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MD2001 > MD2001 Week 7 > Flashcards

MD2001 Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

3 classes of hormones

A
  1. proteins
  2. steroids
  3. amino acid derivatives
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2
Q

what type of hormone secretion is important in embryogenesis?

A

paracrine secretion is important in this development

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3
Q

pineal gland

A

gland that secretes melatonin

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4
Q

thymus gland

A

gland involved in immune system and blood cell count

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5
Q

which type of hormone must be injected to prevent from degradation in gut?

A

protein hormones must be administered this way

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6
Q

6 hormones secreted by adenohypophysis

A
  1. GH
  2. TSH
  3. ACTH
  4. FSH
  5. LH
  6. Prolactin
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7
Q

Vasopressin

A

antidiuretic hormone

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8
Q

what does hypothalamus secrete to stimulate adenohypophysis to secrete FSH?

A

hypothalamus secretes gonadotropic releasing hormone (GnRH) to stimulate this

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9
Q

glandular cancer

A

adenoma

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10
Q

protein found in the colloid

A

thyroglobulin

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11
Q

3 layers of epithelial cells in adrenal cortex

A
  1. zona glomerulosa
  2. zona fasciculata
  3. zona reticularis
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12
Q

neuroectoderm

A

neural crest cells

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13
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome

A

over secretion of cortisol caused by adenoma

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14
Q

exocrine component of the pancreas

A

pancreatic acini that produce pancreatic amylase

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15
Q

endocrine component of the pancreas

A

islets of langerhans produce alpha cells (glucagon) and beta cells (insulin)

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16
Q

how many pairs of cranial nerves?

A

12 pairs of this type of nerve

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17
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves?

A

31 pairs of this type of nerve

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18
Q

what area of body is sympathetic?

A

thoracolumbar is this type of autonomic system

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19
Q

what area of body is parasympathetic?

A

craniosacral is this type of autonomic system

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20
Q

locations of the ventricles of the brain

A

lateral - cerebral hemisphere
3rd - diencephalon
4th - brain stem

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21
Q

3 main sulci

A
  1. longitudinal
  2. central
  3. lateral
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22
Q

collection of cell bodies in CNS not called nuclei

A

basal ganglia

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23
Q

corpus callosum

A

axon communicating b/w hemispheres

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24
Q

constituents of the basal ganglia

A
  1. caudate nucleus

2. putamen

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25
Q

Broca’s area

A

area of brain for delivering speech

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26
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

area of brain for understand speech

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27
Q

role of thalamus

A

relay station for inputs from subcortical motor nuclei and cerebellum to cerebral motor cortex

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28
Q

role of hypothalamus

A

maintains water balance, thirst, eating behaviour, GI, body temp, activity of adenohypophysis

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29
Q

roles of superior and inferior colliculi respectively

A

these parts of midbrain control visual and auditory mechanisms respectively

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30
Q

red nucleus

A

subcortical motor centre

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31
Q

what surrounds the cerebral aqueduct?

A

the midbrain surrounds this structure

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32
Q

cerebral aqueduct

A

connects 3rd to 4th ventricle

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33
Q

roles of pons (2)

A
  1. connect forebrain and cerebellum

2. help regulate respiration, hearing, balance

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34
Q

where does pyramidal decussation occur?

A

this occurs at the medulla oblongata

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35
Q

what is regulated at the medulla oblongata?

A

respiratory rhythm, HR, BP, cough, sneeze, swallowing, vomiting

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36
Q

what connects cerebellum to brain stem

A

peduncles connect these two brain structures

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37
Q

role of cerebellum

A

interprets impulses from motor cortex and coordinates motor activity for smooth, timed movements

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38
Q

anterior white commissure

A

bundle of nerves that cross at the anterior median fissure

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39
Q

examples of inherited lipid pathway disorders

A
  • Gaucher’s
  • Niemann Pick
  • Tay-Sachs
  • Fabry
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40
Q

molecular structure of fatty acid

A

carboxyl group + hydrocarbon chain

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41
Q

which fatty acid nomenclature counts the double bond from the carboxyl end?

A

delta fatty acid nomenclature works this way

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42
Q

amphipathic

A

having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts

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43
Q

types of sterols

A
  1. bile acids
  2. steroid hormones
  3. vitamins
  4. cell membranes
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44
Q

structure of a glycerophopholipid

A

diacylglycerol + phosphate group + head group

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45
Q

common head groups (4)

A
  1. choline
  2. serine
  3. ethanolamine
  4. inositol
46
Q

what membrane lipid reduces fluidity of membrane?

