remove dressings
- use sterile saline for wound cleansing
- don't use topical antimicrobial agents
- keep stay short
86
3 levels of presentation of prosthetic joint infection
1. early: less than a month (fulminant w/ wound sepsis)
2. delayed: less than a year (indolent, low grade infection)
3. late onset: over 2 years (septic arthritis)
87
examples of specimens that can be taken for microbiology test
- midstream urine (UTI)
- pus (wound)
- CSF (meningitis)
- blood (pyrexia)
- sputum (pneumonia)
88
3 types of molecular diagnostics
1. smear (rapid, cheap, not sensitive or specific, requires considerable expertise)
2. culture (more sensitive, detailed)
3. MALDI (rapid)
89
serological diagnosis
diagnostic identification of antibodies in the serum.
90
examples of molecular techniques
- DNA hybridization (slow)
| - nucleic acid amplification testing (fast): PCR, ligase chain reaction, automated DNA amplification, real time PCR
91
ability of a test to detect all of the try positives; # of positives obtained/total # of positives
sensitivity
92
ability of a test to identify number of true negatives; # of negatives obtained/# of true negatives
specificity
93
lining of the uterus
endometrium
94
vesico-uterine pounch
recess of peritoneum b/w bladder and uterus
95
introitus
an entrance
96
urethral meatus
opening of the urethra
97
4 propositions to describe features of homeostasis
1. mechanisms act to maintain constancy of body
2. any change is met w/ factors that resist this change
3. regulating system that determines homeostatic state consists of numerous mechanisms
4. homeostasis is not by chance, but a result of organized self-government
98
average body temp.
normal: 37 degrees C
99
what part of brain controls thermoregulation?
hypothalamus controls this
100
steps to the baroreceptor reflex
1. baroreceptors sense arterial pressure
2. brain medulla vasomotor centre detects error
3. sympathetic nervous system affects blood vessels/heart
4. arterial pressure changes
101
players in glucose homeostasis
glucose sensor = special pancreatic cells
controller = autonomic nervous system
effectors = pancreatic cells in islets of Langerhans (a - glucagon, b - insulin)
102
normal blood glucose levels
normal: 4-8mmol/L
103
feedback gain equation
correction divided by error (amount over/under shot by change)
104
4 points in physiological control systems
1. what is the variable being maintained?
2. where are the receptors that detect change?
3. where is the integrating centre and what are the afferent and efferent pathways
4. what are the effectors?
105
5 principals of homeostatic control
1. primarily operate through neg. feedback
2. stability is achieved through balancing inputs and outputs
3. unable to maintain complete constancy of internal environment (range of normal values)
4. unable to maintain every system constant (hierarchy of importance)
5. set point of some control systems can be reset
106
factors affecting body core temperature
- time of day
- stage of menstrual cycle
- activity level
- age
107
main receptors responsible for body temp control (3)
1. hypothalamus
2. receptors in skin
3. deep receptors in spinal cord, abdominal viscera, great veins
108
main effectors of thermal regulation
too hot: vasodilation, sweating, decrease in heat production
| too cold: vasoconstriction, piloerection, increase in thermogenesis, shivering
109
pyrogen
a substance, typically produced by a bacterium, which produces fever
110
what class of molecules are released by pyrogens that cause fever?
cytokines
111
colestyramine
sequesters bile acids