A

cholesterol does this to the membrane

47
Q

2 flippase mechanisms

A
  1. pore model (hydrophilic structure attracts lipid to flip)

2. slip-pop ( physically flips lipid)

48
Q

molecular structure of a membrane chain

A

an alpha helix protein across membrane

49
Q

molecule structure of a membrane pore

A

5 alpha helices across membrane

50
Q

pleckstrin homology domain

A

a protein domain that helps protein bind to lipid membrane

51
Q

example of a protein-attached protein

A

example of this type of protein connection: receptor binding to G protein signalling complex

52
Q

6 steps of cell-cell communication

A
  1. synthesis of signal
  2. release signalling molecule by exocytosis, diffusion, cell-cell contact
  3. transport signal to target cell
  4. detect signal by receptor protein
  5. change in cellular function triggered by signal
  6. removal of signal
53
Q

3 types of exocrine glands

A
  1. merocrine
  2. apocrine
  3. holocrine
54
Q

4 types of receptors

A
  1. ligand-gated ion channels (ionotropic) *quick
  2. G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) *quick
  3. kinase-linked *slow
  4. nuclear *slow
55
Q

inositol phospholipid signalling pathway

A

phospholipase C (PLC) split phospatidylinositol 4, 5-bisphosphate (PIP2) into inositol 1,4,5 triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)

56
Q

3 types of protein kinase C (PKC)

A
  1. conventional (requires DAG and Ca2+)
  2. novel (requires DAG)
  3. atypical
57
Q

3 principle eicosanoids (prostanoids)

A
  1. prostaglandins
  2. thromboxanes
  3. leukotrienes
58
Q

structure of arachidonic acid

A

20 C unsaturated fatty acid w/ 4 double bonds

59
Q

how are leukotrienes made?

A

phospholipase A2 (PLA2) liberate arachidonic acid, which is then metabolized by lipoxygenases to make this

60
Q

what is a byproduct of arachidonic acid liberation?

A

platelet-activating factor a by product of this

61
Q

thromboxane

A
  • made in platelets
  • short lived (as active form A2 lasts only 30s)
  • prothrombotic properties
  • vasoconstrictor
62
Q

which eicosanoid is responsible for inflammatory response, thermoregulatory (fever) and pain

A

prostaglandin are responsible for this

63
Q

which eicosanoid is responsible for immune response (asthma, allergy, anaphylactic shock)?

A

leukotrienes are responsible for this

64
Q

types of coding mutations (3)

A
  1. nonsense/frameshift
  2. point
  3. silent
65
Q

polymorphisms

A

minor changes in DNA sequence present in >1% of pop

66
Q

what enzyme attaches amino acid to tRNA?

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

67
Q

what on tRNA attaches to the codon sequence on mRNA?

A

anticodon attaches these two things

68
Q

where on tRNA does the amino acid attach on to?

A

it attaches on to the 3’ -OH terminal adenosine of tRNA

69
Q

what difference in ribosomes allows antibiotics to target only bacterial ribosomes?

A

different sedimentation coefficient (S) b/w eukaryotic (80S) and prokaryotic (70S) ribosomes specific target of this

70
Q

3 steps in DNA translation

A
  1. initiation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
71
Q

start codon

A

methionine (AUG)

72
Q

kozak consensus sequence

A

methionine and surrounding sequence where translation begins

73
Q

explain elongation in DNA translation

A

tRNA binds to ribosome at A-site and peptide bonds form b/w amino acids. Large subunit translocates, followed by small. tRNA exits at E-site

74
Q

polysome

A

multiple ribosomes working on mRNA

75
Q

signal-recognition particle (SRP)

A

bind to signal sequence on protein and brings protein to destination

76
Q

example of result of too much protein modification

A

Tau- hyperphosphorylation causing neurofibrillary tangles in dementia is an example of this

77
Q

examples of SSIs

A
  • pus
  • induration
  • dehiscence
  • lymphadenitis
  • abscess
  • necrosis
  • gas gangrene
  • sepsis
78
Q

causes of SSIs

A
  • contamination of incision by microbiota
  • damage to tissue or blood vessel
  • presence of foreign bodies
  • reduced efficacy of inflammatory response
79
Q

classification of surgical wounds

A 
class I: clean (elective surgery, R, GI, GU not involved)
class II: clean/contaminated (emergency case, uncomplicated R, GI, or GU surgery)
class III: contaminated (outside objects contact, spillage from GI)
class IV: dirty (purulent inflammation, foreign object lodged)
80
Q

prophylaxis

A

action taken to prevent disease

81
Q

preoperative care

A
  • shower
  • don’t shave
  • give antibiotic prophylaxis
  • don’t routinely use nasal decontamination
  • don’t routinely use mechanical bowel prep
82
Q

intraoperative care

A
  • clean hands
  • sterile gear
  • clean site
  • maintain patient homeostasis
  • careful handling of tissue
  • don’t use irrigation
  • cover incision w/ appropriate dressing
  • short length surgery
83
Q

disinfectants for site of surgery (2)

A
  1. alcohol chlorhexidine

2. povidone iodine

84
Q

occlusive dressings (2)

A
  1. hydrocolloid

2. polyurethane films

85
Q

postoperative care

A
  • use aseptic or non-touch technique to change/remove dressings
  • use sterile saline for wound cleansing
  • don’t use topical antimicrobial agents
  • keep stay short
86
Q

3 levels of presentation of prosthetic joint infection

A
  1. early: less than a month (fulminant w/ wound sepsis)
  2. delayed: less than a year (indolent, low grade infection)
  3. late onset: over 2 years (septic arthritis)
87
Q

examples of specimens that can be taken for microbiology test

A
  • midstream urine (UTI)
  • pus (wound)
  • CSF (meningitis)
  • blood (pyrexia)
  • sputum (pneumonia)
88
Q

3 types of molecular diagnostics

A
  1. smear (rapid, cheap, not sensitive or specific, requires considerable expertise)
  2. culture (more sensitive, detailed)
  3. MALDI (rapid)
89
Q

serological diagnosis

A

diagnostic identification of antibodies in the serum.

90
Q

examples of molecular techniques

A
  • DNA hybridization (slow)

- nucleic acid amplification testing (fast): PCR, ligase chain reaction, automated DNA amplification, real time PCR

91
Q

ability of a test to detect all of the try positives; # of positives obtained/total # of positives

A

sensitivity

92
Q

ability of a test to identify number of true negatives; # of negatives obtained/# of true negatives

A

specificity

93
Q

lining of the uterus

A

endometrium

94
Q

vesico-uterine pounch

A

recess of peritoneum b/w bladder and uterus

95
Q

introitus

A

an entrance

96
Q

urethral meatus

A

opening of the urethra

97
Q

4 propositions to describe features of homeostasis

A
  1. mechanisms act to maintain constancy of body
  2. any change is met w/ factors that resist this change
  3. regulating system that determines homeostatic state consists of numerous mechanisms
  4. homeostasis is not by chance, but a result of organized self-government
98
Q

average body temp.

A

normal: 37 degrees C

99
Q

what part of brain controls thermoregulation?

A

hypothalamus controls this

100
Q

steps to the baroreceptor reflex

A
  1. baroreceptors sense arterial pressure
  2. brain medulla vasomotor centre detects error
  3. sympathetic nervous system affects blood vessels/heart
  4. arterial pressure changes
101
Q

players in glucose homeostasis

A

glucose sensor = special pancreatic cells
controller = autonomic nervous system
effectors = pancreatic cells in islets of Langerhans (a - glucagon, b - insulin)

102
Q

normal blood glucose levels

A

normal: 4-8mmol/L

103
Q

feedback gain equation

A

correction divided by error (amount over/under shot by change)

104
Q

4 points in physiological control systems

A
  1. what is the variable being maintained?
  2. where are the receptors that detect change?
  3. where is the integrating centre and what are the afferent and efferent pathways
  4. what are the effectors?
105
Q

5 principals of homeostatic control

A
  1. primarily operate through neg. feedback
  2. stability is achieved through balancing inputs and outputs
  3. unable to maintain complete constancy of internal environment (range of normal values)
  4. unable to maintain every system constant (hierarchy of importance)
  5. set point of some control systems can be reset
106
Q

factors affecting body core temperature

A
  • time of day
  • stage of menstrual cycle
  • activity level
  • age
107
Q

main receptors responsible for body temp control (3)

A
  1. hypothalamus
  2. receptors in skin
  3. deep receptors in spinal cord, abdominal viscera, great veins
108
Q

main effectors of thermal regulation

A

too hot: vasodilation, sweating, decrease in heat production

too cold: vasoconstriction, piloerection, increase in thermogenesis, shivering

109
Q

pyrogen

A

a substance, typically produced by a bacterium, which produces fever

110
Q

what class of molecules are released by pyrogens that cause fever?

A

cytokines

111
Q

colestyramine

A

sequesters bile acids

MD2001 (9 decks)

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